Introduction to Human Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology explores the fundamental principles of biology as they apply to the human body. The course covers key concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, organ systems, homeostasis, human development, and the biological basis of health and disease. Students will develop an understanding of how the bodys systems interact to maintain life, how genetic and environmental factors influence human biology, and how scientific inquiry is used to study human health. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, this course provides a foundational understanding suitable for students pursuing health-related fields or seeking general knowledge about their own biology.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 12th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following URLs would you perhaps distrust in writing a scientific paper?
A) .com
B) .gov
C) .edu
D) .org
Answer: A
Q2) A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Viruses are not considered alive.Which of the following characteristics of living things do they lack?
A) Living things reproduce.
B) Living things have an evolutionary history.
C) Living things grow and develop.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an acidic solution
A) the number of H<sup>+</sup> is less than the number of OH<sup>-</sup>.
B) the number of H<sup>+</sup> is greater than the number of OH<sup>-</sup>.
C) the number of H<sup>+</sup> is equal to the number of OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: B
Q2) An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?
A) secondary
B) primary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Answer: A
Q3) A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H<sup>+</sup> as a pH of 6.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The function of RNA in the body is to store the genetic information in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with it's false feet or pseudopods.This process is known as
A) pinocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) facilitated transport.
E) osmosis.
Answer: B
Q2) A certain substance continues to enter the cell in the presence of a metabolic poison that disables the generation of energy by the cell.Where is the higher concentration of the substance?
A) outside the cell
B) inside the cell
Answer: A
Q3) Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water.What happened in the red blood cells?
A) The cells shrunk.
B) The cells burst.
C) The cells did not change.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph contains no cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ glands are considered ductless glands and ______ glands are contain ducts.
A) Exocrine, endocrine
B) Transitional, exocrine
C) Transitional, endocrine
D) Endocrine, exocrine
E) Sudoriferous, transitional
Q3) In epithelial tissues,what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?
A) ependymal cells
B) plasma membrane
C) synovial membrane
D) basement membrane
E) transitional membrane
Q4) There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the body is blood pressure the highest?
A) superior vena cava
B) aorta
C) inferior vena cava
D) lung capillaries
E) renal capillaries
Q2) Blood pressure plays a major role in returning blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A) feeling of pressure in the chest
B) dizziness
C) nausea and vomiting
D) diarrhea
E) shortness of breath
Q4) Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
A) right atrium
B) right ventricle
C) left atrium
D) left ventricle
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called
A) oxyhemoglobin.
B) betahemoglobin.
C) carbaminohemoglobin.
D) alphahemoglobin.
E) deoxyhemoglobin.
Q2) Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the plasma?
A) fibrinogens
B) gamma globulins
C) astrocytes
D) albumins
E) hemoglobin
Q4) The most abundant component of plasma is water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason the complement system is called that is because it
A) is part of the inflammatory response.
B) helps other immune responses.
C) involves chemical barriers to entry.
D) produces T and B cells.
E) is composed of normal flora.
Q2) The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection.He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs.The mode of action of the drug is to
A) inhibit ribosomal activity.
B) interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall.
C) denature bacterial DNA.
D) speed up bacterial metabolism.
E) punch a hole in the cell membrane.
Q3) Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?
A) They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells.
B) They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte.
C) They are produced by hybridomas.
D) They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions.
E) They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy.
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Chapter 8: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the liver to increase its production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile?
A) GIP
B) CCK
C) HCl
D) ATP
E) NAD
Q2) The gallbladder produces bile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The small intestine is longer than the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) liver
B) salivary glands
C) small intestines
D) pancreas
E) gallbladder
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Chapter 9: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the respiratory control center located?
A) in the brain
B) in the bronchi
C) in the lungs
D) in the aorta
E) in the diaphragm
Q2) How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H<sup>+</sup> + HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O + CO<sub>2</sub> ?
A) pushes it to the right
B) pushes it to the left
C) does not affect it
Q3) The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the A) vital capacity.
B) tidal volume.
C) inspiratory reserve volume.
D) expiratory reserve volume.
E) residual volume.
Q4) Can you hold your breath until you die?
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Chapter 10: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many openings are there from the urinary bladder?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q2) While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus,none is excreted in the urine.What happens to the glucose?
A) It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule.
B) It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.
D) It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule.
E) It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct.
Q3) The renal pelvis is continuous with the
A) renal cortex.
B) bladder.
C) urethra.
D) ureter.
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Chapter 11: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable?
A) fibrous
B) cartilaginous
C) synovial
Q3) From the outside of a long bone inside,what is the first tissue encountered?
A) compact bone
B) spongy bone
C) periosteum
D) medullary cavity
E) bone marrow
Q4) Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ligament connects
A) cartilage to bone.
B) muscle to bone.
C) bone to bone.
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Chapter 12: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do smooth,cardiac,and skeletal muscle all have in common?
A) They are all uninucleated.
B) They are all striated.
C) They are all found in the walls of blood vessels.
D) The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers.
E) They all interlock at intercalated disks.
Q2) How are muscles attached to bone?
A) with ligaments
B) with tendons
C) with bursae
Q3) Each actin molecule is shaped like a golf club,with a straight portion ending in a globular head.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which part of the cardiovascular system does not include muscle?
A) heart
B) arteries
C) veins
D) capillaries
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Chapter 13: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intensity of a message is determined by how many action potentials are generated within a given time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) sensory nerves--afferent
B) motor nerves--efferent
C) somatic motor nerves: smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands
D) somatic sensory nerves--skin, muscles, joints, special senses
E) visceral sensory nerves--body organs
Q3) Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc.1.Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons.2.Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector.3.Sensory receptors generate nerve signals.4.Interneurons synapse with motor neurons.5.There is a response to the stimulus.
A) 3,4,1,2,5
B) 2,1,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 3,1,4,2,5
E) 2,4,1,3,5
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Chapter 14: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm?
A) The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt.
B) Sometimes, stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin.
C) The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going to the spinal cord.
D) Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the blood stream to the left shoulder and arm first.
Q2) What controls the shape of the lens?
A) ciliary muscle
B) cornea
C) iris
D) pupil
E) fovea centralis
Q3) Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release?
A) Glucose is not broken down.
B) The immune cells are suppressed.
C) Inflammation is reduced.
D) Proteins and fat are broken down.
E) Blood volume and pressure increase.
Q2) Which of the following is not a symptom of Addison disease?
A) low blood pressure
B) bronzing of the skin
C) mild infections can lead to death
D) loss of sodium and water
E) increased blood sugar levels
Q3) Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones?
A) cholesterol
B) peptides
C) proteins
D) glycoproteins
E) modified amino acids
Q4) Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic?
Q5) Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control?
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for genital herpes can cure the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many chromosomes does a sperm contain?
A) 1
B) 23
C) 24
D) 46
E) 48
Q3) How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?
A) 2 times normal
B) 3 times normal
C) 4 times normal
D) 5 times normal
E) 6 times normal
Q4) The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Is bacterial vaginosis (BV)always a result of sexual transmission?
Q6) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar?
A) They are both present in an adult human.
B) They both carry blood to the lungs.
C) They both connect to the superior vena cava.
D) They both carry oxygen-rich blood.
E) They both connect to the placenta.
Q2) Which of the following is not a chief effect of progesterone?
A) increased uterine blood flow
B) relaxation of smooth muscle
C) reduced uterine motility
D) reduced maternal immune response to fetus
Q3) Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor?
A) bloody show
B) effacement
C) uterine contractions
D) breaking water
E) dislodging of the placenta
Q4) The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I,how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
Q2) When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) telophase I
Q3) How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?
A) One follows directly after the other.
B) There is usually a pause of about 1 hour.
C) It varies, but on the order of years.
Q4) In a karyotype,each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Cancer
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Q1) Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer?
A) RB
B) RET
C) p53
D) cyclin D
E) BRCA1
Q3) Melacine,used against melanoma,is a type of cancer vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer?
A) PAP test
B) PSA test
C) CEA test
D) genetic test
E) tumor marker test
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Chapter 20: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?
Q2) Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
A) Aa
B) Ab
C) aB
D) ab
E) aa
Q3) Dad has a genotype of AaBb.How many different kinds of sperm can he produce?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q4) It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: DNA Biology and Technology
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Q1) The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the RNAs
A) can be found in the ribosomes.
B) are translated into proteins.
C) are transcribed from DNA.
D) function within the nucleus.
E) interact with amino acids.
Q4) How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?
A) 3 billion; 80,000
B) 1 million; 1 million
C) 20,500; 80,000
D) 80,000; 20,500
E) 125 million; 1 million
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Chapter 22: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the order of evolving organisms is not true?
A) Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes.
B) Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants.
C) Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants.
D) Reptiles preceded the amphibians.
E) Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals.
Q2) On what basis was life divided into three domains?
A) rRNA sequence data
B) cytochrome c sequence data
C) mitochondrial DNA sequence data
D) the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles
Q3) Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A) ferns
B) oak trees
C) grass
D) beans
E) roses
Q2) Which is the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
A) excretion
B) defecation
C) growth and reproduction
D) cellular respiration
E) death
Q3) Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit?
A) deer
B) snake
C) fox
D) hawk
E) beetle
Q4) Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid?
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Q1) Measures that include noneconomic indicators are most likely better at revealing our quality of life than is the gross national product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an issue for coastal areas?
A) loss of habitat for organisms
B) loss of buffer zone for storms
C) desertification
D) pollution
E) erosion
Q3) Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched?
A) cultural value--language and history
B) option value--preserving for the future
C) educational value--experience of nature
D) aesthetic value--agricultural use
E) use value--entrance fees
Q4) Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Infectious Diseases Supplement
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Q1) HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe.This is due to
A) both cellular and antibody-mediated responses.
B) the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome.
C) HIV's high rate of mutation.
D) the fact that HIV targets T-cells.
E) the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.
Q2) Why would an HIV test be negative within the first 2-3 weeks of an HIV infection?
A) because there is no HIV virus in the blood
B) because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood
C) because there are no symptoms
D) because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
E) because there are no opportunistic infections yet
Q3) There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city.However,in the month of September,there were 15 cases.Is this an epidemic?
Q4) There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold.
A)True
B)False
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