Introduction to Human Anatomy Test
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Anatomy is a foundational course that explores the structure and organization of the human body. Students will examine the major systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems emphasizing both macroscopic and microscopic anatomy. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and visual aids, learners will develop an understanding of anatomical terminology, spatial relationships, and the physiological relevance of each body part. This course provides essential knowledge for further studies in health sciences, biology, and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Q1) ________ serous membranes line the walls of cavities,whereas ________ serous membranes cover the surfaces of internal organs.
A) Parietal; visceral
B) Visceral; parietal
C) Pericardial; peritoneal
D) Pleural; visceral
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ system defends against disease and infection.
A) muscular
B) lymphatic
C) skeletal
D) integumentary
Answer: B
Q3) The ventral cavity consists of the ________ and ________ cavities.
A) abdominal; pelvic
B) mediastinum; pleural
C) thoracic; abdominopelvic
D) cranial; vertebral
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Q1) The ability to distinguish close objects as separate and distinct is known as
A) working distance
B) field of view
C) resolving power
D) depth of field
Answer: C
Q2) The ________ is a revolving structure that holds the objective lenses.
A) coarse adjustment knob
B) nosepiece
C) mechanical stage control knobs
D) fine adjustment knob
Answer: B
Q3) Calculate the total magnification of a specimen if the magnification of the ocular lens is 10× and the magnification of the objective lens is 45×.
A) 450×
B) 4.5×
C) 45×
D) 4500×
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Q1) The ________ produces ribosomes.
A) Golgi apparatus
B) nucleolus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleus
Answer: B
Q2) The ________ is usually the largest organelle in a eukaryotic cell.It contains the genetic material of the cell,which directs cellular activity.
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) lysosome
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: A
Q3) The ________ synthesize(s)lipids and glycogen.
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Q1) Given two aqueous solutions with different concentrations of solute,separated by a selectively permeable membrane (permeable to water,but not solute),water will move from the solution with ________ solute concentration to the solution with ________ solute concentration.
A) greater; lesser
B) lesser; greater
C) Water will not move between the two solutions.
D) There is not enough information to answer the question.
Q2) Which of the following statements explains the observation that dye diffuses more quickly as temperature increases?
A) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature increases.
B) Random motion of particles increases as temperature decreases.
C) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature decreases.
D) Random motion of particles increases as temperature increases.
Q3) A ________ is a substance that dissolves when added to a solvent.
A) molecule
B) buffer
C) solute
D) compound
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) The most prominent distinguishing characteristic of elastic cartilage is the presence of ________.
A) numerous thick collagen fibers interspersed between alternating rows of lacunae in the matrix
B) chondrocytes
C) densely packed elastic fibers in the matrix.
D) a glassy appearance
Q2) ________ epithelium consists of cube-shaped cells.
A) Simple
B) Squamous
C) Columnar
D) Cuboidal
Q3) The ________ is the basic structural unit of compact bone.
A) canaliculus
B) osteon
C) bone lamella
D) central canal
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The patterns found in fingerprints are produced by ________.
A) projection of the dermal papillae into the epidermis
B) projection of the hypodermis into the epidermis
C) projection of the epidermis into the hypodermis
D) projection of the hypodermis into the dermis
Q2) The specialized cells that produce the pigment melanin are called ________.
A) keratinocytes
B) melanocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) stem cells
Q3) The protein that makes the skin water resistant is ________.
A) melanin
B) keratin
C) elastin
D) collagen
Q4) The skin is also known as the ________.
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) cutaneous membrane
D) hypodermis
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) A 57-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with overproduction of red bone marrow,which has been causing significant bone pain.Which of the following bones is likely to be involved?
A) tarsals
B) vertebra
C) metacarpals
D) patella
Q2) Which bone contains the supraorbital foramen?
A) maxilla
B) ethmoid
C) frontal
D) palatine
Q3) In which of the following bones would the diploë be found?
A) parietal
B) sternum
C) femur
D) rib
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following carpal bones is most commonly fractured during a fall?
A) capitate
B) triquetrum
C) scaphoid
D) hamate
Q2) What is the roughened surface on the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches?
A) medial epicondyle
B) deltoid tuberosity
C) capitulum
D) lateral epicondyle
Q3) Which bone articulates with the manubrium of the sternum?
A) scapula
B) third rib
C) humerus
D) clavicle
Q4) Which of the following is a bony protrusion on the distal end of the femur?
A) greater trochanter
B) linea aspera
C) medial epicondyle
D) gluteal tuberosity
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) The movement of the thumb so that it passes directly across the palmar surface of your hand is known as ________ of the thumb.
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) flexion
D) opposition
Q2) Which of the following ligaments supports the anterior aspect of the shoulder?
A) coracohumeral
B) coracoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
D) acromioclavicular
Q3) Which of the following is a hinge joint?
A) interphalangeal
B) atlantoaxial
C) radioulnar
D) carpometacarpal
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) What is the anatomical name for the combination of cisternae and a transverse tubule?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) sarcolemma
C) triad
D) Z line
Q2) What structure of a sarcomere contains proteins that connect and stabilize thin filaments?
A) Z line
B) H band
C) I band
D) A band
Q3) Which of the following is a double-stranded protein that blocks actin-binding sites?
A) myosin
B) DNA
C) tropomyosin
D) troponin
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) Describe the relationship between the origin and insertion of a muscle.
A) The origin remains fixed and the insertion moves toward the origin during contraction.
B) Both the origin and insertion move when a muscle contracts.
C) The insertion remains fixed and the origin moves toward the origin during contraction.
D) There is no relationship between the origin and insertion.
Q2) A synergist ________.
A) serves as the fixed attachment of a muscle
B) assists the action of the agonist
C) opposes a specific action
D) is also known a prime mover. Contraction results in a specific action
Q3) Identify the prime mover that facilitates the action of your nostrils in the following situation: After a particularly vigorous exercise class,your strong breathing is accompanied by flaring of the nostrils.
A) nasalis
B) frontalis
C) mentalis
D) procerus
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13
Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) The extensor digitorum longus and flexor digitorum longus ________.
A) facilitate dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot
B) share a common action: flexion of the toes
C) share a common action: extension of the toes
D) facilitate opposing actions: extension and flexion of the toes, respectively
Q2) What is unique about the brachioradialis muscle of the anterior forearm?
A) The insertion of the brachioradialis is on the humerus.
B) The origin of the brachioradialis is on the humerus.
C) The brachioradialis muscle acts on the elbow joint.
D) The brachioradialis acts as a flexor, while the majority of the superficial layer muscles act as extensors.
Q3) Which of the following terms might be found in the name of a muscle that is shaped like a square?
A) rhombus
B) serratus
C) quadratus
D) brevis
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) The speed of muscle contraction is ________ related to load.
A) indirectly
B) not
C) directly
D) inversely
Q2) If your lab partner measures the angle formed between your arm and your shoulder as you adduct your arm such that it crosses anterior to your torso,which type of flexibility is being measured?
A) static
B) dynamic
C) goniometer
D) muscle
Q3) Using your hands and forearms to push against--but not move--a brick wall involves which of the following?
A) isotonic contraction
B) concentric contraction
C) isometric contraction
D) eccentric contraction
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following types of neurons serves as motor neurons for voluntary and involuntary movements?
A) bipolar neurons
B) anaxonic neurons
C) unipolar neurons
D) multipolar neurons
Q2) ________ neurons possess one axon and one dendrite.
A) Bipolar
B) Multipolar
C) Unipolar
D) Anaxonic
Q3) The spinal nerves of the PNS are formed by the combination of ________.
A) white matter and gray matter
B) a ventral root and a dorsal root
C) an anterior horn and a posterior horn
D) a dorsal root ganglion and a ventral root
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following cell types produces cerebrospinal fluid?
A) microglia
B) oligodendrocytes
C) astrocytes
D) ependymal cells
Q2) The ________,located in each of the ventricles,produce cerebrospinal fluid.
A) interventricular foramina
B) basal nuclei
C) choroid plexuses
D) arachnoid granulations
Q3) The ________ is the fold of the dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres.
A) falx cerebelli
B) endosteal layer
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebelli
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following statements explains why sensations felt on the left side of the body are received by the right cerebral hemisphere?
A) There is no explanation for this occurrence.
B) Axons of third-order neurons cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
C) First-order neurons cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
D) Axons of second-order neurons in a sensory pathway cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
Q2) Spinal nerves are classified as mixed nerves because they ________.
A) contain sensory nerve fibers only
B) contain neither sensory nor motor nerve fibers
C) contain motor nerve fibers only
D) contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers
Q3) The ________ connect(s)the pia mater to the dura mater of the spinal cord.
A) denticulate ligaments
B) conus medullaris
C) spinal nerves
D) filum terminale
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18
Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Which of the elements of a reflex arc is responsible for delivering motor impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs?
A) motor neuron
B) sensory neuron
C) integration center
D) sensory receptor
Q2) Stretch reflexes are triggered by engagement of sensory receptors called
A) sensory receptors
B) skeletal muscles
C) muscle fascicles
D) muscle spindles
Q3) Which of the following is a normal response to the patellar reflex test?
A) contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscles and slight extension of the leg
B) contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus coupled with slight plantar flexion
C) spreading of the toes
D) plantar flexion
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately summarizes the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium?
A) Static equilibrium involves changes in olfaction, whereas dynamic equilibrium involves changes in gustation.
B) There is no difference between static and dynamic equilibrium.
C) Static equilibrium involves changes in linear movements, whereas dynamic equilibrium involves changes in angular acceleration and deceleration.
D) Dynamic equilibrium involves changes in linear movements, whereas static equilibrium involves changes in angular acceleration and deceleration.
Q2) The sensory receptors for gustation are called ________.
A) papillae
B) taste buds
C) transitional cells
D) basal cells
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) A 45-year-old man has experienced a thickening of the bones of his wrist and face.Laboratory testing has revealed an increased production of one hormone that could be caused by a tumor.Where is the most likely location of the tumor?
A) posterior pituitary
B) pancreas
C) anterior pituitary
D) thyroid
Q2) Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH)produced?
A) pituitary
B) pineal gland
C) adrenal medulla
D) hypothalamus
Q3) Which region of the pituitary produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone in fetuses,young children,and pregnant women?
A) hypothalamus
B) adenohypophysis
C) pars intermedia
D) neurohypophysis
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Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis.What abnormalities would a differential white blood cell count reveal?
A) moderately elevated lymphocytes
B) moderately elevated basophils
C) moderately elevated eosinophils
D) moderately elevated thrombocytes
Q2) Which of the following leukocytes are responsible for producing antibodies?
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
Q3) A patient's bloodwork shows abnormal granulocytes.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) hematocrit
B) myeloid leukemia
C) anemia
D) lymphoid leukemia
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) A failure of which of the following heart valves would most likely lead to right atrial hypertrophy?
A) pulmonary semilunar valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
Q2) Which of the following vessels empties into the right atrium?
A) pulmonary trunk
B) pulmonary veins
C) superior vena cava
D) ascending aorta
Q3) A 57-year-old patient has been diagnosed with inflammation of the inner lining of the heart.What is this condition called?
A) congestive heart failure
B) endocarditis
C) pericarditis
D) atrial septal defect
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23
Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) A pulmonary embolism is most likely to enter the pulmonary circulation directly from which part of the heart?
A) left atrium
B) right ventricle
C) left ventricle
D) right atrium
Q2) What artery becomes the femoral artery as it passes deep to the inguinal ligament?
A) popliteal
B) anterior tibial
C) external iliac
D) great saphenous
Q3) Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the primary sex organs?
A) renal
B) inferior phrenic
C) adrenal
D) gonadal
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) The artery at the pulse point found at the femoral triangle is the ________.
A) femoral artery
B) superficial temporal artery
C) popliteal artery
D) radial artery
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the pressure in the atria and ventricles at the beginning of the cardiac cycle?
A) Pressure is highest in the atria and lowest in the ventricles.
B) Pressure is lowest in the atria and highest in the ventricles.
C) Pressure is equal in the chambers of the heart.
D) We're unsure of the pressure in the beginning of the cardiac cycle.
Q3) A ________ is used to measure blood pressure.
A) electrocardiograph
B) electrode
C) sphygmomanometer
D) stethoscope
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) The lymph nodes ________.
A) phagocytize damaged red blood cells
B) are located only in the neck
C) produce thymosins
D) filter lymph before it is returned to the blood
Q2) The ________ cover(s)the superior portion of the heart and produces a group of hormones known as ________.
A) spleen; splenogins
B) pancreas; pancreatins
C) inguinal lymph nodes; lymph
D) thymus; thymosins
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a result of removal of the palatine or pharyngeal tonsils?
A) heightened susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
B) decreased susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
C) Removal of the tonsils would have no clinical consequences.
D) Susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens would not be affected.
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The epiglottis covers the laryngeal opening when you swallow.What is the significance of this action?
A) The epiglottis prevents food and beverages from "going down the wrong pipe" by blocking the entrance to the larynx.
B) The epiglottis prevents backflow of food and beverage into the pharynx.
C) The epiglottis has no known function.
D) The epiglottis allows food and beverages to enter the larynx.
Q2) ________ is an enzyme that can kill bacteria that enter the respiratory tract.
A) Mucus
B) Lysozyme
C) Surfactant
D) Acid
Q3) The nasal cavity is divided into left and right portions by the ________. A) ethmoid bone
B) nasal bones
C) nasal septum
D) frontal bone
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) The ________ is the primary inspiratory muscle in the body.
A) serratus anterior
B) rectus abdominis
C) diaphragm
D) internal oblique
Q2) Calculate the predicted vital capacity (VC)of a female patient given the information below.Height: 56 inchesAge: 36 years
A) 2998 mL
B) 3106 mL
C) 2384 mL
D) 2456 mL
Q3) A ________ is used to measure pulmonary volumes.
A) thermometer
B) sphygmomanometer
C) spirometer
D) stopwatch
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28
Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following conditions can lead to esophageal cancer if left untreated?
A) heartburn
B) dental caries
C) GERD (gastroesophageal-reflux disease)
D) gallstones
Q2) Which of the following is the largest salivary gland?
A) sublingual
B) parotid
C) gastric glands
D) submandibular
Q3) What is the name for the space between the lips and the gingiva?
A) palate
B) vestibule
C) uvula
D) lingual frenulum
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
A) starch
B) glucose
C) sucrose
D) maltose
Q2) Maltose is a disaccharide consisting of which of the following sugar moieties?
A) galactose-glucose
B) sucrose-sucrose
C) lactose-lactose
D) glucose-glucose
Q3) Breaking down maltose by maltase will produce which of the following sugars?
A) sucrose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) amylose
Q4) When starch is digested by amylase what is the first breakdown product?
A) dextrin
B) glucose
C) amylose
D) sucrose
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) What structure is a component of the renal corpuscle?
A) collecting duct
B) papillary duct
C) nephron loop
D) glomerulus
Q2) What anatomical structure is located in the renal sinus?
A) major calyx
B) nephrons
C) renal columns
D) renal pyramids
Q3) What type of epithelium is found lining the renal tubules and collecting ducts?
A) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) stratified squamous epithelium
Q4) What is the name of the tube that travels through the shaft of the penis?
A) membranous urethra
B) prostatic urethra
C) ureter
D) spongy urethra
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) Secretion takes place throughout the nephron,but mostly in the ________.
A) proximal convoluted tubule
B) loop of Henle
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) glomerulus
Q2) A student is very stressed about his performance on an exam.Which of the following substances might be detected in his urine?
A) glucose
B) nitrites
C) ketones
D) blood
Q3) Liver disease is most likely to cause which of the following chemical abnormalities in a urine sample?
A) ketonuria
B) hematuria
C) glucosuria
D) urobilinogenuria
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Page 32
Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) What are the three regions of the urethra?
A) the penile urethra, the membranous urethra, and the prostatic urethra
B) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
C) the ejaculatory urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
D) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the prostatic urethra
Q2) The columns of erectile tissue in the penis include ________.
A) one corpus cavernosum and one corpus spongiosum
B) two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum
C) one corpus cavernosum and two corpora spongiosa
D) three corpora cavernosa
Q3) Sperm production occurs in the ________ of the testes.
A) lobules
B) nurse cells
C) interstitial cells
D) seminiferous tubules
Q4) In their most primitive state,spermatogenic cells are referred to as ________.
A) spermatozoa
B) spermatogonia
C) secondary spermatocytes
D) spermatids
Page 33
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Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) The clitoris and penis both become erect upon sexual arousal.What accounts for this similarity?
A) The clitoris and penis are both partially shrouded by a prepuce.
B) The clitoris and penis develop from the same embryonic tissue.
C) The clitoris and penis are homologous structures. Both have columns of erectile tissue.
D) The clitoris and penis are avascular, cylindrical structures.
Q2) Which of the following represents the earliest stage of follicular development?
A) secondary follicle
B) primordial follicle
C) primary follicle
D) tertiary follicle
Q3) The ovarian ________ contains developing egg cells,while the ________ contains the blood vessels,nerves,and lymphatic vessels that supply the ovary.
A) medulla; cortex
B) cortex; medulla
C) cortex; follicle
D) medulla; follicle
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