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Introduction to Human Anatomy provides a comprehensive overview of the structure and organization of the human body. This course explores the fundamental concepts of anatomy, including the major organ systems, tissues, and cellular organization. Students will gain foundational knowledge of anatomical terminology, examine the relationships between different body systems, and develop an understanding of how the form and location of anatomical structures relate to their functions. The course is designed to support future studies in health, medicine, and biology, offering both theoretical insights and practical perspectives through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on learning opportunities.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Q1) The most abundant molecule in the human body is ________.
Answer: water
Q2) Most of the terminology to name and describe body parts and their functions comes from
A)Latin and Greek.
B)English and Italian.
C)picture drawings on the cave walls of our ancestors.
D)the language of hunter-gatherers.
Answer: A
Q3) Standing erect with face and palms forward and upper limbs at the sides describes the ________ position.
Answer: anatomical
Q4) Organ systems consist of organs, which consist of tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The chemicals secreted by endocrine glands are called ________. Answer: hormones
Q6) Agriculture began in some countries as recently as ________ years ago. Answer: 6,000
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Q1) A patient's blood test shows that their blood pH is 7.29. They are most likely experiencing
A)alkalosis.
B)acidosis.
C)blood clots.
D)nothing, their blood pH is normal.
Answer: B
Q2) Isotopes of an element have
A)the same atomic number and same atomic weight.
B)the same atomic number but different atomic weights.
C)different atomic numbers but the same atomic weight.
D)different atomic numbers and different atomic weights.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not organic?
A)Sodium chloride
B)Lipids
C)Nucleic acids
D)Enzymes
Answer: A
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Q1) Endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a A)component of the cytoskeleton.
B)cellular inclusion.
C)nuclear pore.
D)network of interconnected membranes.
Answer: D
Q2) The function of the nucleus is to
A)direct the activities of the cell.
B)form mitochondria.
C)transfer energy.
D)provide cell shape.
Answer: A
Q3) All cell types divide at the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding RNA?
A)It is transcribed in the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.
B)It includes ribose, a 5-carbon sugar.
C)It is double-stranded.
D)It has cytosine as one of its four nitrogenous bases.
Q2) The genetic code is
A)the correspondence between a sequence of three DNA nucleotides and a specific amino acid.
B)the correspondence between a DNA nucleotide and an RNA nucleotide.
C)the correspondence between a gene and a genome.
D)the correspondence between a specific amino acid and a specific gene.
Q3) The term catabolism refers to
A)chemical reactions that acquire energy.
B)chemical reactions that release energy.
C)synthesis of large molecules.
D)the formation of genetic material.
Q4) A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Building up large molecules is called ________.
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Q1) The wall of the heart is made up of three layers, including the middle layer responsible for the heart's pumping action. These layers are all the same tissue type, epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lubricating secretions of the walls of the thoracic cavity and the outsides of the lungs come from goblet cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of cell produces connective tissue fibers?
A)Macrophages
B)Mast cells
C)Fibroblasts
D)Osteoclasts
Q4) A synovial membrane is entirely connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The inner linings of most organs of the digestive system are composed of
Q6) The most abundant cells in dense connective tissue are ________.
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Q1) The ________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
Q2) Individuals at elevated risk for hypothermia include
A)homeless people exposed to the outdoors.
B)the very old and the very young.
C)very thin people.
D)all of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) A person's hands are exposed to a chemical that causes neurological damage. They begin to lose feeling in the skin of their palms and fingers, particularly the sense of fine touch. They no longer can differentiate textures in objects, nor can they tell when they are touching something. What skin structures must have been damaged?
A)The stratum basale of the epidermis
B)Pacinian corpuscles
C)Sebaceous glands
D)Meissner's corpuscles
Q4) Two or more types of tissue functioning together constitute a(n)________.
Q5) The tough layer of waterproof material that makes up the outermost part of the epidermis is the stratum lucidum.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The femur extends from the knee to the foot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not describe the function(s)of the skeletal system?
A)It interacts with muscles, providing movement.
B)It stores inorganic salts.
C)It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax.
D)It generates the movements of the limbs.
Q3) If the acetabulum was malformed, which joint would be affected?
A)The humeroulnar joint
B)The tibiofemoral joint
C)The iliofemoral joint
D)The sternoclavicular joint
Q4) Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A)The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B)The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C)The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
D)The female iliac bones are less flared.
Q5) Secretion of excess ________ hormone causes acromegaly.
Q6) Bone-forming cells are called ________.
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Q1) Rotation of the forearms so the palms face upward is called pronation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thrusting the head forward to contact an incoming soccer ball is an example of
Q3) The fibrous joints between the flat bones of the skull are sutures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Arthritis is a circulatory problem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Movement at the ankle that brings the foot closer to the shin is ________.
Q6) The movement of a limb around an axis is ________.
Q7) A tooth root attached to a jawbone by a periodontal ligament is a ________.
A)synchondrosis
B)syndesmosis
C)gomphosis
D)synovial joint

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Q8) Moving a part backward is called ________.
Q9) In ________, joints are inflamed, swollen, and painful.
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Q1) The type of muscle cell that lacks transverse tubules, has a single nucleus, and is under involuntary control is
A)skeletal muscle.
B)smooth muscle.
C)cardiac muscle.
D)striated muscle.
Q2) Transverse tubules
A)store sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface.
B)transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior.
C)store calcium ions.
D)connect actin and myosin.
Q3) Since many muscles are named for their location (origin and insertion), the occipitalis muscle probably originates on the ________ bone of the skull.
Q4) Muscle fibers are basically a collection of A)muscles.
B)sarcomeres.
C)connective tissue fibers.
D)synapses.
Q5) Muscle fatigue is most likely due to an accumulation of ________.
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Q1) A neuron receives a series of stimuli that increases the membrane permeability of Na , but not enough to cause membrane potential to surpass -55mV. This neuron is said to be
A)graded.
B)amplified.
C)facilitated.
D)refractory.
Q2) Presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters by ________.
A)endocytosis
B)exocytosis
C)diffusion
D)active transport
Q3) Which of the following neuroglia are not part of the CNS?
A)Ependymal cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Microglia
Q4) Several nerve fibers converging onto one neuron amplifies impulses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A spinal nerve passing through the intervertebral foramen is A)associated with the vertebra above.
B)composed of afferent fibers only.
C)composed of efferent fibers only.
D)associated with cranial nerve C1.
Q2) The basal nuclei include the A)putamen.
B)pons.
C)midbrain.
D)corpus callosum.
Q3) The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a person contracted meningitis (an inflammation of the meninges due to infection), which specific nervous structures would be inflamed and swollen?
A)The brain and spinal cord
B)The membranes that delineate all of the major brain parts
C)The pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
D)Nerve tracts that run up and down the spinal cord
Q5) The interconnected, fluid-filled cavities of the brain are called ________.
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Q1) If you were a physician evaluating a young person who has conductive deafness, which of the following would you consider in your differential diagnosis?
A)A torn tympanic membrane
B)A brain tumor
C)Damage to the auditory nerve
D)Use of the antibiotic drug streptomycin
Q2) Receptors for the special senses are found
A)primarily in the head.
B)throughout the integumentary system.
C)in the fingertips.
D)in internal organs.
Q3) Anosmia is loss of
A)taste.
B)smell.
C)hearing.
D)vision.
Q4) A person who associates sounds with tastes has synesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ________.
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Q1) The sex hormones from the adrenal cortex are primarily androgens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pancreas functions as part of the endocrine system and as a part of the ________ system.
Q3) The pineal gland is
A)located in the thyroid gland.
B)attached to an adrenal gland.
C)attached to the thalamus.
D)found along with digestive tissue in the pancreas.
Q4) Type 2 diabetes mellitus results from
A)a deficiency of insulin.
B)insensitivity of cells to insulin.
C)a deficiency of insulin and insensitivity of cells to insulin.
D)an infection.
Q5) A hormone that the adrenal medulla secretes is
A)mineralocorticoid.
B)glucocorticoid.
C)aldosterone.
D)epinephrine.
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Q1) Which of the following are agranulocytes?
A)Basophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Monocytes
Q2) As a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet, blood protein concentration
A)increases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
B)decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
C)increases and water accumulates in cells.
D)decreases and water accumulates in cells.
Q3) An abnormally low white blood cell count is called ________.
Q4) A blood clot that forms abnormally in a blood vessel is a(n)
A)aneurysm.
B)embolus.
C)thrombus.
D)platelet plug.
Q5) A patient becomes extremely ill after a blood transfusion. Their face begins to flush, the experience pain in the chest, breathing difficulties, and they eventually develop jaundice. Their RBCs must be undergoing the process of ________.
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Q1) A left ventricular assist device
A)is routinely used in people who have had heart attacks.
B)can substitute for the atria.
C)can maintain cardiac function until a donor heart becomes available.
D)is an implantable replacement heart.
Q2) The right atrium receives blood directly from
A)the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava only.
B)the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus.
C)the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins.
D)the pulmonary veins.
Q3) The pulmonary circuit
A)sends oxygen-poor blood to the heart.
B)sends oxygen-poor blood to the tissues.
C)sends oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
D)brings oxygen-rich blood from the tissues.
Q4) Cells of the conducting system in the heart are more sensitive to which ion?
A)Sodium
B)Iron
C)Potassium
D)Chloride

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Q1) The spleen
A)consists of two lobes and is located in the mediastinum.
B)resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules.
C)produces T lymphocytes.
D)filters lymph.
Q2) Which of the following examples best demonstrates species resistance?
A)Certain strains of H1N1 virus infect both humans and pigs.
B)Certain strains of avian flu are transmissible between chickens, ducks, and other birds.
C)A worker at an animal shelter encounters a cat with Calicivirus, but cannot become sick with Calicivirus themselves.
D)A worker at an animal shelter encounters a cat with Calicivirus and infects their own cat at home after the cat is exposed to their work clothes.
Q3) In active immunity, a person becomes immune to a pathogen as a result of having a disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces.
Q5) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ________.
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Q1) The root canal of a tooth contains A)dentin.
B)cementum.
C)gingiva.
D)blood vessels and nerves.
Q2) ________ pick up cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and return it to the liver.
A)VLDLs
B)LDLs
C)HDLs
D)Triglycerides
Q3) Feces are about ________ percent water.
A)25
B)33
C)50
D)75
Q4) Loperamide is a medication used to slow and stop diarrhea. It inhibits nervous signalling to the large intestine, relaxing the smooth muscles within the intestinal wall and preventing intestinal contents from moving forward. The large peristaltic waves inhibited by loperamide are________.
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Q1) Vomiting, diarrhea, and flushing are caused by A)a lack of calcium.
B)excess niacin.
C)a deficiency of iron.
D)excess vitamin C.
Q2) Vitamins directly provide energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fat-soluble vitamins include
A)vitamin C.
B)the B-complex vitamins.
C)vitamins A, D, and K.
D)A, E, C, and the B vitamins.
Q4) The most abundant major minerals in the body are potassium and sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Riboflavin is carried in the blood combined with the blood protein called ________.
Q6) Consider the molecular differences between classes of fats. Of lard and peanut oil, which will contain more double bonds in its structure?
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Q1) The chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies are most sensitive to changes in blood concentration of
A)carbon dioxide.
B)hydrogen ions.
C)oxygen.
D)bicarbonate ions.
Q2) The left lung is larger than the right lung and is divided into three lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Respiration is
A)breathing.
B)making ATP.
C)the entire process of gas exchange between the atmosphere and cells.
D)circulating blood to tissues.
Q4) Hyperventilation is usually accompanied by a(n)
A)decrease in blood CO concentration and a drop in pH.
B)decrease in blood CO concentration and a rise in pH.
C)increase in blood CO concentration and a drop in pH.
D)increase in blood CO concentration and a rise in pH.
Q5) When carbon dioxide bonds to hemoglobin, the compound ________ forms.
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Q1) During urine formation, some substances move from the plasma in the peritubular capillary into the renal tubule by the process called ________.
Q2) The countercurrent mechanism in the nephron
A)creates a highly concentrated interstitial fluid so that urine can be concentrated by the collecting ducts when they are permeable to water.
B)is a method to move sodium to control its concentration.
C)keeps the volume of water lost in the urine relatively constant.
D)keeps interstitial fluid hydrated to maintain blood pressure.
Q3) Water channels in cell membranes formed by ________ are a result of ADH signaling in the kidneys.
A)podocytes
B)cytopores
C)aquaporins
D)pyrogens
Q4) Which choice describes the countercurrent mechanism of the nephron loop?
A)Water moves out of the ascending limb; sodium moves into the ascending limb
B)Water moves into the ascending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb
C)Water moves out of the descending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb
D)Water moves into the descending limb; sodium moves out of the descending limb
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Q1) Alkalosis is a condition in which the pH of arterial blood is
A)below 7.35.
B)above 7.35.
C)below 7.45.
D)above 7.45.
Q2) Respiratory alkalosis can be
A)caused by anything that decreases breathing rate.
B)compensated for by a increased secretion of bases by the kidneys.
C)compensated for by a decreased respiratory rate.
D)characterized by muscle paralysis.
Q3) Extracellular fluids have relatively
A)high sodium and low potassium ion concentrations.
B)high sodium and high potassium ion concentrations.
C)low sodium and low potassium ion concentrations.
D)low sodium and high potassium ion concentrations.
Q4) The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is regulated primarily by a hormone secreted by the ________ glands.
Q5) The volume of urine produced is regulated mainly by the activity in the distal convoluted tubules and ________ ducts.
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Q1) Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called A)spermatogonia.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)spermatids.
Q2) A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the A)urethra.
B)ovary.
C)cervix.
D)vagina.
Q3) The number of sperm cells that form from a primary spermatocyte is A)4.
B)16. C)46.
D)100.
Q4) Menopause is due to aging of the A)ovaries.
B)vagina.
C)cervix.
D)uterine tube.
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Q1) The process of growing old is called ________.
Q2) In the fetal circulation, blood from the ________ flows directly into the descending aorta.
A)foramen ovale
B)ductus arteriosus
C)ligamentum arteriosum
D)ductus venosus
Q3) Hydrogen peroxide is a natural byproduct of cellular metabolism in the human body. It sometimes reacts with certain ions in the body to produce a very reactive, electron-grabbing form of hydroxide (OH-)that has been observed to kill healthy cells in vitro. This product can be considered a A)free radical.
B)mutation.
C)teratogen.
D)catalyst.
Q4) Genetically, aging can be affected by genes that regulate A)glucose and lipid metabolism.
B)maintenance of the retinas.
C)gametogenesis.
D)melanin production.
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Q1) Variable expressivity and pleiotropy can account for a disease that produces different intensities of symptoms or different symptoms among individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genes have multiple alleles that differ in DNA sequence because a gene consists of many nucleotides, each of which can be any of four types.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Freckles are a phenotype and the allele combination that causes a clotting disorder is a genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gender determination for males reflects expression of
A)the SRY gene but not the Wnt4 gene.
B)the Wnt4 gene but not the SRY gene.
C)both the SRY and Wnt4 genes.
D)the entire Y chromosome.
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