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Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. The course explores the organization of the body from the cellular level through tissues, organs, and organ systems, examining how these components interact to maintain health and homeostasis. Key topics include the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, as well as basic concepts in chemistry, cell biology, and metabolism as they relate to human physiology. Emphasis is placed on the integration of body systems and their roles in maintaining overall function and responding to internal and external changes. This course is designed for students pursuing health-related fields or anyone interested in gaining a thorough appreciation of the human body.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by Kevin T. Patton PhD
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58 Chapters
7639 Verified Questions
7639 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term somatotype is used to describe a specific physique.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Eponyms are preferred in naming structures or processes in the body because they are easier to learn and give more information than the Latin-based names.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) There can be as many as 10 trillion cells in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Ventral and posterior are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) transverse
D) superficial
Answer: C
Q2) The abdomen is _____ to the head.
A)superior
B)inferior
C)anterior
D)posterior
E)medial
F)lateral
G)proximal
H)distal
I)superficial
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catabolism and anabolism are major types of metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Water acts as a very effective solvent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Both triglycerides and prostaglandins can contain unsaturated fat.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) One function of carbon dioxide is to help maintain proper pH balance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Q2) As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-)increases,the:
A) solution becomes more basic.
B) solution becomes more acidic.
C) pH rises.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q3) Which type of radiation consists of two protons and two neutrons?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Delta
D) Gamma
Q4) Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics?
A) Both are found in the cell membrane.
B) Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
C) Both have a saturated fat in their structure.
D) None of the above are shared characteristics.
Q5) Explain why the properties of water are important in the functioning of the body.
Q6) Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA.
Q7) Name and briefly describe the type of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter.
Page 6
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer portion of the cell membrane is hydrophobic,or water-loving.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The size of a cell's nucleolus is indirectly related to the amount of protein the cell produces.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Small protein structures called molecular motors pull loads form one part of the cell to another along the cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the main functions of the mitochondria is to supply the cell with ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The catalase in the peroxisomes reacts to detoxify carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The nucleolus is made up of tightly coiled DNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) cell extension that increases surface area for more efficient absorption
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) Granules or threads within the nucleus are called:
A) microfilaments.
B) chromatin.
C) nucleotides.
D) microtubules.
Q3) Explain the structure and function of the primary cilium in the cell.Which cell type does not have a primary cilium?
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A) They increase the activation of a reaction.
B) They are unchanged by the chemical reaction.
C) They frequently require a cofactor or coenzyme to function.
D) All of the above are true of enzymes.
Q2) All of the following are examples of passive transport except:
A) filtration.
B) osmosis.
C) endocytosis.
D) dialysis.
Q3) Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: A) pinocytosis.
B) osmosis.
C) facilitated diffusion.
D) dialysis.
Q4) To maintain homeostasis,the sodium-potassium pump moves equal amounts of sodium and potassium into and out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This type of RNA carries information from the nucleus to the ribosome.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Interon
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Tr
H)tRNA
I)thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)haploid
O)Diploid
P)Transcription
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Page 10
Chapter 6: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue?
A) Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes
B) Protects the body from foreign invaders
C) Supports the body
D) Transports substances throughout the body
Q2) Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as:
A) merocrine.
B) apocrine.
C) endocrine.
D) holocrine.
Q3) Glandular epithelium is usually composed of _____ epithelium.
A) stratified cuboidal
B) stratified columnar
C) pseudostratified columnar
D) None of the above is correct.
Q4) About 40% of the bone matrix is made of inorganic material.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline,fibrous,and elastic.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the four principle types of tissue in the body.
Page 11
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical incisions that are made perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to heal with less of a scar.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The epidermis is referred to as the true skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person were in a totally bacteria-free environment,any sweat produced would have no odor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When heat must be conserved to maintain a constant body temperature,the dermal blood vessels increase their diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The keratinocytes of the skin are examples of antigen-presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin?
A) Dermatocytes
B) Dendritic cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes
Q2) Prolonged exposure to the sun causes melanocytes to:
A) increase in number.
B) rupture and release their contents.
C) increase melanin production.
D) decrease melanin production.
Q3) Normally,which percentage of the cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day?
A) 20%-25%
B) 10%-12%
C) 18%-20%
D) 35%-40%
Q4) Explain how the involvement of desmosomes in a blister is a good example of the relationship between structure and function at the chemical level of organization.
Q5) Explain the two ways in which body surface area can be estimated.
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because bone is connective tissue,a fractured bone will never heal and be as strong as before the fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The strength of bone is increased by the arrangement of trabeculae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Canaliculi are small openings in the lamella where bone cells are found.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Flat bones differ from short bones in that flat bones have an inner portion of cancellous bone covered on the outside with compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress,it responds by forming wider osteons to help better distribute the stress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of bone consists only of compact bone?
A) Long
B) Short
C) Irregular
D) All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone.
Q2) Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels.
Q3) In bone formation,the cells that produce the organic matrix are the:
A) osteoblasts.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteoclasts.
D) chondrocytes.
Q4) Name and describe the parts of the osteon.
Q5) Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood?
A) Blood clotting
B) Transmission of nerve impulses
C) Contraction of cardiac muscle
D) All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood.
Q6) List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the sense of smell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) forehead
A)Frontal
B)Hyoid
C)Mandible
D)Maxillae
E)Occipital
F)Palatine
G)Sphenoid
H)Temporal
I)Zygomatic
Q4) The xiphoid process and the manubrium are at opposite ends of the sternum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All fibrous joints are completely fixed joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gomphoses joint is the most complex joint in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments add stability to the knee joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The hip joint permits flexion,extension,adduction,abduction,rotation,and circumduction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define rotation and circumduction and give an example of each.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Joints may be classified into five major categories.
B) The functional classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together.
C) The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together.
D) The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint permits.
Q3) If a goniometer reads zero,it most likely indicates that the joint:
A) is fully flexed.
B) is in the anatomical position.
C) has been injured and is somewhat dislocated.
D) is hyperextended.
Q4) The condition of "housemaid's knee" is an inflammation of the:
A) menisci.
B) cruciate ligaments.
C) synovial membrane.
D) prepatellar bursa.
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The epimysium,endomysium,and perimysium may all be continuous with ligaments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Muscles usually act singly as a prime mover.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The difference between a tendon and an aponeurosis is that a tendon is made of connective tissue and an aponeurosis is made of muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The rectus abdominis is an example of a bipennate muscle.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm?
A) Pectoralis major
B) Latissimus dorsi
C) Deltoid
D) Trapezius
Q2) below the skin,it is called "superficial"; surrounding the muscle,it is called "deep"
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
Q3) Name and explain the three types of levers.Which type is the most common in the body?
Q4) Explain how muscles and the movement of the body help maintain stability or homeostasis.
Q5) Define the terms insertion and origin,in relation to muscle movement.
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Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only striated and cardiac muscles have triads; smooth muscles do not contain T-tubules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a muscle contracts,the muscle always gets shorter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pituitary gland is responsible for the homeostatic control of body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another name for muscle cells is muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Shivering in response to a drop in body temperature is an example of a positive feedback mechanism in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:
A) A-band.
B) Z-line.
C) I-band.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body.
Q3) compound that supplies the energy for muscle contraction
A)Troponin
B)Myosin
C)Actin
D)T-tubules
E)ATP
F)Calcium
G)Cross-bridges
H)Tropomyosin
I)Acetylcholine
Q4) Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction.
Q5) Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction.
Q6) Define rigor mortis.Why does it occur?
Q7) Name and describe the myofilament fibers in the sarcomere.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dendrites have many synaptic knobs so they can receive impulses from several other neurons at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The microglia engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myelinated axons without gaps in the myelin (nodes of Ranvier)conduct impulses more efficiently than axons with nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) produce the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the central nervous system
A)Astrocyte
B)Oligodendrocyte
C)Microglia
D)Schwann cell
E)Ependymal cells
Q2) What two systems perform the vital functions of communication and integration of body processes?
Q3) The myelin sheath is formed by:
A) Nissl bodies.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) Schwann cells.
D) neuron cell bodies.
Q4) Explain both temporal and spatial summation.
Q5) Within the nervous system,coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through:
A) changes in the magnitude of the action potential.
B) changes in the length or duration of the action potential.
C) the frequency of nerve impulses.
D) an increase in the number of opening sodium channels.
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outermost protective covering of the brain is the dura mater.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the epidural space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The filum terminale is the name given to the dura mater below the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A primary function of the reticular formation is to arouse or alert the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The shallow grooves of the cerebrum are called sulci.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The somatic senses include vision,hearing,and olfaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
Q2) How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease?
Q3) Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Pineal gland
D) Cerebellum
Q4) The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the:
A) pia mater.
B) arachnoid membrane.
C) dura mater.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q5) What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done?
Q6) Explain the functions,formation,and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Q7) Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater.
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ system.
A) central
B) autonomic
C) somatic
D) Both B and C are correct.
Q2) Two cranial nerves,the hypoglossal and the vagus,receive branches from the cervical plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) connects to various external muscles of the eye
A)Olfactory nerve
B)Optic nerve
C)Oculomotor nerve
D)Trochlear nerve
E)Trigeminal nerve
F)Abducens nerve
G)Vestibulocochlear nerve
H)Glossopharyngeal nerve
I)Vagus nerve
J)Hypoglossal nerve
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Autonomic pathways do not connect with skeletal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hormones released from the adrenal medulla produce effects similar to those of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) informal term used to describe the response of the body to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q4) Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Q1) The interpretation of the sensation of being tickled requires a complex interaction of many parts of the brain.
A)True B)False
Q2) Golgi tendon receptors respond in a way similar to muscle spindles to maintain posture.
A)True B)False
Q3) The correct order of the auditory ossicles deep to the tympanic membrane is malleus,incus,and stapes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The function of the eustachian tube is to equalize all pressure on either side of the oval window.
A)True B)False
Q5) The terms sensation and perception mean the same thing. A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Q1) incus
A)1
B)2 C)3
D)4
E)5
F)6
G)7 H)8 I)9
Q2) malleus
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4 E)5 F)6 G)7 H)8 I)9
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fixed-membrane-receptor model is used in describing the action of nonsteroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemically,steroid hormones are derived from the cholesterol molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except:
A) oxytocin.
B) calcitonin.
C) cortisol.
D) glucagon.
Q4) Parathyroid hormone reflexively increases secretion of parathyroid hormone in response to an increase in blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The target organs for tropic hormones are usually other endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
Page 31
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid hormone stimulates growth and tissue differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One difference between T and T is the number of iodine atoms attached to the molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) causes water retention
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone
D)Luteinizing hormone
E)Lactogenic hormone
F)Progesterone
G)Somatotropin
H)Oxytocin
Q4) Cells in the neurohypophysis make two hormones: antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Blood
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Q1) Type O blood contains both antigen A and antigen B on the red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The buffy coat does not contain formed elements of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which mature cell has no nucleus,mitochondria,or ribosomes?
A) Erythrocyte
B) Leukocyte
C) Platelet
D) Neutrophil
Q4) Some white blood cells are capable of diapedesis,which means they can:
A) "eat" bacteria or damaged cells.
B) migrate out of blood vessels into tissue spaces.
C) engage in protein synthesis because they have a nucleus.
D) change from one type of white blood cell to another.
Q5) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
Q6) Platelets are important for blood clotting and hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34167
Sample Questions
Q1) The right and left coronary arteries are about equally dominant in hearts; 50% of hearts are right artery dominant and 50% of hearts are left artery dominant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name and explain the two exceptions to the typical "artery-capillary-vein" type of circulation found in the circulatory system.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the myocardium?
A) Cells are joined by intercalated disks.
B) The muscle cells are autorhythmic.
C) The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus.
D) It is made of electrically coupled functional units called syncytia.
Q4) Blood leaving the right ventricle passes through the right atrioventricular valve. A)True B)False
Q5) Precapillary sphincters increase the flow of blood through a tissue when they relax. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal rhythm of the heart is set by the ectopic pacemaker.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The arterial pulse is caused by the ventricles of the heart; the venous pulse is caused by the atria of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A heart murmur is one type of abnormal sound.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Valvular insufficiency can cause heart murmurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Venous valves would not be necessary in the jugular veins of the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The sinoatrial node is in the right atrium where the superior vena cava attaches.
A)True
B)False
35
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Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) branches that are at the terminal ends of the bundles of His
A)Interatrial bundles
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Sinoatrial node
D)Purkinje fibers
E)Bundles of His
F)Internodal bundles
Q2) Circulatory shock caused by the effects of infectious agents is called _____ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) hypovolemic
C) anaphylactic
D) septic
Q3) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
Q4) The period during which blood is pumped out of the atria and into the ventricles is called:
A) atrial systole.
B) isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D) passive ventricular filling.
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system?
A) Thymus
B) Spleen
C) Thyroid
D) Peyer patches
Q2) When an infection is present,germinal centers form and the lymph node begins to release lymphocytes; some become antibody-producing plasma cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cisterna chyli drains into the right lymphatic duct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Almost all of the interstitial fluid filtered out by the capillaries enters the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The palatine tonsils are located on each side of the throat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The characteristic signs of inflammation are the results of increased blood flow and increased vascular permeability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aspirin is effective in lowering fever because it inhibits the growth of the disease-causing organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an antibody,the light chain makes up the variable region and the heavy chain makes up the constant region.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An autoimmune disease would indicate a problem with development of self-tolerance in the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how complement is activated and can produce cytolysis in the process of humoral immunity.
Q2) Adaptive immunity is also called _____ immunity.
A) innate
B) specific
C) nonspecific
D) species
Q3) Two-year-old Jenny is undergoing treatment for leukemia and was exposed recently to chickenpox.Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon.What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach?
A) It would stop the virus from traveling over the sensory nerve of a single dermatome.
B) It would cause an increase in white blood cells.
C) It would inhibit the chickenpox infection from developing.
D) It would assist in the development of lymphocytes in the spleen.
Q4) Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response?
A) The release of histamine
B) The increase in vascular permeability
C) The stimulation of fibroblast growth
D) All of the above are part of the inflammation response.
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Chapter 25: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lie detectors work because psychological stress causes a predictable,consistent physiological response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) name given by Selye to the group of changes that manifest the presence of stress
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q3) What condition or behaviors by a mother can lead to increased stress on her fetus?
Q4) Blood sugar level tends to decrease as a general body response to stress.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the physical and psychological responses your body makes to stress.
Q6) Define stress.
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Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are seven cartilages of the larynx,three of which are paired.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pharynx serves as a passageway for both food and air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition,the conchae,dividing it into a right cavity and a left cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Surfactant is a unique fluid that helps increase the surface tension within the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why the bronchial tree is described as resembling an inverted tree trunk.
Q6) The arytenoid cartilages are the most important of the paired laryngeal cartilages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Charles law deals with the relationship between pressure and volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The expiratory center of the medulla seems to be inactive in normal,quiet breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major factor that determines the movement of air into or out of the lungs is a pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the lung,oxygen moves down its pressure gradient,whereas carbon dioxide moves up its pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system?
A) Pons
B) Medulla
C) Cerebellum
D) Cerebrum
Q2) Which of the following would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin?
A) Increased PO2
B) Decreased PCO2
C) Decreased PO2 and decreased PCO2
D) Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2
Q3) Which muscles are used for forced expiration?
A) Sternocleidomastoid and abdominal muscles
B) Sternocleidomastoid and intercostals
C) External intercostals and pectoralis muscles
D) Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals
Q4) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
Q5) The structural designs of alveoli and capillaries in lung tissue are such that they facilitate oxygen diffusion.List examples that support the concept that structure determines function.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jaundice occurs when the pancreatic duct is blocked and the contents of the pancreas enter the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tubercle is a slight prominence found on the lip.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pancreas is an essential organ of the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hepatic lobules are the anatomical units of the liver and are tiny hexagonal or pentagonal shaped structures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mastication is another word for chewing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The esophagus is anterior to the trachea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells.
A) chief
B) alpha
C) Kupffer
D) hepatic
Q2) All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the:
A) tongue.
B) mouth.
C) liver.
D) pancreas.
Q3) The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
A) visceral peritoneum.
B) greater omentum.
C) lesser omentum.
D) mesentery.
Q4) Give the complete definition of digestion.
Q5) Name and give the location of the three major pairs of salivary glands.Describe the secretions of each gland.
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes are unique in that they can function optimally within a wide range of pH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Intestinal motility includes both peristaltic contractions and segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood in the hepatic portal system is much more likely to reflect the amount of glucose and amino acid absorbed than is the blood in the inferior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One important role of the salivary glands is the production of mucus,because they are the only glands that produce it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Respiration is inhibited for the 1 to 3 seconds required for food to clear the pharynx during each swallowing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structurally,enzymes are:
A) lipids.
B) carbohydrates.
C) proteins.
D) inorganic compounds.
Q2) What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis?
Q3) The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a:
A) disaccharide.
B) monosaccharide.
C) polysaccharide.
D) fatty acid.
Q4) The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is: A) glucose.
B) sucrose.
C) lactose.
D) maltose.
Q5) The prefix "amyl" comes from the Latin word for "starch." How does that explain the name for an enzyme in carbohydrate digestion?
Q6) Explain why salivary amylase is able to digest such a small amount of carbohydrate.
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An evening meal is eaten at 6 PM.Nothing more is eaten until 8 AM.Glycogenolysis alone can maintain a normal blood sugar level between the two meals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The body has an almost equal ability to store fats and carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because red blood cells contain no mitochondria,they must get all of their energy through oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unsaturated fats have double bonds in their fatty acid chains. A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of glycolysis produces four molecules of ATP,but the cell gains only two molecules of ATP.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the process of glycolysis.What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis?
Q2) The action of phosphatase enzyme is to catalyze the:
A) combination of phosphate with glucose.
B) release of glucose from phosphate.
C) movement of glucose through the cell membrane.
D) formation of ATP.
Q3) Which process produces lactic acid? (The Cori cycle helps repay the oxygen debt incurred by this process.)
A) Krebs cycle
B) Anaerobic pathway
C) Glycolysis
D) Electron transport chain
Q4) Metabolic rates are expressed as:
A) normal or as a percentage above or below normal.
B) the number of kilocalories of heat energy expended per hour or per day.
C) kilocalories per pound of body weight.
D) both A and B.
Q5) Explain the electron transport system.How is ATP produced in the mitochondria?
Page 49
Q6) Basal metabolic rate assumes three "basal" conditions; name and explain them.
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the loop of Henle,the descending limb is thicker than the ascending limb.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ADH and aldosterone both attempt to decrease urine output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Podocytes on the parietal walls of Bowman capsule help support the slit diaphragms that allow filtrate to leave the blood and enter Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The calyx surrounds the renal papilla.
A)True
B)False
Q5) About 10% of the blood pumped by the heart per minute goes to the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An increase in solutes in the urine will cause an increase in the urine output.
A)True
B)False
Page 50
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the nephron that empties into a calyx is the:
A) distal tubule.
B) loop of Henle.
C) collecting tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
Q2) The microvilli on the luminal surface of each epithelial cell in the proximal tubule wall will:
A) form a brush border that increases absorptive surface area of the entire inner surface of the proximal tubule.
B) form an electrical gradient that drives the diffusion of negative ions from the filtrate into the interstitial fluid.
C) participate in the countercurrent mechanism, which allows the contents to flow in opposite directions.
D) increase the secretory surface area of the entire inner surface of the proximal tubule.
Q3) Explain how the active transport of sodium out of the nephron tubules acts as the driving force for the passive transport of other materials.
Q4) List functions of the urinary bladder.
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) condition when fluid output exceeds fluid intake and results in a decrease in total body water
A)Dehydration
B)Hypovolemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Edema
E)Hypervolemia
F)Hyperkalemia
G)Hypokalemia
Q2) a fluid volume deficit that can lead to a state of dehydration
A)Dehydration
B)Hypovolemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Edema
E)Hypervolemia
F)Hyperkalemia
G)Hypokalemia
Q3) Osmoreceptors associated with thirst are located in the gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH?
A) 3:1
B) 5:1
C) 10:1
D) 20:1
Q2) Buffers are said to consist of a weak acid and its salt.When the ratio is written out,the salt goes above the line and the weak acid goes below the line.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some athletes engage in a technique called bicarbonate loading that is said to counteract the lactic acid buildup.This practice raises concerns because excess bicarbonate intake:
A) can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic acidosis.
B) can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic alkalosis.
C) may lead to uncompensated acidosis.
D) may lead to "acid blood."
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One function of an epididymis is to serve as a maturation area for sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ejaculatory ducts pass through the prostate and terminate in the ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One function of testosterone is to stimulate the kidney tubules to excrete potassium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a spermatozoon,a highly compact package of genetic chromatin material is located in the cylindrical middle piece.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the estrogen found in males is probably made in the liver or other tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part.
Q7) List and describe the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system.
Page 54
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer layer of theca cells in the ovary produce an androgen that is converted to estrogen by the granulosa cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The antrum is the shell-like covering surrounding the developing oocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The endometrium is about 10 times thicker near the end of the endometrial cycle than just after the menstrual flow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Besides the nutritional and immunity advantages of nursing,nursing may enhance the emotional bond between mother and child.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The estrogenic phase follows ovulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle is also called:
A) menses.
B) the follicular phase.
C) the preovulatory phase.
D) the luteal phase.
Q2) Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system?
A) Ovary
B) Vagina
C) Fallopian tube
D) Mammary glands
Q3) The part of the vulva that is composed of erectile tissue and is located just behind the junction of the labia minora is called the:
A) mons pubis.
B) clitoris.
C) urinary meatus.
D) labia majora.
Q4) Describe the structure of the breasts.
Q5) Discuss the ideas behind predicting the time of ovulation.
Q6) Describe the location,structure,and function of the uterine tube.
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gestation is divided into three approximately equal time periods called trimesters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Agents that disrupt normal development of the fetus are called teratogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The average age-range of adolescence is from 13 to 19 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Degenerative heart and blood vessel disease is one of the most common and serious effects of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q5) By the second month of gestation,all organ systems of the embryo are formed and functioning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age do girls generally begin to menstruate?
A) 10
B) 12 to 13
C) 14
D) 15 to 16
Q2) "old eye"
A)Atherosclerosis
B)Arteriosclerosis
C)Stroke
D)Osteoarthritis
E)"Barrel chest"
F)Lipping
G)Cataract
H)Hypertension
I)Glaucoma
J)Presbyopia
Q3) Tommy's mother told the pediatrician during Tommy's 1-year visit that he had tripled his birth weight,was crawling actively,and could stand alone.Is Tommy's development normal,retarded,or advanced?
Q4) Describe (or diagram)the hormone levels during pregnancy.
Page 58
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mitochondrial inheritance is known to transmit genes for several degenerative nerve and muscle disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Genome Project discovered that the human genome contains about 30,000 genes,about three times the number that was expected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People with sickle-cell trait must be heterozygous.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A color-blind woman must have had a color-blind father.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The human genome contains about 200,000 genes.
A)True
B)False
Page 59
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) nonsexual trait carried on sex chromosomes
A)Recessive
B)Codominance
C)Monosomy
D)Autosome
E)Karyotype
F)Sex-linked trait
G)Dominant
H)Trisomy
I)Punnett square
J)Genome
K)Sex chromosome
L)Heterozygous
M)Homozygous
N)Genetics
Q2) Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?
Q3) Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.
Q4) Give a brief description of one genetic disorder that is the result of nondisjunction during formation of the gametes.
Q5) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
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