Introduction to Hospitality Industry Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Hospitality Industry offers students a comprehensive overview of the dynamic hospitality sector, exploring its key segments including lodging, food and beverage services, travel, tourism, and event management. The course examines the historical development, organizational structures, and operational functions that define the industry, while emphasizing customer service, ethics, and current trends. Students gain insights into diverse career opportunities as well as the economic and cultural significance of hospitality on a global scale, laying a strong foundation for further academic study or entry-level employment in the field.
Recommended Textbook hospitality marketing management 5th edition by robert d. reid
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the GAP, which function plans and coordinates all the resources needed to design, produce, and deliver the merchandise to its various retail locations?
A)engineering
B)human resources
C)marketing
D)operations management
E)purchasing
Answer: D
Q2) One of the most important trends in companies today is competition based on time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Operations Management is:
Answer: The business function that plans, organizes, coordinates, and controls resources an organization transforms into goods and services.
Q4) What are the three major functions through which every business is managed?
Answer: finance, marketing, and operations management
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Chapter 2: Operations Strategy and Competitiveness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that on Monday the cost of inputs sums to $1000, and the value of outputs sums to $4000. For which of the following values on Tuesday would productivity increase?
A)inputs = $1100, outputs = $4000
B)inputs = $1100, outputs = $4200
C)inputs = $850, outputs = $3600
D)inputs = $1000, outputs = $3900
E)inputs = $2000, outputs = $8000
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not described in the chapter as one of the major environmental trends that firms should monitor?
A)marketplace trends
B)global climate trends
C)economic trends
D)political trends
E)social trends
Answer: B
Q3) A business strategy is like an explorer's ________________________.
Answer: compass
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Chapter 3: Product Design and Process Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the integration of product design, process planning, and manufacturing using an integrated computer system?
A)CAD/CAM
B)AGV
C)AS/RS
D)FMS
E)CIM
Answer: E
Q2) Why is a process flowchart useful?
A)for designing a product
B)for determining where the strengths are in a process
C)for determining where the weaknesses are in a process
D)for seeing the totality of the operation and for identifying potential problem areas
E)for benchmarking against other processes
Answer: D
Q3) What are the guidelines for design for manufacture?
Answer: Use modular design, design parts for different products, minimize parts, simplify operations, and avoid tools
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Chapter 4: E-Commerce and Supply Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insourcing incurs an annual fixed cost of $500,000 and a variable cost of $60 per unit. Outsourcing incurs an annual fixed cost of $750,000 and a variable cost of $20 per unit. What is the indifference point between the two alternatives?
A) 0 units
B)-6250 units
C) 6250 units
D) 40 units
E)12,500 units
Q2) What term refers to the mission or objectives of a partnership?
A)Impact
B)Intimacy
C)Dream
D)Conception
E)Vision
Q3) What is an extension of an intranet to include suppliers and customers called?
A)supply chain net
B)supernet
C)supranet
D)extranet
E)intranet++
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Chapter 5: Total Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Malcolm Baldrige Award criteria category of business results does not include
A)Percentage of defective items
B)Progressive improvement over time
C)Financial measures
D)Marketing measures
E)One-time only improvements
Q2) A cause-and-effect diagram is also referred to as a Taguchi diagram.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who is best known for the development of cause-and-effect diagrams?
A)Walter Shewhart
B)W. Edwards Deming
C)Joseph Juran
D)Kaoru Ishikawa
E)Genichi Taguchi
Q4) Cause-and-effect diagrams are problem solving tools commonly used by quality control teams.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Statistical Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) All processes will have what type of variation?
A)Random
B)Assignable
C)Identifiable
D)Stochastic
E)Common
Q2) Variation in the production process leads to:
A)quality defects
B)process improvement opportunities
C)quality improvements
D)product consistency
E)service improvements
Q3) An OC curve is an example of what?
A)Traditional statistical tools
B)Fishbone diagramming
C)Acceptance sampling
D)Experimental design
E)Statistical process control
Q4) Define attribute (as a product characteristic).
Q5) What is the formula for the basic capability index?
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Chapter 7: Just-In-Time and Lean Systems
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Q1) What is the term for an adjustment of a machine after making one product type so that production can begin for another product type?
A)Level assembly schedule
B)Group technology
C)Setup
D)Cycle time
E)Automation
Q2) Frank James works for a production facility that makes car radios. His job is to insert the integrated circuits and make sure that they work correctly. He is expected to handle 20 radios per hour. The factory uses a Kanban production system with containers that hold four radios. It takes 60 minutes for Frank to receive the radios from the previous work station. The factory sets safety stock at 50 percent of demand during lead time. How many Kanbans are needed?
Q3) Small lot production
A)Increases inventory
B)Decreases flexibility
C)Reduces setup
D)Increases excess processing
E)Shortens lead time
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Chapter 8: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first round of an exponential smoothing process is often begun by setting the second period forecast equal to ___________________.
Q2) Forecasting demand and forecasting sales are the same thing.
A)True B)False
Q3) What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is no relationship between the two variables of a linear regression model?
A)-1
B)0
C)0.5
D)1
E)\(\infty\)
Q4) Moving average forecasts with a smaller number of observations are more subject to random changes in the data than those with a larger number of observations.
A)True B)False
Q5) Discuss why the degree of accuracy is important in selecting the right forecasting model.
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Chapter 9: Capacity Planning and Facility Location
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Sample Questions
Q1) The load-distance model frequently utilizes rectilinear distance, which is the shortest distance between two points using only north-south and east-west movements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the formula for effective utilization? ________________________
Q3) Last month TMJG Co. started producing a new product called Thingamajigs from its new plant. Sales were quite good for the first couple of weeks. Unfortunately, a technological innovation was then announced by a competitor. This innovation will almost completely eliminate the demand for Thingamajigs. As a result, TMJG has decided to shut down and dismantle the plant next week. The average cost per unit will be highest if the plant was _________________________.
A)a small facility
B)in the right location
C)a large facility
D)just-in-time
E)a medium facility
Q4) Discuss why marketing is important in making capacity decisions.
Q5) What are the disadvantages of globalization?
Q6) Describe the relation of capacity requirement and the supply chain.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Facility Layout
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Sample
Questions
Q1) The first step in designing a layout is
A)identifying the facility
B)gathering information
C)selecting the correct layout software package
D)developing a REL chart
E)developing a from-to matrix
Q2) A hospital is an example of process layout.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Load-distance calculations are very concerned with the direction of the move.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between paced and un-paced lines.
Q5) Group technology creates groupings of products primarily based on what?
A)product cost
B)raw materials requirements
C)similar processing requirements
D)operating characteristics
E)market segmentation
Q6) What is the formula for the theoretical minimum number of work stations?
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Chapter 11: Work System Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard times can be used to measure performance of individual workers. If a worker fails to match the standard time, the company should do what?
A)put the worker on probation
B)ignore the situation
C)change the standard time
D)provide training to improve the worker's performance
E)fire the worker
Q2) Discuss how job design is related to the supply chain.
Q3) Jobs that are intrinsically satisfying to the employee are said to be
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of specialization in job design?
A)high turnover rates
B)minimal training needed
C)intrinsic satisfaction of employees
D)increased opportunity for advancement of employees
E)low scrap rates
Q5) Studying the time it takes to do a job is called __________________.
Q6) Expanding a job vertically through increased worker responsibility is called
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Chapter 12: Independent Demand Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for speculative inventory?
Q2) In a periodic review system, if you are basing your time between orders on the EOQ, what should be its length in weeks?
A)EOQ / 52
B)EOQ / average weekly demand
C)average weekly demand / EOQ
D)52 / EOQ
E)(EOQ)(average weekly demand)
Q3) Inventory management is a key component of effective supply chain performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the costs (S and H)and demands (D)are the same, which of the following is not true with regard to the EPQ model as compared to the EOQ model?
A)The EPQ model produces a lower total annual cost.
B)The maximum inventory level is lower under the EPQ model than under the EOQ model.
C)The two models use different formulas to compute annual ordering cost.
D)The inventory depletion rate is the same for both models.
E)The two models use different formulas to compute annual holding cost.
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Chapter 13: Aggregate Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true for firing permanent employees?
A)Deciding who will go and who will stay is difficult.
B)Keeping senior employees is always the least cost effective approach.
C)It can involve severance pay.
D)Valuable knowledge may leave with the employee.
E)It can harm morale.
Q2) Shifting demand makes sense when the company has high fixed costs and low variable costs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Subcontracting has unattractive ________________________ effects.
Q4) An advantage of the chase aggregate plan is ____________________________.
A)workforce instability
B)excess hiring
C)space requirements
D)minimizes finished good holding costs
E)excessive purchase of additional tools and equipment
Q5) The master production schedule is a(n)______ production schedule and is typically stated as _______ finished goods.
Q6) What are the inputs to the aggregate planning process?
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Chapter 14: Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the data provided determine the Inventory Record using a FOQ lot size rule for the hinge.
Q2) The lead time can be less than the cumulative lead time when the company has inventory on hand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Supply chain intelligence enables ______________ along the supply chain.
Q4) Information that may be contained in the inventory records file includes all except which of the following?
A)part numbers
B)run times for manufactured parts
C)part names
D)lead times
E)safety stock requirements
Q5) The most critical factors in successful ERP programs are __________________ and _________________.
Q6) Scheduling all the activities that must be done by a due date from that point of view is called ________________ scheduling.
Q7) What transactions can cause information in the inventory records file to change?
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Chapter 15: Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three kinds of constraints defined by TOC?
Q2) Which of the following scheduling techniques tends to break down over the long term?
A)input/output control
B)infinite loading
C)forward scheduling
D)backward scheduling
E)finite loading
Q3) Which of the following is a measure of how long after the due date the job is completed?
A)job belatedness
B)mean flow time
C)makespan
D)job overdueness
E)job tardiness
Q4) Employees who perform a variety of services and are assigned where they are needed each day are said to ________________.
Q5) Makespan is a measure of WIP.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and describe the three ways to waste safety time in the critical chain approach.
Q2) Which phase in the project life cycle involves evaluating expected costs, benefits, and risks?
A)conception
B)feasibility analysis or study
C)planning
D)execution
E)termination
Q3) In critical path scheduling, slack is computed as the difference between finish and start times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Accounting uses project management information to provide a time line for the marketing program.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In politics, a _______________ is a candidate's ____________ of the resources need to run a successful political campaign.
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Chapter 16: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common form of models are mathematical models.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the "Formulas" box is checked under Tools/Options/View, what happens to the size of the columns?
A)The widths are cut in half.
B)There's no change in the column size.
C)The widths are doubled.
D)Columns containing items are doubled in size and empty columns are cut in half.
E)Their widths are automatically expanded to the size of the printed formulas.
Q3) A common practice of scenario analysis is to examine the base case, best case, and worst case scenarios.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define and describe a model.
Q5) What is a primary reason why recommended footers contain the date and time?
Q6) Although there are a number of different model types, _________ exist among them.
Q7) Define an output.
19
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Chapter 17: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Q1) A formulation is a formal, ____________ statement of a constrained optimization problem
Q2) Formulate the following as a linear program. Frank's art class must provide instructions on painting (P), carving (C), and clay modeling (M). Frank has a limited material budget of $3,000. The costs per student usage for the supplies are $25, $18, and $14, respectively. Frank must provide instruction and practice opportunities for each method. What is the optimum combination of art supplies Frank should procure for the class?
Q3) Describe what steps one should use if the Solver Results box says, "The conditions for Assume Linear Model are not satisfied"?
Q4) A mathematical model in which one is trying to maximize or minimize some quantity while satisfying a set of constraints is a(n):
A)objective model
B)constrained model
C)constrained optimization problem
D)decision model
E)excel model
Q5) Solver's Changing Cells corresponds to the ________ in the algebraic model.
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Chapter 18: Waiting Line Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do larger-scale waiting line systems use discrete-event simulation?
Q2) Which of the following waiting line systems best describes a bank with a single waiting line that feeds customers to multiple identical servers?
A)single-server, single-phase
B)single-server, multi-phase
C)multi-server, single-line, single-phase
D)multi-server, multi-line, single-phase
E)multi-server, multi-phase
Q3) Channel and server are synonymous in waiting line terminology.
A)True
B)False
Q4) 4! = _________?
A)0
B)1
C)undefined
D)4
E)24
Q5) A single-line service system is best when specialized servers are used.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Master Scheduling and Rough-Cut Capacity Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A master production schedule incorporates production lead time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Johnny Now, Inc. produces two different models of outhouses. Demand next period is expected to be 12,000 and 18,000 units for Models A and B, respectively. Model A has CPOPF planning factors of 0.75 and 0.60 for direct labor and machine time, respectively. Model B has CPOPF planning factors of 0.50 and 0.80 for direct labor and machine time, respectively. Historically department G uses 24% of the direct labor and machine time for these products, while department H uses the remaining 76%. What is the machine time requirement for department G next period?
A)5,184 hours
B)4,320 hours
C)7,200 hours
D)21,600 hours
E)16,416 hours
Q3) The ______ _____ shows how many products or services are planned for each time period.
Q4) Discuss how the MPS is evaluated in terms of cost.
Q5) Discuss the Master scheduler responsibility.
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