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Introduction to Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary course designed to provide students with a comprehensive overview of the health sciences field, exploring key concepts such as health promotion, disease prevention, and the organization of healthcare systems. Students will examine the roles and responsibilities of healthcare professionals, the impact of social determinants on health outcomes, and the basics of epidemiology and public health. Through a combination of lectures, case studies, and discussions, the course aims to develop foundational knowledge essential for further study and careers in healthcare, while fostering an understanding of ethical issues and emerging trends in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by
Kevin T. Patton
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Q1) Muscular system and skeletal system
A)Reproduction and development
B)Processing, regulation, and maintenance
C)Outer protection
D)Support and movement
E)Communication, control, and integration
F)Transportation and defense
Answer: D
Q2) Level at which the tissues work together to perform a specific function
A)Chemical
B)Organelle
C)Cellular
D)Tissue
E)Organ
F)System
G)Organism
Answer: E
Q3) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Q1) An intracellular parasite that consists of an RNA or DNA core surrounded by a protein coat
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: F
Q2) Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of:
A)the body trying to maintain homeostasis.
B)a positive-feedback mechanism.
C)a negative-feedback mechanism.
D)both A and C.
Answer: D
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Q1) Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element?
A)Hydrogen
B)Helium
C)Oxygen
D)Carbon
Answer: B
Q2) Litmus paper will turn red in the presence of a base.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A few inorganic compounds contain both C-C bonds but no inorganic compound has a C-H bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) During catabolic reactions, some of the energy is released as heat to help keep the body warm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Sample Questions
Q1) The amino group in an amino acid is:
A)NH<sub>3</sub>+.
B)COO-.
C)symbolized by the letter R. D)SO<sub>2</sub>.
Q2) Both triglycerides and prostaglandins can contain unsaturated fat.
A)True B)False
Q3) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is also called the "bad" cholesterol.
A)True B)False
Q4) The body uses the steroid cholesterol to make hormones. A)True B)False
Q5) When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H ion is released.
A)True B)False
Q6) If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G, what would the bases be on the other side of the molecule? On what do you base your answer?
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Q1) The proteasomes contain enzymes that assist in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The barrier function of the plasma membrane is accomplished by the: A)receptor proteins. B)glycoproteins.
C)rafts in the cell membrane. D)phospholipid bilayer.
Q3) Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Include the structure and function of the nucleolus.
Q4) The outer portion of the cell membrane is hydrophobic, or water loving.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rebecca received second-degree sunburn and was very uncomfortable for several days. Her skin began to heal, and some of the epithelial tissue began to peel off in layers. Explain the cell connections that allow the skin cells to hold onto each other in a sheet.
Q6) Another term for cytosol is intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The "lock-and-key model" is used to describe how mRNA and tRNA base pairs align.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be:
A)isotonic.
B)hypotonic.
C)hypertonic.
D)hydrostatic.
Q3) The hydrolyzing enzyme sucrase joins two sucrose molecules together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes.
Q5) Add water to a molecule without splitting it
A)Hydrases
B)Hydrolases
C)Phosphorylating enzymes
D)Mutases or isomerases
E)Carboxylases or decarboxylases
F)Oxidases and hydrogenases
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Q1) These parts of the edited messenger RNA are sent to the ribosome.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
Q2) Describe the process of transcription. What are introns and exons?
Q3) Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi?
Q4) Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step.
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Q1) Collagen is the most abundant protein compound in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The serous membrane covering the stomach is called the:
A)visceral pleura.
B)visceral peritoneum.
C)parietal pleura.
D)parietal peritoneum.
Q3) Name and differentiate the two types of stem cells. What are some possible uses for stem cells?
Q4) Epithelial and muscle tissue have the greatest ability to regenerate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most complex tissue in the body is:
A)connective.
B)epithelial.
C)nervous.
D)muscle.
Q6) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
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Q1) Epithelial tissue performs different functions based on the different types of matrix that make up the tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Epithelial cells can be classified according to shape. Which is not a characteristic shape of epithelial cells?
A)Rectangular
B)Cubed
C)Columns
D)Flat
Q3) Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body
A)Neuron
B)Neuroglia
C)Axon
D)Soma
E)Dendrite
Q4) Membranous epithelium is often called surface epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.
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Q1) Normally, which percentage of the cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day?
A)20% to 25%
B)10% to 12%
C)18% to 20%
D)35% to 40%
Q2) Which skin pigment is a light reddish color?
A)Beta carotene
B)Pheomelanin
C)Eumelanin
D)None of the above
Q3) The keratinocytes of the skin are examples of antigen-presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common type of skin cancer is:
A)malignant melanoma.
B)basal cell carcinoma.
C)Kaposi sarcoma.
D)All skin cancers occur in about equal frequency.
Q5) Describe the formation of hair, and describe the parts of a hair follicle.
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Q1) Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years.
A)20 and 25
B)25 and 30
C)30 and 35
D)35 and 40
Q2) The parathyroid hormone causes all of the following except:
A)increase of the absorption of calcium by the kidney.
B)stimulation of the activity of osteoblasts.
C)stimulation of the activity of osteoclasts.
D)stimulation of vitamin D synthesis.
Q3) Osteogenesis involves the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Easily identified by their extended longitudinal axis; the femur is an example
A)Irregular bones
B)Flat bones
C)Sesamoid bones
D)Short bones
E)Long bones

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Q1) The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you were examining the skull, the sphenoid and occipital bones would be less visible than the frontal and ethmoid bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The five sacral vertebrae remain separate until about 40 years of age; at that point they fuse to form one wedge-shaped bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones all contain paranasal sinuses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Costal cartilage
A)Ribs
B)Sternum
C)Vertebrae
Q6) Describe the bones of the skull.
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Q1) Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance? Explain your answer.
Q3) Young children's bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Radial tuberosity
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q5) What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks?
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Q1) Synchondroses:
A)have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint.
B)are immovable joints.
C)are found only in the skull.
D)is another term for symphysis.
Q2) There are no gomphosis joints in the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Turn the hand palm posteriorly
A)Abduction
B)Adduction
C)Extension
D)Flexion
E)Pronation
F)Supination
Q4) Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint?
A)Bursae
B)Joint cavity
C)Menisci
D)All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is usually distal to the belly of the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A muscle that assists with mastication is the:
A)orbicularis oris.
B)buccinator.
C)platysma.
D)masseter.
Q3) Triceps
A)Location
B)Function
C)Shape
D)Direction of fibers
E)Number of heads or divisions
F)Points of attachment
Q4) Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the terms insertion and origin, in relation to muscle movement.
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Q1) Muscles located on the lower leg move the:
A)thigh.
B)hip.
C)knee.
D)foot.
Q2) The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the:
A)extensor digitorum.
B)opponens pollicis.
C)palmaris longus.
D)flexor carpi radialis.
Q3) The teres major and teres minor muscles move the:
A)forearm.
B)arm.
C)shoulder.
D)wrist.
Q4) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sarcoplasmic reticulum continually pumps calcium ions out of the sarcoplasm and stores them in sacs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The liver has the ability to convert lactate back into glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A motor neuron is considered part of the neuromuscular junction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Muscle contractions will continue as long as:
A)the calcium ions are attached to the troponin.
B)there is dopamine in the neuromuscular junction.
C)there is ADP in the muscle cell.
D)T-tubules are transmitting impulses.
Q5) When troponin and calcium combine, it causes actin to shift and allows the myosin to form cross-bridges.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body.
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Q1) The PNS includes both efferent and afferent nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Neurons have:
A)complete regeneration capacity.
B)no regeneration capacity.
C)very limited capacity to repair themselves.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Small, lipid-soluble molecules can diffuse easily across the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ependymal cells act like epithelial cells in the CNS, forming thin sheets that line cavities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system stimulate muscles and do not have a sensory component.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Explain both temporal and spatial summation.
Q2) Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse.
Q3) During the nerve impulse, the internal charge of the neuron becomes briefly positive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be depolarized.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many anesthetics produce their effects by inhibiting the opening of the potassium channels, blocking the repolarization of nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Enkephalins and endorphins are subclasses of amines that are pain relievers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain a way that the nerve cell is able to respond to stimuli of different strengths.
Q8) Describe resting potential, including the position of potassium and sodium ions.
Q9) Define IPSP and EPSP.
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Q1) The islands of gray matter inside the hemispheres of the cerebrum are known as the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A lesion or tumor in the hypothalamus may cause overeating and result in substantial weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the functions of the cerebellum have to do with control of smooth muscle or glands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fourth ventricle in the brain is an expansion of the central canal of the spinal cord.
A)True B)False
Q5) The location of the crossing of the left and right optic nerves is called the epithalamus.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The abducens nerve abducts the upper arm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy in the United States is diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The peripheral nervous system includes:
A)only spinal nerves.
B)only spinal nerves and their branches.
C)only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.
D)cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches.
Q4) The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial.
A)ninth
B)tenth
C)eleventh
D)twelfth
Q5) Sympathetic chain and sympathetic rami refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What brain structure acts as a "connection" between the cerebrum and the autonomic nervous system?
Q2) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:
A)are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholine.
B)continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
C)continually conduct impulses to the brain.
D)have opposing effects.
Q3) Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
A)All of its axons are afferent fibers.
B)It operates without conscious control.
C)It regulates visceral activities.
D)All of its neurons are motor.
Q4) A new theory of autonomic neurotransmission says that most postganglionic fibers release two substances to transmit an impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All cranial nerves except nerves I and II contain parasympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lamellar corpuscles are least numerous in the:
A)palms of the hands.
B)joints of the body.
C)skin of the back.
D)soles of the feet.
Q2) When referring to the sensory neurons, the term end organ refers to the _____ lobe of the brain.
A)occipital
B)temporal
C)parietal
D)None of the above is correct.
Q3) Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called visceroceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The function of a receptor is to turn a stimulus into a nerve impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Olfactory receptors and taste buds are chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The pinna and external acoustic meatus refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of the eustachian tube?
Q3) Membrane that separates the scala vestibuli and the cochlear duct
A)Basilar membrane
B)Bony labyrinth
C)Cochlea
D)Cochlear duct
E)Endolymph
F)Membranous labyrinth
G)Organ of Corti
H)Perilymph
I)Scala tympani
J)Scala vestibule
K)Semicircular canals
L)Tectorial membrane
M)Vestibular membrane
N)Vestibule
Q4) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
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Q1) The nuclear-receptor model is used in describing the action of steroid hormones. A)True
B)False
Q2) The type(s) of prostaglandin that play(s) a role in the development of a fever is(are):
A)PGA.
B)PGE.
C)PGF. D)PGA and PGE.
Q3) Responses that result from endocrine feedback loops are called endocrine reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are neurotransmitters. A)True B)False
Q5) Most cells in the body can respond to many different types of hormones. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
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Q1) The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a negative-feedback mechanism that helps maintain homeostasis of blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gonadotrophs secrete:
A)GH.
B)LH and FSH.
C)TSH.
D)prolactin.
Q3) A major function of the pineal gland is the development of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glucocorticoids have a hypoglycemic effect on blood sugar.
A)True B)False
Q6) Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism.
Q7) What is the effect of glucagon on blood sugar level?
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Q1) The synthesis of plasma protein takes place in the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A difference between a crystalloid and a colloid is the size of the particle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the ways platelets assist in blood homeostasis is to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction in the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because they are formed in lymphatic tissue, there are no lymphocytes in bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The general term for an overall decrease in white blood cells is leukocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Diapedesis is a process of phagocytosis and release of cytotoxic chemicals.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Cuspid valves open into:
A)the aorta.
B)the pulmonary artery.
C)the ventricles of the heart.
D)both A and B.
Q2) Semilunar valves open into:
A)the aorta.
B)the pulmonary artery.
C)the ventricles of the heart.
D)both A and B.
Q3) The midline of the body divides the heart into equal right and left halves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Epicardium and fibrous pericardium are two names for the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Angina pectoris and myocardial infarction are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
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Q1) Blood from the stomach and intestines goes to the liver through the:
A)hepatic portal vein.
B)hepatic vein.
C)renal vein.
D)inferior vena cava.
Q2) Continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoid are all terms that can describe a type of capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After birth the umbilical vessels remaining in the infant's body:
A)become fibrous cords that remain throughout life.
B)are shed in about 6 weeks.
C)shrink to eventually become capillaries.
D)remain as possible shunts for use later in life.
Q4) Umbilical arteries carry blood from the placenta to the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls. Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels.
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Q1) Osmotic pressure tends to move plasma out of the capillary and into the tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List two major factors that promote the return of venous blood to the heart. Explain how each facilitates venous return.
Q3) By the time the blood reaches the venous end of the capillaries, the pressure on the blood has reached 0 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following factors would cause fluid to be reabsorbed into the blood vessel at the venous end of the capillary?
A)High hydrostatic pressure of the blood
B)High colloid pressure of the plasma proteins
C)Hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
D)Both B and C
Q5) Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output.
Q6) The pulse wave is associated with left ventricular diastole.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Anastomoses are not characteristic of lymphatic vessels, and therefore a malignant tumor in one breast cannot spread to the other breast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Elderly people have only about 10% function in their thymus gland.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluid that fills the spaces between cells
A)Tonsils
B)Spleen
C)Lymph node
D)Cisterna chyli
E)Lymph
F)Thoracic duct
G)Thymus
H)Right lymphatic duct
I)Peyer patches
J)Hassall corpuscles
K)Interstitial fluid
Q4) Describe the important functions performed by the thymus.
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Q1) Interferon can act like a paracrine hormone that allows infected cells to send an alarm to other nearby cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heat, redness, swelling, and pain are characteristic signs of inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parts of the first line of immune defense are in the integumentary system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response?
A)The release of chemicals that attract white blood cells
B)The formation of antibodies
C)The increase of blood flow to the inflamed area
D)All of the above are part of the inflammation response.
Q5) Tobacco mosaic virus can destroy tobacco plants. It has no effect on humans. This is an example of species resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
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Q1) Predominant class of antibody produced in the secondary response to an antigen
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q2) The predominant antibody of a secondary response is:
A)IgE.
B)IgG.
C)IgM.
D)IgA.
Q3) The complement system can be activated by:
A)the binding of complement protein 1 to the complement-binding site on the antibody molecule.
B)the binding of complement protein 3 to bacteria or viruses in the presence of properdin.
C)nonspecific immune mechanisms.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system.
Q5) Describe the development and activation of B cells.
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Q1) Individuals who are hard driving and competitive are said to have a type B personality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stressors tend to be extreme stimuli of either extreme abundance or extreme deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, an example(s) of stress that stimulate(s) the hypothalamus indirectly would be:
A)stress stimulating the limbic lobe first.
B)stress stimulating other parts of the cerebral cortex first.
C)hypoglycemia.
D)both A and B.
Q4) ______refers to the cumulative effect of long-term exposure to stress.
A)Stress syndrome
B)Stress response
C)Allostatic load
D)Allostatic overload
Q5) Identify the three categories that classify stressful experiences.
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Q1) Extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi; the windpipe
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
Q2) When air leaves the posterior nares, it next enters the trachea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because of the rapid blood loss, nosebleeds are frequently a serious problem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary bronchi and the pulmonary blood vessels bound together by connective tissue form what is called the root of the lung.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The larynx filters, warms, and humidifies inspired air.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased.
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Q1) A primary function of the respiratory system is to supply tissue with adequate oxygen and to remove carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pneumotaxic center operates mainly to prevent overinflation of lung tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is much more influenced by carbon dioxide in the blood because there is no buffering system in the CSF as there is in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called: A)compliance.
B)elastic recoil.
C)expiration.
D)ventilation.
Q5) Identify and describe four nonrespiratory breathing reflexes.
Q6) Explain the diving reflex.
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Q1) About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to:
A)bicarbonate ions.
B)hemoglobin.
C)carbaminohemoglobin.
D)chloride ions.
Q2) Increased cellular activity would decrease the carbon dioxide gradient between the cells and the arterial blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are six iron atoms in a single hemoglobin molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemoglobin can carry oxygen more efficiently than it can carry carbon dioxide because all four polypeptide chains can carry oxygen, but only the beta chain can carry carbon dioxide.
A)True B)False
Q5) The terms oxygen partial pressure and oxygen tension are interchangeable. A)True B)False
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Q1) The uvula is a small, cone-shaped process that is suspended from the hard palate of the mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A permanent set of teeth normally consists of _____ teeth.
A)26
B)30 C)32
D)36
Q3) The serosa layer of the alimentary canal is actually the parietal peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In addition to enamel, the outer shell of the tooth has two additional dental tissues: dentin and gingivae.
A)True B)False
Q5) In most of the alimentary canal, the epithelial layer is composed of stratified squamous epithelial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Duct that drains bile from the gallbladder
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Mesentery
D)Ascending colon
E)Jejunum
F)Duodenum
G)Cystic duct
H)Ileum
I)Gallbladder
J)Descending colon
K)Pancreas
Q2) The most essential part of bile is:
A)bile salts.
B)bile pigments.
C)cholesterol.
D)bilirubin.
Q3) The falciform ligament in the liver divides it into equal right and left halves.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme for lipids?
A)Bile
B)Lipase
C)Phospholipase
D)All of the above are digestive enzymes for lipids.
Q2) Glycogen and sucrose are examples of polysaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chylomicrons are formed to facilitate the transport of:
A)amino acids.
B)fats.
C)glucose.
D)vitamins.
Q4) Organ in which bile is concentrated and stored
A)Gallbladder
B)Salivary gland
C)Pancreas
D)Stomach
E)Small intestine
F)Liver
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Q1) Glucagon increases the activity of:
A)phosphorylase.
B)phosphatase.
C)amylase.
D)glucokinase.
Q2) Fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies in the liver.
A)True B)False
Q3) The process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the: A)liver.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)brain.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q4) Some essential acids are used in the formation of phospholipids.
A)True B)False
Q5) Iodine can be called a trace element and a micromineral. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation.
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Q1) The urinary bladder is a collapsible bag located behind the symphysis pubis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Part of the nephron that establishes a countercurrent multiplier mechanism
A)Distal convoluted tubule
B)Glomerulus
C)Glomerular capsule
D)Nephron loop
E)Proximal convoluted tubule
F)Collecting duct
G)Peritubular capillary
H)Vasa recta
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true of the ureter?
A)The ureter is approximately 28 cm long.
B)The ureter conducts urine inferiorly from the kidney to the bladder.
C)The ureter is composed of two layers of tissue-an inner mucous layer and an outer fibrous layer.
D)All of the above are true of the ureter.
Q4) Outline the flow of blood through the kidney tissue.
Q5) List functions of the urinary bladder.
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Q1) Osmoreceptors assist in controlling homeostasis of body fluids by:
A)causing the anterior pituitary gland to secrete increased amounts of ACTH, thus decreasing more fluids.
B)causing the posterior pituitary to stop releasing ADH.
C)decreasing the function of the pons and reducing fluid losses.
D)working in the hypothalamus to trigger a conscious sense of dry mouth and thirst.
Q2) Fluid tends to be pushed out of the blood vessels at the venous end and reabsorbed at the arterial end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be:
A)plasma, intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid.
B)intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma.
C)intracellular fluid, plasma, interstitial fluid.
Q4) Explain how the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism works to help maintain fluid balance.
Q5) How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances?
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Q1) A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 × 10- per liter would be a(n):
A)acid.
B)base.
C)neutral solution.
D)There is not enough information to determine the type of solution it would be.
Q2) Vomiting results in acidosis because of the loss of chloride from the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The respiratory center becomes stimulated if the:
A)amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases, so more CO<sub>2</sub> is exhaled, thus lowering the blood pH.
B)amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases to retain more CO<sub>2</sub>, thus lowering the blood pH.
C)pH of the blood goes above 7.41.
D)All of the above occur if the respiratory center becomes stimulated.
Q4) Most body fluid buffer pairs contain a strong base and a weak acid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH?
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Q1) The urethra runs through the center of the:
A)seminal vesicle.
B)Cowper gland.
C)bulbourethral gland.
D)prostate gland.
Q2) As part of the maturation process, sperm will stay in the epididymis for:
A)1 to 3 days.
B)4 to 7 days.
C)1 to 3 weeks.
D)1 to 2 months.
Q3) Seminal vesicles convey sperm to the outside of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The acrosomal cap of the sperm contains a hydrolytic enzyme necessary for penetrating the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The tail of a sperm appears to be a typical flagellum.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The internal os is formed by the opening of the uterine tubes into the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Like many other organs in the body, the ovaries consist of two major layers of tissue-the cortex and the medulla.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lack of attachment between the uterine tubes and the ovaries makes it possible for an ectopic pregnancy to occur in the pelvic cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fringelike projections, called fimbriae, are located in the ampulla of the uterine tubes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The solid mass of cells formed when the zygote begins to divide is called the:
A)blastocyst.
B)trophoblast.
C)morula.
D)embryo.
Q2) Degenerative joint disease
A)Atherosclerosis
B)Arteriosclerosis
C)Stroke
D)Osteoarthritis
E)"Barrel chest"
F)Lipping
G)Cataract
H)Hypertension
I)Glaucoma
J)Presbyopia
Q3) As we age, muscle fibers develop into "fast type" fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly discuss the three stages of labor.
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Q1) Short arm of the chromosome
A)Proteome
B)Ideogram
C)Genome
D)Genomics
E)P-arm
F)Proteomics
G)Q-arm
Q2) The syndrome that results from the genotype "XXY" is:
A)Turner.
B)Klinefelter.
C)Down.
D)Parkinson.
Q3) Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.
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