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Course Introduction
Introduction to Health Psychology explores the complex interplay between psychological factors and physical health. This course examines how emotions, behaviors, and social environments influence the onset, progression, and management of illness. Students will learn about key topics such as stress and coping mechanisms, health behavior change, patient-practitioner communication, chronic illness management, and the psychological impact of disease. Emphasis is placed on research methods in health psychology and real-world applications, equipping students with an understanding of how psychological principles are used to promote health, prevent illness, and improve healthcare outcomes.
Recommended Textbook Health Psychology 8th Edition by Shelley E. Taylor
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Q1) Conversion hysteria
A) is now even more frequent than in Freud's time.
B) occurs when unconscious conflict is manifested in a symbolic physical symptom. C) occurs when an individual develops several minor symptoms to avoid interpersonal conflict.
D) All of these.
Answer: B
Q2) One advantage of correlational studies is the ability to study health-related variables in situations where the variable cannot be manipulated experimentally.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Some prehistoric cultures practiced a procedure that involved drilling a small hole in the skull to allow evil spirits to leave the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) ,chronic pain patients whose spouses provide support and positive attention
A) experience good marital and sexual functioning.
B) may inadvertently maintain or increase the expression of pain.
C) restrict their social contact to members of their immediate family.
D) take smaller amounts of pain killers than patients who do not receive such support.
Answer: B
Q2) In contrast to aggressive imagery,relaxation imagery
A) is more frequently used to combat pain.
B) induces a positive mood state.
C) focuses attention.
D) All of these.
Answer: A
Q3) Acute pain
A) is not associated with anxiety and depression.
B) may precede the development of a chronic pain syndrome.
C) seldom responds to the administration of painkillers or other medication.
D) increases with the passage of time.
Answer: B
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Q1) Successful adjustment to chronic illness is associated with
A) having an appropriate or accurate illness schema about the nature of one's illness.
B) developing an acute model of one's disorder.
C) blaming others for one's illness and thus minimizing self-blame.
D) having a personal sense of control, even in medical situations, in which little personal control is possible.
Answer: A
Q2) Due to the chronic strain involved,the divorce rate among families with a chronic illness is higher than that for the general population.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Research evidence consistently supports the notion that self-blame is associated with poor adjustment to chronic illness.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Suppose you were working in a facility that provided care for terminally ill patients and their families.What psychosocial factors would be important for you to consider in training staff members? Why?
Q2) Emotional and social withdrawal in terminally ill patients is A) successfully treated with antidepressants. B) always due to anticipatory grieving.
C) an expected and common occurrence.
D) All of these.
Q3) The main cause of premature death in adulthood is sudden death due to A) accidents.
B) stroke or heart attack.
C) AIDS.
D) homicide.
Q4) One plausible scientific explanation for the success of some nontraditional treatments is the placebo effect.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe Kübler-Ross's theory of dying.Evaluate the usefulness of her theory.
Q6) Describe the psychological and physiological correlates of grief.
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Q1) People who are high in cynical hostility generally have a high level of social support.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cardiac invalidism occurs when
A) patients and their spouses underestimate the patient's physical abilities.
B) spouses underestimate the extent of disability.
C) patients malinger in order to reap secondary gains associated with the sick role.
D) patients feel that they are unable to control the stressors in their daily lives.
Q3) Type II (noninsulin-dependent)diabetes
A) develops relatively late in life (after age 40), but is becoming more common in children and adolescents.
B) is the third most common chronic illness in America.
C) occurs when insulin is disregulated.
D) All of these.
Q4) Depression often is a complication of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Natural killer cells
A) recognize, ingest, and destroy antigens.
B) contribute to inflammatory and allergic reactions.
C) assist in the activation of T cells through the secretion of cytokine.
D) attack and destroy cells infected by viruses.
Q2) The most prevalent of the autoimmune diseases is cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Type I (insulin-dependent)diabetes
A) develops relatively late in life (after age 40).
B) accounts for 90 percent of all diabetics.
C) is characterized by an abrupt onset of symptoms.
D) usually is inherited.
Q4) T lymphocytes
A) play an important role in humoral immunity.
B) confer immunity by the production and secretion of antibodies.
C) secrete toxic substances that kill infected cells.
D) release antibodies into the blood.
Q5) Compare Type I diabetes with what you already learned about Type II diabetes in the previous chapter.How are they similar and how are they different?
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Q1) Improvements in the technology of pain control have led to
A) increased use of improved pharmacological pain-control techniques.
B) a shift in the responsibility for pain control from the practitioner to the patient.
C) increased acceptance of co-management of pain by the practitioner and the patient.
D) state-of-the-art treatments for chronic pain becoming increasingly available at local clinics and hospitals.
Q2) Future programs targeting the management of chronic illness must incorporate A) cost-effective interventions to improve quality of life.
B) assessment of needs in all domains of life during the acute period of illness.
C) regular needs assessment over the long term to identify potential problems.
D) All of these.
Q3) Comprehensive intervention models
A) concentrate and coordinate medical and psychological expertise.
B) have yet to be developed for chronic diseases.
C) have proven to be less expensive than other models and remarkably cost effective.
D) All of these.
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Q1) _______________ is chest pain that occurs because the muscle tissue of the heart must continue its activity without a sufficient supply of oxygen or adequate removal of carbon dioxide and other waste products.
A) Angina pectoris
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Phlebitis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q2) The nervous system is chiefly responsible for _______________ responses to changes in the body; whereas the endocrine system governs mainly _______________ responses.
A) fast-acting, short-duration; slow-acting, long-duration
B) slow-acting, long-duration; fast-acting, short-duration
C) fast-acting, long-duration; slow-acting, short-duration
D) complementary; antagonistic
Q3) Type I diabetes
A) typically occurs after age 40.
B) is believed to be an autoimmune disorder.
C) is a condition that occurs when the body is not sufficiently responsive to insulin.
D) is primarily managed through dietary and exercise regimens.
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Q1) The family physician may be a particularly effective agent in promoting health-related attitudes and behavior because
A) individuals are more likely to follow a suggested treatment if they pay for professional advice.
B) few social engineering solutions to health problems have been successful.
C) a one-to-one approach is the least expensive and most efficient vehicle for changing health habits.
D) a physician is a highly credible communicator and agent of health-habit change.
Q2) Relapse is likely when the individual:
A) has high self-efficacy.
B) is under a lot of stress.
C) is well supported by friends and family.
D) definitive goals are established.
Q3) According to the text,changing health behaviors may be beneficial because it may A) reduce the number of deaths due to diseases related to lifestyle.
B) increase individual longevity and life expectancy.
C) delay the onset of chronic disease and enhance quality of life.
D) All of these.
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Q1) Mediterranean diets are healthy because they are heavy in red meat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People who gain and lose weight in cycles (yo-yo dieters)increase their chances for becoming obese because they
A) develop more poor health habits with each diet cycle.
B) increase their number of fat cells with each diet cycle.
C) decrease their metabolic rate with each diet cycle.
D) decrease their motivation with each diet cycle.
Q3) The health benefits of regular exercise include:
A) increase of maximum oxygen consumption.
B) increase in strength and efficiency of the heart.
C) decrease in obesity.
D) All of these.
Q4) The most effective technique in work site weight-loss programs is
A) individual instruction.
B) team competition.
C) aerobic programs.
D) interventions tailored to the recipient's stage of change.
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Q1) Moderate alcohol intake has been associated with A) increased risk from coronary artery disease.
B) increased risk for cardiovascular disease.
C) decreased risk from coronary artery disease.
D) decreased risk for cardiovascular disease.
Q2) Studies have found relapse rates of _______________ or more in the two to four years following treatment for alcoholism.
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 75 percent
Q3) Compared to persons with more long-term drinking problems,people who become problem drinkers in late middle age are
A) less likely to control their drinking on their own.
B) less likely to be successfully treated.
C) more likely to use problem drinking as a coping method.
D) All of these.
Q4) More than 2 million college students drive drunk each year.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The _______________ paradigm takes people into the laboratory,exposes them to short-term stressful events,and then observes the impact of that stress on their physiological,neuroendocrine,and psychological responses.
A) acute stress
B) induced disease
C) SRRS
D) hassles
Q2) The effects of unemployment
A) are unaffected by social support.
B) include psychological and physical symptoms.
C) include psychological but not physical symptoms.
D) include physical but not psychological symptoms.
Q3) The relationship between scores on the Stressful Life Events (SLE)inventory and illness is
A) negligible.
B) modest.
C) robust.
D) unpredictable.
Q4) Answer the text's question "What makes events stressful?"
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Q1) What is social support? What are the benefits of having a sufficient amount of social support? What are the costs of being in a dense social network?
Q2) The belief that one can determine one's own internal states and behavior,influence one's environment,and/or bring about desired outcomes is
A) optimism.
B) psychological control.
C) self-efficacy.
D) hardiness.
Q3) The assurance that one is a valuable individual who is cared for is A) emotional support
B) tangible assistance.
C) visible support.
D) instrumental support.
Q4) There appears to be developmental differences in general coping strategies because problem-focused coping appears to emerge during childhood,and emotion-focused coping develops somewhat later.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Who was most vulnerable to being "bitten" by the "June Bug"?
A) single women
B) married women with children
C) single men
D) married men with children
Q2) Medical delay
A) accounts for at least 30 percent of all delay behaviors.
B) is more likely when symptoms deviate from the practitioner's disease prototype.
C) is more likely in cases where the diagnosis is not serious.
D) is unrelated to the diagnostic process.
Q3) Describe and discuss the four stages of delay behavior.Provide an original example for each stage.
Q4) Although _______________ may contribute to higher levels of use of medical care by women,this/these same factor(s)also contribute(s)to women's poorer health.
A) lower levels of employment
B) higher rates of part-time employment
C) lower economic status
D) All of these.

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Q1) When health care provider resort to baby talk it is because they:
A) accurately report that patients' knowledge of medical terms is quite low.
B) underestimate the level of their patients' understanding of medical terms.
C) overestimate the level of their patients' understanding of medical terms.
D) tend to blame themselves for their patients' lack of knowledge of medical terms.
Q2) The goals of cure,care,and core orientations in a hospital setting are discrete and never in conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For children,adverse reactions to hospitalization are entirely due to separation anxiety.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DRGs have had a significant effect on modern medical care in that they encourage the early detection and treatment of medical complications.
A)True
B)False
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