Introduction to Health Professions Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Health Professions offers students an overview of the diverse careers available within the healthcare sector, exploring roles such as physicians, nurses, allied health professionals, and more. The course presents the key responsibilities, educational pathways, and scopes of practice associated with various health professions. Students will learn about the healthcare delivery system, interprofessional teamwork, ethical and legal considerations, and the importance of professionalism in healthcare settings. Through lectures, discussions, and case studies, students gain a foundational understanding of the essential characteristics and challenges of working in the health professions, preparing them to make informed decisions about their future career paths.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the characteristics of nonassertive communication.
Answer: Keeping the eyes downcast, shifting one's weight when talking, slumping the shoulders or wringing the hands, whining or using a hesitant tone of voice. Also, using terminology such as "maybe," or "I guess," "I wonder if you could," "Would you mind very much if," or "It's not really important."
Q2) You are facing a situation in which you must act assertively to solve a problem. Summarize below the steps you should use in delivering an assertive message.
Answer: Choose a feeling word that describes how you feel about the situation; think about the specific situation that must be described; form an "I" sentence with the appropriate feeling word and specific description of the circumstances. Then, establish eye contact, raise one's voice slightly, if necessary, to get the individual's attention, and deliver the "I" sentence.
Q3) Summarize the characteristics of aggressive communication.
Answer: Leaning forward and pointing a finger when talking, raising the voice or sounding arrogant, using terminology such as, "You'd better," "If you don't watch out," "Do it or else," or "You should do it this way."
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical centers and regional and specialty hospitals are considered _________________.
A) primary level of care
B) secondary level of care
C) tertiary level of care
D) interconnected level of care
Answer: C
Q2) ________________ was the founder of neonatology.
Answer: Dr. Virginia Apgar
Dr. Virginia Apgar founded neonatology.
Q3) Which of the following is not a category of compliance for meeting standards of care?
A) Assessment and care of patients
B) Orientation, education, and training of staff
C) Physicians' rights
D) Medical staff qualifications
Answer: C
Q4) The credentials DDS and DMD are used by ___________.
Answer: dentists
Dentists use the credentials DDS or DMD.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Probably the most important asset a medical assistant can offer the employer is
A) confidentiality.
B) teamwork.
C) a good attitude.
D) credibility.
Answer: C
Q2) In setting up a code for prioritizing tasks, the letter _____ could stand for phone calls that need to be completed.
Answer: P
In a prioritizing code, the letter P can be used for the category of phone calls to be made, and the letter H can be used for duties to perform at home.
Q3) Great exaggerations and manipulations of the truth can affect employee
Answer: morale
Employee morale is affected by rumors and exaggerations of the truth.
Q4) Patients are not concerned about the medical assistant's grooming and wardrobe. A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations is it important to use more descriptive language when communicating?
A) Patient with diminished hearing
B) Patient with a visual disturbance
C) Non-English-speaking patient
D) Adolescent patients
Q2) Being in agreement or harmony or conforming to the circumstances or requirements of a situation is said to be ____________.
Q3) Our verbal actions are learned behaviors that are greatly influenced by our family and cultural backgrounds. The body naturally expresses our true feelings; in fact, experts say that more than 80% of communication is nonverbal.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
Q5) The second level of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" deals with self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a solemn declaration, usually made orally by a witness under oath in response to interrogation by a lawyer or an authorized public official.
Q2) Medical assistants gathering payment information before an appointment is scheduled is an example of A) contract law.
B) malpractice.
C) tort law.
D) civil law.
Q3) When a physician withdraws medical care from a patient, a(n) __________ letter must be sent to notify the patient.
Q4) __________ damages are small awards that are token compensation for invasion of a legal right in which no actual injury was suffered.
Q5) Medical assistants cannot legally perform skills for which they have not been trained.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is an alternative to trial in which a third party hears evidence and makes a decision.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of ethical problem is characterized by two or more courses of action, in which, regardless of the course taken, something of value will be lost?
A) Ethical dilemma
B) Ethical distress
C) Locus of authority
D) Distributive justice
Q2) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals ______________.
Q3) The prime objective of the medical profession is to
A) heal patients.
B) render service to humanity.
C) make money.
D) All of the above
Q4) In the allocation of health resources, the criterion (or criteria) should be which of the following?
A) Likelihood of benefit
B) Duration of benefit
C) Urgency of need
D) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Optimistic
B) Optimestic
Q2) Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a letter?
A) 5/1/07
B) May 1st, 2016
C) May 1, 2016
D) May 1, '16
Q3) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DVD stands for ________________________.
Q5) Which of the following is an output device?
A) Printer
B) Scanner
C) Light pen
D) Keyboard
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Q6) Good __________ is essential to writing effective, professional business letters.
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The office should have a clear set of ____________ to the facility available so that they can be easily given to patients who request them.
Q2) The medical assistant should always ask permission before placing a caller on hold.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An alternative to using directory assistance is using the __________ to find phone numbers.
Q4) Which of the following types of communication tools can be used to record verbal messages?
A) Voice mail
B) Fax
C) E-mail
D) Call waiting
Q5) Patients should always be given an exact time that the physician will return a call.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are too talkative should be dismissed from the physician's care before they take up too much of his or her time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an appointment is rescheduled, the first appointment date and time must be removed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical assistant needs to watch the patient's body language.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outpatient testing is no longer common for physicians.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients appreciate it when medical assistants consider the patient's time when performing duties in the facility and scheduling appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Approaching a situation with caution is using _______________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reorder point for an item is calculated based on A) the number used per day.
B) the number of days it takes to order and receive the product.
C) the number in current inventory.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q3) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q4) If proof of mailing is needed, the medical assistant might ask the post office for
A) special handling.
B) insured mail.
C) a certificate of mailing.
D) a certificate of delivery.
12
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concise account of the patient's symptoms in his or her own words is the __________.
Q2) For a record to be admissible as evidence in court, the person dictating or writing the entries must be able to attest that they were true and correct at the time they were written. The best indication of this is the provider's signature or initials on the typed or EHR entry.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The patient owns the medical record.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of record that is created from more than one healthcare organization and can be managed and consulted by licensed clinicians and staff from those organizations who are involved in the patient's care is an electronic __________ record.
Q5) By legal definition, if it isn't charted, then it didn't happen.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coder should always refer to the Tabular Index first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "code first" notation can usually be ignored.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q5) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q6) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q7) Carcinoma __________ is defined as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues.
14
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.
Q2) Urinalysis
A) 81000
B) 81005
C) 82000
D) 81001
Q3) It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
Q5) Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "cafeteria-style" plan allows employers to choose the benefits they want for their respective employees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Health insurance typically covers services and procedures considered medically necessary. Most insurance policies also cover "elective" procedures, such as certain cosmetic surgeries, that are not considered medically necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following managed care plans require preauthorization for medical services such as surgery?
A) HMOs
B) PPOs
C) EPOs
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) TRICARE is a form of government insurance for veterans of the U.S. armed forces.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common reason why insurance claims are rejected?
A) When a procedure listed is not an insurance benefit
B) Lack of insurance coverage on date of service
C) Not obtaining preauthorization for the service
D) Claim was sent to the wrong insurance plan
Q2) Which of the following is a fixed amount per visit and is typically paid at the time of medical services?
A) Co-payment
B) Deductible
C) Co-insurance
D) Both A and B
Q3) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Q4) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q5) The assignment of benefits is located in block
A) 12.
B) 13.
C) 27.
D) 33.
Q6) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) To estimate the budget for a new year, the practice should evaluate expenses from the __________ year.
Q2) Payments to the healthcare facility come as reimbursement from the insurance company only. Adjustments are made to a patient's account when it is necessary to add or subtract a patient payment from the balance.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q4) Which statement best describes the relationship between bookkeeping and accounting?
A) Accounting is a summary of the activities of bookkeeping.
B) Bookkeeping takes care of all the reporting activities of accounting.
C) Accounting plans the bookkeeping process.
D) Bookkeeping involves the recording activities of accounting.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The checks received today include $56, $78, $57, $43, and $5,633.12. What is the total amount in checks that will be added to the deposit?
Q2) A plan in which payments are transferred, usually electronically, by a paying agency directly to the account of a recipient is called
A) disbursement.
B) direct deposit.
C) customer-oriented banking.
D) endorsement banking.
Q3) The name of the first endorser of the check indicates the last person who received the money.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An insured account requiring a minimum balance that draws interest at a higher percentage than a regular savings account is called a __________ account.
A) money market savings
B) individual retirement
C) checking
D) business savings
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many employees can be _____________ to become productive staff members with a little patience on the part of the manager.
Q2) Which of the following is a strong method of improving employee morale and encouraging outstanding performance?
A) Incentives
B) Recognition
C) Fraternizing with subordinates outside work
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following documents lists the order in which business is to be conducted during a meeting?
A) Agenda
B) Bylaws
C) Itinerary
D) Minutes
Q4) Breaks and time off do not meet the physiologic needs of employees.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate.
Q6) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories evaluates the advantage a healthcare facility would have over its competitors?
A) Strengths
B) Weaknesses
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
Q2) From the SWOT analysis, which of the following evaluate external economic forces?
A) Strengths and weaknesses
B) Threats and weaknesses
C) Opportunities and threats
D) Strengths and opportunities
Q3) A monthly e-newsletter is a great marketing idea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Without __________, many businesses fail.
A) insurance benefits
B) growth
C) marketing efforts
D) None of the above
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adequate infection control procedures include all of the following except
A) intermittent hand washing.
B) proper use of antiseptics.
C) effective disinfection.
D) sterilization.
Q2) Which of the following terms is associated with the process of killing pathogenic organisms or of rendering them inactive?
A) Sanitization
B) Ultrasonic sanitization
C) Disinfection
D) Sterilization
Q3) An antiseptic is an agent that can be used on the skin to inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ is a contaminated object, such as an improperly sterilized instrument, that causes the transmission of a disease.
Q5) A(n) __________ is a foreign substance that results in the production of a specific antibody.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following involves asking a question or summarizing a patient's thoughts?
A) Restatement
B) Clarification
C) Reflection
Q2) The __________ component of the medical history contains details about the patient's insurance, address, and date of birth.
Q3) A sign is a patient-reported indication of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the best way to obtain specific information about a patient when taking the medical history?
A) Summarize the facts revealed by the patient when answering questions.
B) Ask direct questions that can be answered briefly.
C) Restate what the patient has said to check the accuracy of what was heard.
D) Encourage the patient to explain the answers fully.
Q5) A detailed description of the anatomic location of a wound would be documented in the __________ area of a SOAPE format.
Q6) __________ data include the patient's blood pressure, TPR, and weight.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Ignatio tells Taylor, the medical assistant, that he is really worried about developing foot ulcers because of his diabetic condition. Taylor has only 10 minutes to spend on patient education today, and he planned to review glucometer techniques. What is the best approach?
A) Tell Mr. Ignatio they will discuss his circulation problems at the next visit.
B) Continue with the lesson on glucometers, because that material is more important.
C) Give Mr. Ignatio a handout about foot care.
D) Explain the importance of foot care and then cover questions about his glucometer.
Q2) Having the patient observe while you change a wound dressing is the most effective method of teaching the skill.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The health belief model focuses on what patients believe about themselves and how a health problem affects them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would provide the best dietary source of vitamin E?
A) Multigrain cereal
B) Dairy products
C) Citrus fruits
D) Lean meats
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an essential nutrient?
A) Vitamin D
B) Certain amino acids
C) Cholesterol
D) All of the above
Q3) Fiber contributes to bowel regularity, because it cannot be digested by the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unsaturated fats are heavier and denser than saturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ carries cholesterol to the cells and forms atherosclerotic plaques on arterial walls.
Q6) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Anderson's BP reading is 132/74 mm Hg. Her pulse pressure would be?
A) 42
B) 58
C) 14
D) 26
Q2) An infant's pulse typically is taken by which method?
A) Auscultating over the apex of the heart
B) Palpating the brachial artery
C) Palpating the carotid artery
D) Auscultating the brachial artery
Q3) The pulse rate may vary with the respiratory rate in pediatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A newborn is observed in the nursery with periodic episodes of not breathing. This is called
A) bradypnea.
B) apnea.
C) hyperpnea.
D) rales.
Q5) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Kosto is very serious about enforcing HIPAA guidelines for patient confidentiality. According to what you learned in this chapter, explain three applications of HIPAA that you would expect to see in a physician's office.
Q2) The technique of __________ involves using touch during the physical examination of a patient, for example, to determine the size and consistency of a tumor.
Q3) The sclera of the eye is described as the
A) tissue that lines the interior part of the eye.
B) part of the eye that is responsible for eye color.
C) white part of the eye that may show inflammation.
D) area of the eye where tears form.
Q4) Which examination position is used for gynecologic examinations?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Knee-chest
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg's
Q5) The supportive cells of the nervous system are classified as __________.
Q6) A(n) __________ is used to examine the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane.
Q7) The __________ is designed to equalize the air pressure in the middle ear.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthroid is classified as a hormone-replacement drug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Xylocaine and Novocain are examples of A) analgesics.
B) anesthetics.
C) hypnotics.
D) sedatives.
Q3) St. John's wort is an effective treatment for severe depression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The FDA has established standards that must be followed by generic drug manufacturers. Explain at least three of these.
Q5) Valtrex is an example of an A) antibiotic.
B) immunizing agent.
C) antifungal agent.
D) antiviral agent.
Q6) __________ medications are used to delay or block blood clot formation.
Q7) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the formula D/H * Q, the H stands for the A) child's height.
B) hour the medication is ordered.
C) dosage strength identified on the label.
D) amount of drug identified on the label.
Q2) The units of measure mL and cc are not the same.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many milligrams equal 150 mcg?
A) 0.015 mg
B) 0.15 mg
C) 1.5 mg
D) 15 mg
Q4) Which of the following is a metric unit of length?
A) cm
B) mL
C) mg
D) kg
Q5) Describe the three basic steps for calculating the prescribed dose of medication accurately.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the preferred site for an IM injection on an infant or child?
A) Vastus lateralis
B) Deltoid
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Gluteus medius
Q2) Always check for ________ before administering any medication.
A) antibodies
B) allergies
C) antigens
D) anergies
Q3) Dorothy is responsible for assisting Dr. Thau with pediatric allergy testing. What route of administration will be used?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Intramuscular
Q4) ID injections are given at a 15-degree angle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an infant, the safest site for an intramuscular injection is the __________.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with burns must receive a tetanus shot if more than 10 years have passed since the last immunization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient calls in to report abdominal pain. List five questions you should ask to determine the seriousness of the problem.
Q3) The best way to treat a suspected diabetic emergency in a conscious patient is to A) give orange juice with sugar. B) administer glucose tabs.
C) give an injection of insulin as soon as possible. D) loosen the clothing and elevate the legs.
Q4) If you smell smoke, immediately evacuate patients with special needs using the closest elevator.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You are responsible for placing and labeling biohazardous waste containers. Explain the methods for proper disposal of hazardous material in the physician's office.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Snellen eye chart should be placed 20 feet from the patient at the eye level of the examiner.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about an error of refraction?
A) Light rays are not being bent properly to focus on the retina.
B) Light rays are not being expanded as they should be.
C) The rods and cones are not functioning.
D) The retina lacks a sufficient blood supply.
Q3) The average person blinks two or three times a second to
A) rest the eyes briefly.
B) cleanse the eyes.
C) refocus the eyes.
D) avoid eyestrain.
Q4) The ideal exam room for the Ishihara test
A) is well-lit with overhead lights.
B) is lit primarily by sunlight.
C) has plenty of room for the patient to stand 3 feet from the charts.
Page 32
Q5) Nearsightedness, or __________, occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is used to detect delayed allergic reactions associated with contact dermatitis?
A) Percutaneous test
B) Patch test
C) Interdermal test
D) Radioallergosorbent test
Q2) What major preventive action can patients take to prevent malignant neoplasms?
A) Use tanning beds rather than direct sun.
B) Use lotions with a high SPF.
C) Refrain from picking at acne lesions.
D) Avoid direct contact with infected individuals.
Q3) Benign tumors invade the basement membrane of surrounding tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A procedure in which revolving wire brushes or sandpaper is used to remove superficial scars is called
A) exacerbation.
B) dermabrasion.
C) electrodessication.
D) cryosurgery.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of which of the following include weight loss, jaundice, and is usually advanced when diagnosed?
A) Liver cancer
B) Pancreatic cancer
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Gastric cancer
Q2) Dietary restrictions for the collection of an occult stool sample should be followed for 72 hours before the specimen is collected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) OSHA requires employers to make the hepatitis B vaccine available to employees at a reduced price.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is a malabsorption syndrome caused by an inherited defect in the patient's ability to metabolize gluten.
Q5) Hepatitis carriers can be asymptomatic but infectious.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of UTIs in women?
A) Streptococci
B) E. coli
C) Staphylococci
D) H. pylori
Q2) Which of the following is(are) helpful for treating male incontinence?
A) Artificial urinary sphincter
B) Suburethral sling
C) External catheter
D) Pelvic muscle exercises
E) Both A and C
Q3) Which of the following diagnostic studies is performed on a patient with symptoms of urinary tract obstruction?
A) Arteriography
B) Arthroscopy
C) Cholangiography
D) Myelography
E) Pyelography
Q4) The __________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
Q5) ____________ is marked by hypertension and anuria.
35
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extensive growth of the endometrium is seen during the luteal phase of menstruation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ectopic pregnancy occurs in the inferior uterine wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fertilized egg is called a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Effacement is the opening of the cervix that occurs during the birth process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pelvic inflammatory disease is a major cause of infertility.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Implanon implant is designed to prevent pregnancy for up to 3 years after insertion.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic definition of __________ is a condition in which an infant between 2 weeks and 4 months of age has crying episodes that occur at least three times a week, last longer than 3 hours a day, and persist for at least 3 weeks.
Q2) A middle ear infection is called
A) otitis media.
B) otitis externa.
C) otalgia.
D) meningitis.
Q3) In pediatric patients, the normal range for the pulse rate increases as age decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Skeletal growth in girls is completed between 15 and 16 years of age and in boys between ages 17 and 18.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rescue inhalers are used for short-term prevention of bronchospasms in children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A greenstick fracture typically is seen in pediatric patients under age 14.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient prescribed prednisone repeatedly for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis may be at risk for developing osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Spongy, porous bone tissue is described as A) cancellous.
B) fossa.
C) sinus.
D) joint.
Q4) Medications used to treat rheumatoid arthritis include which of the following? A) Remicade
B) Evista
C) Rocephan
D) Lyrica
Q5) An adult with osteomalacia is said to have rickets. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate, constricts the bronchioles, and increases digestive system function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ALS can be cured if it is diagnosed early enough.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What structure connects the two halves of the brain?
A) Cerebellum
B) Gyri
C) Corpus callosum
D) Cerebrum
Q4) If a skull fracture damages arteries, blood may collect between the skull and the dura mater, resulting in a(n) ____________________.
Q5) If encephalitis is caused by the herpes simplex or varicella zoster virus, treatment includes the use of Zovirax or Cytovene.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with Addison's disease typically are treated with prednisone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The liver is capable of creating glucose from proteins and fats through the process of __________.
Q3) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
Q4) Cretinism occurs when the thyroid fails to develop properly in an adolescent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients with diabetes __________ have a problem with target cell response to insulin.
Q6) Which of the following is an intermediate-acting insulin that is taken at bedtime to prevent nighttime drops in blood glucose levels?
A) NPH
B) Novolin R
C) NovaLog
D) Aspart
Q7) The normal FBS range is 80 to 120 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory action is initiated by a signal from the medulla oblongata?
A) Expiration
B) Inspiration
C) Ventilation
D) Exhalation
Q2) When the physician orders a nebulizer treatment, the route of drug administration is through
A) irrigation.
B) inhalation.
C) sublingual absorption.
D) instillation.
Q3) __________ is measured by instructing the patient to inhale deeply and exhale completely without forcing the exhalation.
Q4) Sleep apnea is treated with a continuous positive airway pressure machine that must be worn nightly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The best time for sputum specimen collection is first thing in the morning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pulmonary embolism is the most serious complication of this condition and may be the first indication that the condition was present.
A) Varicose veins
B) Arteriosclerosis
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Q2) Rheumatic heart disease develops because of an antigen-antibody reaction several weeks after an untreated staphylococcal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the principal sign of coronary artery disease?
A) Damaged heart valves
B) Inflammation of the blood vessels
C) Reduction of the blood supply to the myocardium
D) An irregular heartbeat
Q4) A(n) __________ may be a life-threatening problem because of the potential for embolus creation.
Q5) Contraction of the atria and ventricles is called __________.
Q6) A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to an area is called _________.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) PFT tests on aging persons typically show a decrease in vital capacity and an increase in residual volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mini mental state examination assesses the patient's ability to
A) recall facts.
B) write and calculate numbers.
C) read and write.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Synthesis of vitamin D is not affected by aging changes in the integumentary system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is a protein that makes up the inelastic fibers of tendons and ligaments.
Q5) Patients who have limited mobility and are restricted to bed are at risk of developing a(n) __________ as a result of ischemia over bony prominences.
Q6) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about lead II?
A) It is recorded as the rhythm strip on a cardiac monitor.
B) It records tracings between the left arm and left leg.
C) It records tracings between the left and right arms.
D) It records the electrical activity of the posterior right ventricle.
Q2) The most distal portions of the electrical system of the myocardium are the
Q3) Documentation for an ECG should include whether the patient smoked a cigarette within 15 minutes of the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
Q5) The T wave indicates ventricular recovery, or __________, of the ventricles.
Q6) The __________ control(s) the rate of heart contraction by initiating contractions 60 to 100 times a minute.
A) AV node
B) SA node
C) bundle of His
D) Purkinje fibers
Q7) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential formation of cataracts is a concern for radiographers who work extensively with fluoroscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding placement of a gonad shield on a female patient?
A) Required on patients over the age of 55
B) Placed with its lower margin at the level of the pubic symphysis
C) Positioned with its upper margin about 1 inch below the pubic symphysis
D) Only used when gonads are within the primary radiation field
E) Both A and B
Q3) You have a patient scheduled for an MRI. What should you include in the patient education?
A) It cannot be done if the patient is allergic to iodine.
B) The MRI uses advanced radiation technology to provide the physician with a multiple view of the area.
C) A very loud tapping noise is heard throughout the procedure.
D) The patient does not have to enter the machine, unlike with a CT scan.
Q4) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective means of preventing infection is the repeated, thorough hand washing or sanitization of the hands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pledge of healthcare professionals to work to achieve the highest degree of excellence in the care given to every patient is otherwise known as A) chain of custody.
B) quality assurance.
C) quality control.
D) incident reporting.
Q3) Categories of tests performed in the clinical laboratory are assigned by the FDA on the basis of the A) potential risk to public health. B) expense to the patient.
C) ease of performance.
D) instrumentation and supplies needed.
Q4) Summarize methods that can be used to prevent physical hazards in the clinical laboratory.
Q5) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A random urine sample may contain blood from vaginal contamination if the woman is ______________.
Q2) The specific gravity of a urine specimen reads 1.035. This value is considered
A) abnormally high.
B) abnormally low.
C) normal.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following casts always indicate a pathologic condition and are highly diagnostic?
A) Hyaline casts
B) White blood cell casts
C) Red blood cell casts
D) Renal tubular epithelial cell casts
E) Granular casts
Q4) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Q5) The reagent strip is highly sensitive to
A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) urinary albumin.
D) mucoproteins.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needle safety devices has a spring-activated shield attached to a disposable syringe needle?
A) One-handed Vacutainer needle
B) Butterfly needle safety lock
C) Syringe needle safety device
D) Push button butterfly safety device
E) Needle blunting butterfly set
Q2) Which is the proper technique for performing a venipuncture?
A) The needle bevel is face up, and the needle is inserted at a 15-degree angle.
B) The needle bevel is face down, and the needle is inserted at a 15- to 30-degree angle.
C) The needle bevel can be oriented in either direction, but the needle must be inserted at a low angle.
D) The needle bevel is face up, and the needle is inserted at a 20- to 30-degree angle.
Q3) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Q4) Securing a patient in a blood collection chair helps prevent injuries if the patient experiences ____________.
Q5) List the information required on the laboratory requisition.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) AST and ALT testing is done to monitor potential liver damage in patients receiving statin drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood type O is considered the "universal donor," because no anti-A or anti-B antibodies are found in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A blood test that analyzes the ability of the kidneys to perform their function is the A) albumin levels.
B) BUN.
C) FBS.
D) GTT.
Q4) Granular leukocytes
A) have granules in the nucleus of the cell.
B) function primarily in the plasma.
C) act as phagocytes.
D) All of the above
Q5) A(n) ____________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasmas have more PG in their cell walls than any other pathogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ are members of a class of invertebrate animals that includes insects, crustaceans, and arachnids.
Q3) A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.
Q4) Negative rapid strep test results must be confirmed with a throat culture, because the rapid strep test is highly specific but not highly sensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A gram-positive cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan with no lipid layer surrounding it.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) After instruments have been immersed in a chemical sterilizing agent, they should be rinsed with sterile water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One method of controlling epistaxis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ethyl chloride is a topical anesthetic spray that acts as a vapocoolant to control pain associated with minor surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A trocar is placed within a(n) __________ to drain fluid.
Q5) Choose the smallest diameter of a suture strand.
A) 0
B) 5-0
C) 5
D) 1-0
Q6) Explain the system for identifying suture sizes.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Very low temperatures are used in __________ to destroy tissue by freezing it on contact.
Q2) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the __________ phase of wound healing, collagen closes the gap between tissues and scar tissue forms.
Q4) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the wound outward.
Q5) Sterilization __________ placed in the center of a large pack are the best indicators of proper sterilization in an autoclave.
Q6) A(n) __________ wound is infected with pathogens.
Q7) The LEEP excisional procedure is considered which of the following?
A) Electrosurgery
B) Laser surgery
C) Microsurgery
D) Endoscopy
E) Cryosurgery
Q8) Explain the preoperative instructions for a patient having surgery. Page 52
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should make the résumé as general as possible so that it will fit a multitude of job opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the best action to take if an employer asks you whether you are married?
A) Advise him or her that it is illegal to ask this question.
B) Ignore the question by pretending you did not hear it.
C) Politely ask the interviewer whether you can respond to questions that relate directly to the job.
D) Answer it truthfully, because you are required to do so.
Q3) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True B)False
Q4) "Having a clear, decisive relevance to the matter at hand" is the definition of subtle. A)True
B)False
Q5) Medical assistants must evaluate their own __________ and weaknesses.
Q6) __________ is reading and marking corrections.
Page 54
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