Introduction to Health Professions Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the diverse fields within the health professions, introducing students to various healthcare roles, responsibilities, and work environments. Topics include the history and evolution of healthcare, the education and skills required for different health careers, professional ethics, cultural competence, interprofessional teamwork, and current trends and challenges in healthcare. Through interactive discussions, guest speakers, and career exploration activities, students gain insights into potential career paths and develop a foundational understanding of the vital contributions health professionals make to individual and community well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
1893 Verified Questions
1893 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the reason a medical assistant should ensure good personal hygiene?
A)Demonstrate a professional appearance
B)Protect clothing from materials
C)Protect patients from dirty clothes
D)Minimize body injury
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following attributes of a medical assistant does NOT identify a true professional?
A)Dependability
B)Empathy
C)Ability to communicate
D)Inflexibility
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following does a license do?
A)Protects the practitioner from lawsuits
B)Indicates that a student has completed his practicum.
C)Defines scope of practice
D)Indicates that a student meets the criteria outlined in the CARE bill
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Medical Laboratory Technologist is credentialed by the A)CAAHEP
B)ABHES
C)ASCP
D)NCCPA
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following does NOT apply to the role of a medical assistant?
A)Performing a venipuncture
B)Interpreting diagnostic images
C)Insurance coding and billing
D)Administering an injection
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a true statement of nurses' education?
A)Nurses are licensed by the state in which they practice.
B)Nursing students complete a minimum of a 4-year course of study at a state-approved school of nursing.
C)Training is oriented to bedside care.
D)CAAHEP is not responsible for nurse education and accreditation.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these traits are least likely to make a person vulnerable to burnout?
A)Poor social support networks
B)Perfectionist
C)Planner
D)Poorly nourishment
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following goals are focused and have precise boundaries?
A)Specific goals
B)Attainable goals
C)Measured goals
D)Realistic goals
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following best describes one of the illnesses associated with longer-duration stress?
A)Fainting
B)Headache
C)Dyspnea
D)Panic attacks
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the person who decodes the message?
A)Sender
B)Message
C)Receiver
D)Messenger
Q2) After the physician tells Mrs.James that it is too soon to fill her pain medication, she leaves the office, slamming the door behind her.
A) denial
B) displacement
C) repression
D) projection
E) rationalization
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the Cs of communication?
A)Complete
B)Clear
C)Current
D)Concise
E)Cohesive
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an Asian expression of pain?
A)General terms of relating the imbalance of the body
B)Descriptive words such as piercing or throbbing
C)Description of disturbances of the mind
D)Describing pain on a scale of 1 to 10
Q2) used in making end-of-life decisions to prolong life
A) living will or health care directive
B) durable power of attorney for health care
C) both
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate issue to discuss with patients facing a life-threatening illness?
A)Alternative methods of treatment
B)Health care directive and durable power of attorney
C)Planning for friends' needs
D)Discussing personal finances
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a definition of a life-threatening illness?
A)Terminal illness
B)Death imminent
C)Disease causing shorter lifespan
D)Any acute disease
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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following best describes an example of an incompetent party in a contract?
A)Person with a terminal illness
B)Person over 100 years of age
C)Person under the influence of narcotics or alcohol
D)Person who is legally sane
Q2) Which of the following best describes the tort applicable to the unauthorized release of patient information?
A)Battery
B)Libel
C)Invasion of privacy
D)Slander
Q3) Any individual who administers, prescribes, or dispenses any controlled substance is required to register with which of the following?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Internal Revenue Service
C)Medicare Audit System
D)Drug Enforcement Administration
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8
Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Q1) pushing, pinching, force-feeding, and shaking.
A) neglect
B) physical
C) emotional/psychological
D) sexual
E) financial
F) sexual exploitation
G) incest
Q2) At the last moment before surgery, a provider enlists another surgeon to operate without the patient' s knowledge and consent.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q3) Female Genital Mutilation
A)no longer occurs.
B)has no side effects.
C)can cause infections and pregnancy complications.
D)is legal in the United States.
Q4) A provider charges a patient for multiple or complex insurance forms.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following accredited programs must medical assistants be certified in CPR to a provider level and taught by instructors who are certified to teach CPR?
A)CAAHEP and ABHES
B)AAMA
C)AMA
D)None of the above
Q2) What is the first and most critical step in responding to an emergency in an ambulatory care emergency situation?
A)Give first aid.
B)Notify the provider.
C)Evaluate the causes.
D)Recognize when emergency measures should be taken.
Q3) Which of the following body areas would be more suited to a spiral bandage for wounds or injuries?
A)Arms or legs
B)Wrist or knee
C)Neck and shoulder
D)Hands, fingers, or toes
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10
Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how much of a provider's time will be spent treating the elderly by 2020?
A)50 percent
B)75 percent
C)25 percent
D)40 percent
Q2) Which of the following does proper seating placement in a reception area respect?
(For example, some people do not like to be touched by strangers.)
A)Cultural biases
B)Prejudices
C)Comfort
D)Security
Q3) Which of the following is the most effective way to check a room's readiness for a patient?
A)Check all the supplies.
B)Place yourself in the room as a patient.
C)Ask the patient whether the room is comfortable.
D)Dust and clean the room daily.
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11
Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Sample Questions
Q1) printer
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four fundamental elements of all computer systems?
A)Central processing unit (CPU)
B)Output devices
C)Site license
D)Input devices
E)Software
Q3) mouse
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q4) standard telephone modem (dial-up)
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the act of evaluating the urgency of a medical situation and prioritizing treatment?
A)Listening
B)Screening
C)Empathy
D)Fluency
Q2) Which of the following is a way by which first impressions are conveyed?
A)Body posture
B)Body language
C)Facial expressions
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a communication problem associated with the elderly?
A)Impaired hearing
B)Inability to understand new procedures
C)Inability to move quickly
D)Confusion
Q4) STAT Report
A) medical assistant
B) provider
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the purpose of screening?
A)Evaluate patients when they come to the office for a routine visit.
B)Determine urgency of call and care needed.
C)Arrange all patients in schedule as soon as possible.
D)Allow emergency patients only for same-day appointments.
Q2) What is the purpose of analyzing patient flow and the compiled data?
A)To determine whether office personnel are being used efficiently
B)To obtain a clear picture of patient flow
C)To estimate how many patients to schedule in a time frame
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes one of the patients' most frequently voiced frustrations with medical clinics?
A)Providers cancel appointments too frequently.
B)Medical assistants are often abrupt and discourteous.
C)Patients have excessive waiting times.
D)Patients are too often not diagnosed correctly.
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Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When traditional paper-based charts are used, HIPAA compliance mandates no identifiable patient information should be located on the outside of the chart.This information includes all of the following except:
A)Social security number
B)Date of birth
C)Address
D)All of the above information should not be placed on the outside of the chart
Q2) preserves patient confidentiality
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate format for a patient's name on a medical chart?
A)Nickname
B)Legal name
C)Last name, first name
D)Abbreviation
Q4) used when a limited number of files is accessed
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
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Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many incorrect punctuation marks are in the letter?
A)None
B)Two
C)Five
D)Four
Q2) Which of the following procedures is NOT followed after the mail is opened?
A)Stamp to indicate date received.
B)Attach the envelope to the letter.
C)Give the envelope with contents in it to the physician.
D)If the address is not included on the letter, write it on.
Q3) Which of the following copy notations should the writer include at the bottom of a letter to send a copy of the letter to another individual with the recipient's knowledge?
A)sig
B)Enc
C)c:
D)P.S.
Q4) larynx
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is NOT considered an advantage of outsourcing medical transcription?
A)Frees administrative and support personnel to complete other tasks
B)Frees floor space used to support line-item expense
C)Outsourcing companies work 8 hours a day
D)Saves on costly employee benefit packages
Q2) patient's history of hospital admissions
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
Q3) Which specialized report is also known as a necropsy report?
A)Radiology report
B)Pathology report
C)Autopsy report
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the employer operates its own health plan instead of purchasing a plan from an insurance company to cover its employees, what type of plan are they utilizing?
A)Blue Cross/Blue Shield
B)HMO
C)Self-Funded Health Care
D)Workers' Compensation
Q2) When a person has both Medicare and Medicaid insurance, charges are submitted first to:
A)Medicare, then last to Medicaid
B)Medicaid only
C)Medicaid, then to Medicare
D)You can not have both Medicare and Medicaid insurances at the same time
Q3) Dr.Chad is a participating provider in Medicare.Does this mean Dr.Chad will accept assignment and what percent of the allowed amount?
A)Yes, 80%
B)Yes, 100%
C)No, 0%
D)None of the above
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18
Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HCPCS code range for mental health services is:
A)H0001-H2037
B)M codes
C)D codes
D)P2028-P9615
Q2) Which of the following organizations developed ICD-10-CM in 1992?
A)American Medical Association
B)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
C)World Health Organization
D)Health Care Financing Administration
Q3) Separating the components of a procedure and reporting them as billable codes with charges in order to increase reimbursement rates is known as what?
A)Upcoding
B)Unbundling
C)Bundling
D)Downcoding
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a procedural step when disbursing the petty cash funds?
A)Sort all vouchers by account.
B)List all accounts involved.
C)Total vouchers for each account.
D)Write a check to replace funds.
E)Add receipts to original petty cash amount
Q2) Which of the following is used to reconcile a bank statement?
A)Daily cash
B)Daily income
C)Accounts receivable
D)Depositor's checkbook
Q3) Which of the following best classifies the adjustment column in the accounting process and its effect on the balance due?
A)Credit column; increases balance
B)Debit column; decreases balance
C)Neutral; no change to balance
D)Debit column; increases balance
E)Credit column; decreases balance
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation. Consumer Credit Protection Act
A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections
B) shows installment payments and interest agreements
C) bankruptcy laws
Q2) Which of the following questions would NOT be helpful in developing a credit and collection policy?
A)What kind of payment arrangements can be made if the patient does not pay at the time of service?
B)How would a reminder initially be managed: by telephone, by a note on the statement, or by letter?
C)At what point will a patient's bill be considered delinquent?
D)What is the most convenient time of the month for patients to make a payment?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common problem affecting collections?
A)Estates
B)Bankruptcies
C)Skips
D)Divorces
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21
Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Which would NOT be considered part of the ledger or journal entry?
A)Date of transaction
B)Account names involved
C)Dollar amount of charges
D)Total receipts
Q2) Which of the following accounting systems utilizes "no carbon required" forms that are layered?
A)Single entry
B)Double entry
C)Pegboard
D)Computerized
Q3) What is created by totaling debit balances and credit balances to confirm that total debits equal total credits?
A)Trial balance
B)Balance sheet
C)Accounts payable
D)Ledger statement
Q4) loan payment
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) touching
A) blood-borne
B) inhalation
C) ingestion
D) direct contact
E) vector
Q2) infected blood
A) blood-borne
B) inhalation
C) ingestion
D) direct contact
E) vector
Q3) Which of the following links in the infection cycle would be broken by cleansing and sterilization?
A)Portal of exit
B)Portal of entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Infectious agent
E)Susceptible host
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action in order to make a correction when an error has been made in the chart?
A)Cover with Wite-Out®, write over it, and initial and date it.
B)Erase the error and correct it.
C)Scribble out the error and write above it.
D)Draw a single line through the error.Write the correct entry and put initials and date.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about interviewing?
A)Do not worry about comfort level.
B)Allow the patient to tell anecdotes.
C)Do not waste time explaining terms or concepts.
D)Guide the conversation and keep it on track.
Q3) plan
A) weigh subjective and objective findings
B) vital signs
C) symptoms and patient's complaint
D) further tests and treatment
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Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following phases of Korotkoff's sounds is noted when the cuff deflates and the sounds are muffled and fading.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important action when taking an axillary temperature?
A)Have the patient fold the arm against the chest.
B)Leave the thermometer in place according to manufacturer's instructions
C)Use powder to dry the axilla.
D)Use a disposable protective sheath.
Q3) Which pulse site is the most commonly used site for obtaining a pulse rate?
A)Carotid
B)Brachial
C)Temporal
D)Radial
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25
Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) used for abdominal examinations
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an equipment item or supply item necessary for the provider to perform an examination of the female genitalia and rectum?
A)Examination light
B)Vaginal speculum
C)Percussion hammer
D)Slides for occult blood
Q3) used primarily for proctologic and sigmoid examinations and procedures
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
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Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) amniocentesis
A) produces an image of the fetus
B) takes a sample of tissue
C) used to rule out neural tube defects
D) takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E) aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels
Q2) Which of the following positions is NOT used during a complete gynecological examination?
A)Sitting
B)Supine
C)Dorsal recumbent
D)Prone
E)Lithotomy
Q3) When should a breast self-examination be performed?
A)During monthly menses
B)Just before menses
C)Seven days after menses
D)Five days after menses
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27
Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) Which of the following is a serious chronic respiratory disease of children?
A)Otitis media
B)Tonsillitis
C)Chickenpox
D)Asthma
E)Frequent colds
Q2) Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a self-limiting viral illness that requires no treatment and usually resolves in:
A)1 week
B)2-4 weeks
C)7-10 days
D)21 days
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for polio?
A)DPT
B)IPV
C)HiB
D)HBV
E)Varicella
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Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following carries spermatozoa to the ejaculatory duct?
A)Vas deferens
B)Prostate
C)Urethra
D)Ureter
Q2) Which of the following is the correct definition for the term nocturia?
A)Wet dream
B)Night sweats
C)Difficulty sleeping due to frequent urination
D)Frequent urination
Q3) Which of the following is a surgery to excise the testicle?
A)Anorchism
B)Orchiectomy
C)Cryptorchidism
D)Hydrocele
Q4) Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A)Epididymis
B)Testes
C)Vas deferens
D)Corpus luteum
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) lack of supervision
A) psychological
B) physical
Q2) Parkinson's disease, syphilis, and Huntington's disease are known to cause what condition?
A)Dementia
B)STD
C)Dizziness
D)Decreased heartbeat
Q3) longing for death
A) psychological
B) physical
Q4) Which of the following messages is interpreted by the visually impaired patient when the guiding person's arm moves behind the back?
A)Walk faster.
B)Get ready to sit.
C)Turn in the direction the arm moves.
D)Coming to a narrow passage.
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease caused by blocked sebaceous glands?
A)Dermatitis
B)Eczema
C)Acne
D)Impetigo
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common ear condition?
A)Otitis media
B)Otitis externa
C)Ménière's disease
D)Conjunctivitis
Q3) rickets
A) urinary
B) digestive
C) sensory
D) circulatory
E) musculoskeletal
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31
Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) Do not cough, talk, or sneeze over a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q2) is applied directly to the wound
A) dressing
B) bandage
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a way anesthesia can be used?
A)Sprayed
B)Chewed
C)Inhaled
D)Topically
Q4) Reach slowly and carefully over the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is the smallest suture size?
A)0
B)1
C)1-0
D)6-0
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following x-ray equipment is not protected by lead?
A)Control panel
B)Tube
C)Table
D)All are protected
Q2) Which of the following is a superior procedure for visualizing the brain?
A)PET scan
B)CT scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
E)Fluoroscopy
Q3) A noninvasive technique used to evaluate blood flow through the major arteries and veins of the neck, arms, and legs is known as what?
A)Cardiac ultrasound
B)Doppler ultrasonography
C)MRI
D)CT
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) For what type of patient is the platform crutch used?
A)Cannot bear weight on hands
B)Has excessive arm strength
C)Needs them short term
D)Adaptability to stairs is not needed
E)Patients who request them
Q2) Which of the following refers to moving a body part outward?
A)Circumduction
B)Eversion
C)Inversion
D)Abduction
Q3) Which type of assistive device provides maximum assistance with balance and coordination, as well as stability and support, when the patient is standing or walking?
A)Walkers
B)Canes
C)Quad canes
D)Crutches
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34
Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the action of the two minerals sodium and potassium?
A)Catalysts
B)Coenzymes
C)Water soluble
D)Electrolytes
Q2) Southeast Asian
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a stage of life in which individuals experience the greatest levels of growth and the need for total nutrients is greater at this stage?
A)Pregnancy
B)Infancy
C)Adolescence
D)Elderly
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35
Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the use of intravenous medication usually indicated?
A)When medications need to be effective quickly
B)When the action will be long acting
C)When the patient cannot take tablets or pills
D)When no other form of the drug is available
E)When the action desired is specific to the respiratory tract
Q2) The physician wants to prescribe an agent that causes sleep.Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A)Sedative, phenobarbital
B)Tranquilizer, Haldol
C)Sedative, Haldol
D)Narcotic, codeine
E)Hypnotic, Seconal
Q3) Computerized software can do all of the following EXCEPT what?
A)Keep track of the DEA renewal date
B)Keep track of expiration dates
C)Keep inventories of all drugs
D)Keep track of the number of drugs prescribed
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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When filling out a prescription, what does the signature (sig) mean?
A)Doctor's signature
B)Gives directions to the patient
C)Name and quantity of ingredients
D)None of the above
Q2) What type of insulin delivery device uses high-pressure air to send a fine mist of insulin through the skin?
A)Insulin pen
B)Insulin pump
C)Tuberculin syringe
D)Jet injector
Q3) Which of the following best describes the units-100 syringe?
A)Each mark equals 100 units.
B)It is marked in units of 10.
C)There are 100 units per ml.
D)All the above.
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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the lead that records electrical activity between the right arm and the left leg?
A)Lead I
B)AVL
C)AVF
D)Lead II
E)Lead III
Q2) Which of the following is an important part of the patient education when preparing a patient to wear a Holter monitor?
A)Wear it even in the shower for an accurate reading.
B)Remove the recorder from its case.
C)Keep a diary of the times of all symptomatic activities and emotions.
D)Depress the event marker every hour on the half hour.
Q3) Where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Pulmonary vein
C)Right atrium
D)Right ventricle
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The federal agency that defines and classifies chemical hazards and communicates around the world for health and safety is known as the
A)GHS
B)CDC
C)CMS
D)OSHA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT performed in the quality-control protocol for automated hematology instruments?
A)Control samples
B)Calibration
C)Proficiency testing
D)PPMP
Q3) no moderate complexity tests are performed by the provider
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for identification of bacteria and fungi?
A)Chemistry
B)Immunohematology
C)Microbiology
D)Hematology
Q2) Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
A)Decrease magnification
B)Scatter light rays throughout the field
C)Multiply ocular lens magnification
D)Visualize all objects in the field
Q3) Which of the following tests would NOT be covered by insurance if the patient's diagnosis was "Urinary Tract Infection"?
A)Urine dipstick
B)Urine culture
C)Glucose tolerance test
D)None of the above
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the steps of blood clotting in correct sequence as it occurs.? 1.calcium utilized
4.fibrinogen converts to fibrin?
2)clot forms5.prothrombin converts to thrombin?
3)uncoagulated blood
A)3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B)3, 1, 4, 5, 2
C)2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D)3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Q2) Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?
A)Blood from arterioles
B)Blood from venules
C)Interstitial fluid
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes an advantage of a soft rubber tourniquet?
A)Inexpensive enough to replace often
B)Hard and plastic
C)Cannot be cleaned easily
D)Expensive but long lasting
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of blood is used for the microhematocrit test?
A)Arterial
B)Capillary
C)Capillary and arterial
D)None of the above
Q2) normochromatic
A) Cells show marked variation in shape.
B) Cells show marked variation in size.
C) Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin.
D) Cells have large, pale central area.
Q3) How can the WBC count be estimated when performing the microhematocrit test?
A)Cannot be estimated
B)Measured at the bottom of the tube
C)By measuring buffy coat thickness
D)By the amount of plasma and platelets
Q4) Oxygenated hemoglobin is what color?
A)Dark red
B)Bright red
C)Blue
D)Yellow
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range of urine specific gravity?
A)1.000-1.003
B)1.001-1.003
C)1.005-1.030
D)1.035-1.35
Q2) When you take the specimen from Mrs.Ferguson and examine it for color, it is amber and cloudy.Which of the following best describes the appearance and composition of the urine?
A)Dilute; normal
B)Concentrated; has white blood cells
C)Dilute; has white blood cells
D)Concentrated; has red blood cells
Q3) Near the end of the blood's journey through the kidney, in which area are the other substances that have not already been filtered secreted into the urine?
A)Glomerulus
B)Proximal convoluted tubule
C)Henle's loop
D)Distal convoluted tubule
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of a quality control program in microbiology?
A)Monitor all equipment with temperature controls daily.
B)Do not use media past the shelf life.
C)Update the laboratory manual daily.
D)Make the SDS available to reference.
Q2) When a patient has a bacterial infection that is not responding to the antibiotic, what test might the physician order?
A)Differential stain
B)C & S
C)KOH
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following terms best describes infections acquired in hospitals?
A)Floral
B)Bacterial
C)Serratia
D)Nosocomial
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT refer to Prothrombin time?
A)INR
B)Protime
C)PT
D)PTT
Q2) Why is a phenylalanine-restricted diet important?
A)It will cure the underlying condition.
B)It will prevent the need for special dieting.
C)It will prevent mental retardation.
D)It is a high protein diet.
Q3) Which test measures the concentration of urea in the blood?
A)PKU
B)TB
C)EIA
D)BUN
Q4) What is the age group in which symptoms of IM are most often observed?
A)10-15 years
B)12-20 years
C)15-25 years
D)15-40 years
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstorming process?
A)Everyone contributes ideas for a solution.
B)All of the possible solutions are reviewed for workability.
C)Solutions are prioritized.
D)A needs assessment is performed.
E)One person is assigned to implement a solution.
Q2) adjusting vacation schedules
A) personnel data
B) medical records
C) employee time sheets
D) financial and billing reports
E) equipment and supplies requests and inventory data
F) staffing requirements and appointment schedules
Q3) Which of the following would most likely NOT be included on an office brochure designed to welcome a new patient to the practice?
A)History of the practice
B)Financial policies
C)Acceptable insurance plans
D)Scheduling policies
E)Map and directions
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generation Y (also known as the Millennial generation) was born between the years of:
A)1954-1977
B)1977-1994
C)1995-2012
D)1966-1976
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important aspect of the exit interview:
A)It is usually not necessary
B)It is an opportunity for the voluntary separation employee to discuss positive and negative aspects of the job
C)The voluntary separation employee may ask for a letter of reference
D)The voluntary separation employee may discuss changes that can be made for the incoming employee
Q3) All information collected on an unsuccessful applicant should be kept for:
A)A minimum of 6 months
B)1 week
C)1 month
D)3 months
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Q1) Which of the following is the minimum number of years of work experience in the profession of medical assisting without formal training required for eligibility to sit for the Registered Medical Assistant examination?
A)2 years
B)3 years
C)5 years
D)7 years
Q2) Which of the following best describes the purpose of certification for medical assistants?
A)To set a standard for clinical practice
B)To set a standard for evaluating an individual's professional competence
C)To set a standard for all schools
D)To set a standard for providers
Q3) Which of the following organization awards the Certified Medical Administrative Assistant credential?
A)American Association of Medical Assistants
B)National Healthcareer Association
C)American Medical Technologists
D)Committee on Accreditation of Health Education Programs
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the type of résumé advantageous for an applicant whose work experience has been volunteer or freelance?
A)Targeted
B)Functional
C)Chronological
Q2) Facebook is used by what percentage of recruiters?
A)50
B)65
C)75
D)90
Q3) Which of the following best describes the type of résumé that is advantageous when an applicant's job history shows real growth and development and prior titles are important?
A)Targeted
B)Functional
C)Chronological
Q4) developed
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
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