Introduction to Health Professions
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Health Professions provides students with an overview of the diverse fields within the healthcare industry, including medicine, nursing, dentistry, pharmacy, public health, and allied health sciences. The course explores the roles, responsibilities, and educational pathways of various health professionals, as well as the interdisciplinary nature of healthcare delivery. Students will examine current trends, professional ethics, and the impact of cultural, social, and economic factors on healthcare. Through case studies, guest speakers, and interactive discussions, the course prepares students to make informed decisions about pursuing a career in the health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Delmars Administrative Medical Assisting 5th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Q1) Which of the following will keep the medical assistant current in knowledge in the years to come and will serve as testimony of a commitment to professionalism?
A) Dependability
B) Initiative
C) Continuing education
D) Empathy
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following organizations allows one to use the initials CMA (AAMA),which are awarded upon successful completion of their credentialing examination?
A) AMT
B) CAAHEP
C) AMA
D) AAMA
Answer: D
Q3) Registration
A)voluntary
B)mandatory
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Q1) treats disorders of the ear,nose,and throat
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an eye specialist?
A) Ophthalmologist
B) Orthopedist
C) Otolaryngologist
Answer: A
Q3) A nurse practitioner is a registered nurse with an advanced education and clinical experience in a branch of nursing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: History of Medicine
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Q1) performed first successful open heart surgery
A)Fleming
B)Morton
C)Barnard
D)Lillehei
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following did the ancient Chinese cultures examine and carefully monitor because they believed the characteristics were important in medical treatment?
A) Respirations
B) Pulse
C) Temperature
D) Blood pressure
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a change that should take place after you have entered the burnout stage?
A) Change the computer desktop picture.
B) Think of the glass as half empty, instead of half full.
C) Make a concerted effort to say "No" to additional work.
D) Establish some long- and short-term realistic goals.
Q2) Focus on team-building skills.
A)long-term goal
B)short-term goal
Q3) Become proficient in all back office clinical skills during the first year of employment.
A)long-term goal
B)short-term goal
Q4) Which of the following goals are focused and have precise boundaries?
A) Specific goals
B) Attainable goals
C) Measured goals
D) Realistic goals
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Chapter 5: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Q1) Which of the following is the person who decodes the message?
A) Sender
B) Message
C) Receiver
D) Messenger
Q2) A father who abuses his child might accuse the medical assistant of being too rough with the child while performing a patient assessment.
A)denial
B)displacement
C)repression
D)projection
E)rationalization
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the Cs of communication?
A) Complete
B) Clear
C) Current
D) Concise
E) Cohesive
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Chapter 6: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With
Life-Threatening
Illness
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic action of the medical assistant when a patient is estranged from his family?
A) Notify the patient's family.
B) Notify the patient's friends.
C) Give the patient referral for a local support group.
D) Develop a personal friendship with the patient.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an expected patient response to the news of a life-threatening illness?
A) Acts as if the information has never been shared with them
B) Drastically changes priorities
C) Becomes happy and tells family and friends
D) Quietly continue their lives, changing little outwardly
Q3) mandated by the Patient Self-Determination Act to be made available to patients
A)living will or health care directive
B)durable power of attorney for health care
C)both
Q4) used in making end-of-life decisions to prolong life
A)living will or health care directive
B)durable power of attorney for health care
C)both
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Chapter 7: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Mrs.Love is being prepared for surgery to remove a brain tumor.The neurosurgeon has described the location of the tumor and how he plans to remove it.He discusses the duration of the surgery and the type of anesthesia.He has explained there is no other alternative method to this treatment and also explained that chemotherapy and radiation usually follow surgery.He explained if no surgery is done,the tumor will spread and be fatal.What part of informed consent was omitted from this explanation?
A) Nature of procedure and how it will be performed
B) Possible risks and the expected outcomes
C) Any other methods of treatment and those risks
D) Risks if no treatment is given
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A) Former abusers of drugs/alcohol cannot be denied employment.
B) Disabled individuals are allowed access to public services.
C) Persons with HIV/AIDS cannot be refused medical treatment by health professionals because of their health status.
D) The law applies to all businesses.
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Chapter 8: Ethical Considerations
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Q1) fondling,touching,kissing without permission,and coerced nudity
A)neglect
B)physical
C)emotional/psychological
D)sexual
E)financial
F)sexual exploitation
G)incest
Q2) Physicians have the right to refuse to participate in abortions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which the ovum is fertilized in a culture dish,allowed to grow,and then implanted into the uterus is known as which of the following?
A) Surrogacy
B) In vitro fertilization
C) In vitro insemination
D) Ovulation
Q4) In an abuse case,the provider treats the "abuser" as a victim also.
A)ethical
B)unethical
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Chapter 9: Emergency Procedures and First AID
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provider level CPR and basic first aid are a requirement for medical assistants to graduate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) occurs with a severe twisting action,causes break to wind around bone
A)greenstick
B)simple
C)compound
D)comminuted
E)Colles
F)depressed
G)spiral
H)impacted
Q3) Which of the following is most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation?
A) Act when transportation is available.
B) Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation.
C) Act after the provider tells you to do so.
D) Act only in emergency situations in the medical office.
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Chapter 10: Creating the Facility Environment
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the services of the office,the function of medical staff members,measures to take in case of an emergency,and other issues that patients may need to consider?
A) Textbook
B) Sign
C) News item
D) Brochure
Q2) When should the receptionist or administrative medical assistant arrive to open the facility?
A) Same time as the first patient arrives
B) Five minutes before the first patient arrives
C) Twenty minutes before the first patient arrives
D) One hour before the first patient arrives
Q3) Which of the following best describes where patients may feel most comfortable discussing conditions,procedures,or treatments?
A) Providers's office
B) Reception area
C) Examination room
D) Laboratory area
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Computers in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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Q1) prevents employees from opening e-mail from unknown sources
A)firewall
B)data management
C)data backup
D)training
Q2) When in the exam room,which of the following is important to remember when entering patient information onto the computer?
A) Have patient sit so he can also view the monitor.
B) Keep your eyes focused on the computer at all times.
C) Position the patient to prevent him from viewing the monitor.
D) None of the above.
Q3) Which of the following must be installed on the computer or provided by the operating system to convert data output from one device into a format compatible with another device?
A) Server
B) Driver
C) Printer
D) Mouse
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Chapter 12: Telecommunications
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Q1) According to telephone courtesies,when is it acceptable to place a patient on hold?
A) When it is an urgent call
B) When it is an emergency only
C) When you have the patient's name and why they are calling
D) Anytime, without asking and receiving permission to do so
Q2) insurance information
A)medical assistant
B)provider
Q3) Which of the following telephone courtesies should be used while on the telephone with a patient?
A) Use jargon.
B) Use common terms.
C) Use slang.
D) Never use caller's name.
Q4) pharmaceutical sale representative
A)medical assistant
B)provider
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Chapter 13: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a typical office policy concerning no-shows?
A) Automatically send a letter to the patient with instructions to transfer to a new provider.
B) Automatically send a warning letter to the patient that provider's services may be terminated.
C) Have the provider review the patient's record after a certain number of incidences.
D) Call and inform the patient that the provider's services are terminated and not to call for future appointments.
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when there are delays in the physician's schedule?
A) Notify patients when there will be more than a 45-minute wait.
B) Notify patients when there is an emergency only, because physician will catch up.
C) Offer to cancel and let them call for another appointment.
D) Give patients an estimate of delay and options to deal with delay.
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15
Chapter 14: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a coding system NOT commonly used in ambulatory care centers?
A) Alphabetic
B) Geographic
C) Numeric
D) Subject
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT best describe the importance of accurate medical records?
A) They are essential to patient care.
B) They assist in controlling the costs of medical care.
C) They may be released without a patient's knowledge.
D) They are needed to provide referrals.
E) They maintain a conscientious record of patient care.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of electronic medical records?
A) Multiple users are possible.
B) Office storage is not required.
C) On-site assistance may be required.
D) Patterns and data are more easily accessed.
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Chapter 15: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cloud computing offers which of the following benefits?
A) Documents no longer need to be transferred from author to another.
B) Documents can be viewed by anyone.
C) Documents can be viewed by anyone with a password.
D) Both A and C.
Q2) larynx
A)spelled correctly
B)spelled incorrectly
Q3) ][
A)align type horizontally
B)center
C)move left
D)insert
E)insert space
F)paragraph indent
Q4) Meeting minutes should contain all of the following except what?
A) Kind of meeting
B) Who officiated at the meeting
C) Name of association
D) Reports of officers, boards, and standing committees
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Chapter 16: Medical Documents
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Q1) Today MTs may be more involved with all of the following EXCEPT?
A) Quality assurance (QA)
B) Risk management
C) Editing documents
D) Dictating medical information
Q2) In order for other providers,attorneys,or insurance companies to review medical reports,all of the following must be done EXCEPT what on all medical reports in the patient's medical record?
A) Must be scanned
B) Must be neat
C) Must be complete
D) Must be accurate
Q3) The MT profession is represented by which of the following organizations?
A) AAMA
B) AMT
C) AAMT
D) AMA
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Medical Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following is medical insurance for the spouse and unmarried dependent children of a veteran with permanent total disability resulting from a service-related injury?
A) Medicaid
B) Workers' Compensation
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
Q2) Which of the following is known as the fee system that defines allowable charges that will be accepted by insurance carriers?
A) VCR
B) FCR
C) UCR
D) TCR
Q3) The amount of money that the insured must incur for medical services before the policy begins to pay is known as what?
A) Co-insurance
B) Co-pay
C) Deductible
D) Coordination of benefits
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Medical Insurance Coding
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Q1) Which of the following should be used to check for patient eligibility?
A) Point-of-service device
B) Claims register
C) Universal claim form
D) Explanation of benefits
Q2) Which of the following occurs when the insurance carrier is deliberately billed a higher rate service than what was performed to order for the provider to obtain greater reimbursements?
A) Upcoding
B) Bundling
C) Downcoding
D) Unbundling
Q3) Which of the following is recommended to do first when a claim is not paid within 4-6 weeks?
A) Allow the carrier 30 days more to pay the claim.
B) Check the carrier's regulations for payment.
C) Call the insurance carrier and ask about the delay.
D) Resubmit the claim.
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Chapter 19: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a recommended rule in a manual bookkeeping system?
A) Use a consistent black or blue ink color.
B) Write neatly and clearly, forming numbers carefully.
C) Align columns carefully using paper with grid lines.
D) If a mistake is found, cover up by using Wite-Out.
E) Be careful when placing or carrying decimal points.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the ABN form?
A) Must be in writing
B) Must indicate the type of procedure(s)
C) Must include the final cost
D) Must include the reason the patient is responsible
Q3) In the case of divorced parents and blended families,which parent is considered to be the guarantor and is responsible for payment?
A) Father
B) Parent with physical custody
C) Mother
D) Parent with the earliest birth date
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Chapter 20: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which of the following is a recommended method used to figure the accounts receivable ratio?
A) Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average monthly accounts payable.
B) Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average monthly gross charges.
C) Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average weekly charges.
D) Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average daily gross charges.
Q2) Which of the following measures the speed with which outstanding accounts are paid?
A) Collections ratio
B) Accounts receivable ratio
C) Desirable ratio
D) Delinquent accounts ratio
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a service offered by collection agencies?
A) Provide intercept letters.
B) Provide credit ratings to providers' offices.
C) Trace patient accounts who are "skips."
D) Obtain funds from bankruptcy accounts.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Total monthly receipts are $50,000 and total monthly charges are $60,000 for the same month.Which of the following percents is the collection ratio?
A) 95%
B) 87%
C) 83%
D) 120%
Q2) Which of the following accounting systems utilizes "no carbon required" forms that are layered?
A) Single entry
B) Double entry
C) Pegboard
D) Computerized
Q3) Which of the following applies to the financial report that shows cumulative monthly profit and loss?
A) Aging analysis
B) Balance sheet
C) Cost ratio
D) Income statement
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23
Chapter 22: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Q1) Which of these are NOT a way for health care institutions to use social media?
A) To make your organization a source of medical information
B) To convey a medical diagnoses
C) To convey health management information
D) To present medical reminders
Q2) Which of the following best describes the most common time period for a new employee to be placed on probation?
A) 7 days to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 60 to 90 days
D) 1 year
Q3) a person assigned to assist in training
A)benchmark
B)mentor
C)shadow
D)practicum/externship
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Chapter 23: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding a job description?
A) Completed with the human resources manager and new personnel
B) Discarded when the employee leaves the office position
C) Updated on an annual basis
D) Updated only when an employee leaves
Q2) Personnel records are usually kept for a period of 6-8 years after employees leave the practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When should an employer ideally pay for an employee's continuing education?
A) When the cost is inexpensive.
B) When the employer is afraid the employee is thinking of quitting.
C) When it benefits the employee on the job.
D) When the employee is really interested in the topic.
Q4) Provide an in-house demonstration on new office equipment.
A)recruiting and hiring personnel
B)orienting and training personnel
C)dismissing employees
D)complying with all personnel laws
E)planning employee training and education
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Chapter 24: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Q1) New industry standards require that each NHA-certified health care professional complete at least how many CE credits per year to keep certification current?
A) 6.0 credits
B) 3.0 credits
C) 4.0 credits
D) 5.0 credits
Q2) When must a student enroll as an AAMA member to be eligible for the reduced student rate?
A) During the first year of employment
B) Before starting a job
C) Immediately after graduation
D) Before graduation
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the official bimonthly magazine of the American Association of Medical Assistants for certified medical assistants?
A) Certified Medical Assistant News
B) CMA Today
C) American Medical News
D) Professional Medical Assistant
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Chapter 25: Employment Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following is critical for an online presentation?
A) Quickly catching the eye of the reviewer
B) Showing a self-made video
C) Giving a thorough and detailed description
D) Presenting your complete job history
Q2) The interview process is a two-way street,and you should also ask questions of your potential employer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is important to remember when beginning your job search for a position as a medical assistant?
A) Pounding the pavement gets the job.
B) A position is guaranteed with a certificate.
C) Networking is most effective in a job search.
D) Competition is not important.
Q4) How well one completes the application form may be a key factor in obtaining an interview.
A)True
B)False
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