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Course Introduction
Introduction to Health Information Technology provides students with a comprehensive overview of the core concepts, systems, and applications used to manage health information in clinical and administrative settings. The course explores the history, evolution, and current landscape of health information technology (HIT), including electronic health records (EHRs), health information exchanges, data standards, privacy and security regulations, and the impact of HIT on patient care and healthcare delivery. Students will gain foundational knowledge of how information technology supports healthcare processes, improves patient outcomes, and addresses challenges related to data quality, interoperability, and ethical considerations.
Recommended Textbook
Health Information Management of a Strategic Resource 4th Edition by Mervat Abdelhak
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17 Chapters
1064 Verified Questions
1064 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following officers in a health care organization manages the financial, administrative, and clinical information systems of the hospital?
A) CEO
B) COO
C) CFO
D) CIO
Answer: D
Q2) A consumer or patient interested in changing managed care plans should review the standard performance measures that are developed by:
A) The Joint Commission
B) Commission on the Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities
C) Department of Health and Human Services
D) National Committee for Quality Assurance
Answer: D
Q3) Health care organizations may voluntarily elect to comply with nongovernmental health care standards.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Describe the role of the health information professional as a patient advocate. Answer: The health information management (HIM) professional is seen as a patient advocate because he or she facilitates access to the patient's record by the patient and others authorized to obtain patient information. The HIM professional assumes the role of a patient advocate by insisting on accurate and quality data in the patient's record. The important role of the patient advocate, however, is in the HIM professional's commitment to the confidentiality of patient information. This commitment continues to be evidenced in the concern for confidentiality of computerized patient records.
Q2) Health record documentation is influenced by governmental agencies such as Medicare and Medicaid.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The protection of secondary health information is an ethical tenet promoted by American Health Information Management Association.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three private organizations and their contribution to health information technology.
Answer: Any three of the organizations listed in Table 3-4 in the text .
Q2) Describes anatomy and diagnoses
A)HL7
B)DICOM
C)NCPDP
D)IEEE 1073
E)CHI
F)RxNorm
G)SNOMED
H)ASTM 1384
I)LOINC
J)HIPAA transactions
Answer: G
Q3) Results routing and reporting
A)Clinical
B)Administrative/financial
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data uniformity is one characteristic of a health care data set.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Referring to the information below, which information refers to the data value?
Coding Scheme
Sex
1 = female
2 = male
Q3) Logic data fields are used for "yes/no" data entries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) $4352 (value of the patient's total charges)
A)Text/categorical
B)Narrative/textual
C)Date
D)Time
E)Logic
F)Quantitative
Q5) Using the information in Question 9 above, which patients were admitted and discharged the same day?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a transaction-oriented information system?
A) REG-ADT system
B) Decision-support system
C) Executive information system
D) Data security system
Q2) When determining how long you must retain paper or computerized health information and health records, you consult:
A) Your organization's legal counsel.
B) Your state laws.
C) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services guidelines.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Computerized health information systems have demonstrated a reduction in health care costs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infrastructure refers to ____________________________________________________________.
Q5) A repository of electronic information about a single patient compiled during an inpatient stay is called a(n) ______________________________.
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Q1) Precursor to Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine (SNOMED)
A)ICD 9 CM
B)ICD 10
C)CPT
D)NOC
E)NDC
F)SNOMED CT
G)DSM
H)DRG
I)LOINC
J)SNOP
Q2) Classifications are intended to aggregate and group information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Semantic content refers to the degree of specificity and refinement of a clinical terminology.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which terminology is more specific, ICD or SNOMED?
Q5) Describe the purposes of coding diseases and operations.
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Q1) List three functions that an ADT system can support.
Q2) A physician's office wants to install software to process patient claims to each insurer. Because patients have multiple types of insurance, the software will need to not only transmit the claims but also understand what information needs to be sent to each insurer. Would you choose a two-tier or three-tier architecture for this application? Why?
Q3) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Security Rule specifies specific software applications that are required for two-factor authentication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common workstation is a minicomputer connected directly to the information warehouse.
A)True B)False
Q5) Secure socket layer (SSL) is an example of public key/private key encryption. A)True
B)False
Q6) What is one advantage of using thin-clients when upgrading a software application?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Icons have cross-cultural advantages over dialog and menu interfaces when considering systems design.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each of the following is considered a cost-benefit analysis (CBA) technique except:
A) Break-even analysis.
B) Payback.
C) Discounted payback period.
D) Benefits realization.
Q3) Which of the following describes the process of installing and starting up a system in all organization units at the same time?
A) Gradual phase-in by unit
B) Gradual roll-out by unit
C) Abrupt changeover
D) Gradual changeover
Q4) Attributes describe both entities and relationships in a database.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Give two examples of user manager trust in systems development projects.
Q2) To build trust, vendors must deliver on their promises of a well-functioning system. A)True
B)False
Q3) The value of data in the legacy systems is assessed by the information systems staff.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The information systems staff will never know all that they could about a complex database, operating system, or network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Focusing on baseline data may be viewed as remaining "stuck in the box".
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some indications that a systems project is likely to go forward with the support of the information systems manager?
Q7) How should system implementation and workflow redesign be approached?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type I error is when the researcher:
A) Accepts the null hypothesis when it is false
B) Rejects the null hypotheses when it is true
C) Accepts the alternative hypothesis
D) Both a and b
Q2) What is the term for the number of new cases of a disease?
A) Incidence
B) Prevalence
C) Attack rate
D) Spectrum of disease
Q3) Which is the average number of days of service for each inpatient discharged within a given period?
A) Median
B) Inpatient census
C) Average length of stay
D) Occupancy average
Q4) The number of medications a person is taking is an example of ordinal data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A whole number divided in 100 parts is a ____________________.
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Q1) Existing cases
A)Hypothesis
B)Methodology
C)Specific aims
D)Literature review
E)Significance section
F)Validity
G)Reliability
H)Bias
I)Prevalence
J)Incidence
Q2) Research enables individuals to learn something new and valuable about their professions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Epidemiology is the study of disease and the determinants of disease in individual cases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A second y axis is useful on a Pareto chart to plot:
A) Cumulative frequency.
B) Categories of events.
C) Relative rank of categories.
D) Reverse occurrence order.
Q2) Two improvement tools that connect performance variables to outcomes a cause-and-effect diagram and:
A) Force field analysis.
B) Brainstorming.
C) Control chart.
D) Pareto chart.
Q3) Which of the following terms best defines the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)?
A) Federally funded
B) Private, not for profit
C) Proprietary
D) Community based
Q4) An adverse patient event is synonymous with a potentially compensable event.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cancer data may be released without patient authorization?
A) Aggregate
B) Patient
C) Physician
D) Facility
Q3) The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) program was federally mandated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following cancer registry files is considered a temporary file?
A) Accession register
B) Follow-up
C) Patient index
D) Primary site
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Q1) Which of the following is never considered confidential?
A) Peer review records
B) Incident reports
C) Credentialing files
D) Policies and procedures about access and disclosure of health information
Q2) Tort action(s) include(s):
A) Defamation.
B) Misrepresentation.
C) Invasion of privacy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Which management input would be relevant in devising a health care facility's policy on release of health information to the media?
A) Facility legal counsel
B) Risk manager
C) Communications director or media relations manager
D) All of the above
Q4) In setting facility policies for patient access to their health information, name the two most important sources of law that the health information management (HIM) professional should consult.
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Q1) What are some constraints that arise in recruitment that affect the size of the applicant pool?
Q2) Describe some activities conducive to developing and maintaining an effective health information management team.
Q3) Employee orientation need not be structured formally because the best approach is for the new employee to learn from his or her mistakes on a trial-and-error basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) use realistic examples of on-the-job behavior to increase the reliability of performance appraisal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The critical incident method of employee performance evaluation emphasizes the documentation of unacceptable behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What do all job evaluation approaches have in common?
Q7) What is the primary purpose of a progressive preventive disciplinary process?
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Q1) A Gantt chart can be used for personnel planning, resource allocation, and budgeting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Improving work processes requires questioning the necessity of continuing to do all currently performed tasks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Work sampling using random observations is effective because:
A) Data are obtained with less time and expense.
B) The employee gets the manager's attention.
C) The manager can see whether work is distributed equitably.
D) It interrupts the normal work routine for shorter periods of time.
Q4) A statistical report of the quarterly clinical record review that contains errors and needs to be redone would be counted as a "productive unit of work."
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to the information given, compute the return on assets.
Q2) You have submitted a request to the board of directors to purchase a computer-based patient record system. The system is anticipated to save $45,000 in personnel operating costs each year for the next 3 years and will cost $110,000 to install. Operating and maintenance costs for the 3 years are estimated to be $5000 per year. The money to buy the equipment would come from an equipment fund, which is now earning 8%. Should the new system be purchased? Why?
Q3) Define job order costing and explain how it is used in a health care organization.
Q4) Referring to the information given, compute the return on assets.
Q5) To analyze what has actually been expended compared with that which was budgeted can he determined from the ____________________ report.
Q6) ____________________ is an example of variable costs.
Q7) The health information manager needs to order some unexpected supplies for the new imaging services to improve processing efficiency. Before ordering, the manager wants to examine the financial condition of the department. What financial report should be analyzed?
Q8) What does writing off accounts receivable mean?
Q9) What is the purpose of a budget?
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