Introduction to Geology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Geology provides a comprehensive overview of the Earth's physical structure, materials, and dynamic processes. Through the study of minerals, rocks, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, and the history of Earths formation, students gain foundational knowledge of geological concepts and the scientific methods used in the field. This course also explores the impact of geologic processes on the environment and society, emphasizing the importance of geology in resource management and natural hazard mitigation. Designed for students new to the subject, it combines theoretical learning with practical examples, fostering an appreciation for the planets evolving landscape.
Recommended Textbook
Earth Science 1st Edition by Stephen Marshak
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1408 Verified Questions
1408 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Earth in Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pressure and temperature change with increasing depth within the Earth. How do they change, and why?
Answer: With increasing depth within the Earth, both temperature and pressure increase. Pressure increases as a result of the weight of overlying material. Temperature increases as a result of radioactive decay.
Q2) A substance is NOT required to __________ to be considered a mineral.
A)be solid
B)be naturally occurring
C)contain carbon.
D)have atoms arranged in an orderly pattern
Answer: C
Q3) In the whole Earth, the four most common elements (by mass) are oxygen, silicon, magnesium, and A)copper.
B)lead.
C)iron.
D)zinc.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Way the Earth Works: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a geologist discovered coal in a modern-day cold, snowy location, he or she could conclude that
A)a meteorite must have struck the area.
B)the area was once covered with swamps and/or jungles.
C)the area was once covered with an ocean.
D)this discovery was anomalous.
Answer: B
Q2) Seafloor spreading occurs at __________ boundaries.
A)divergent
B)convergent
C)transform
D)transvergent
Answer: A
Q3) Discuss why transform boundaries are found in conjunction with divergent boundaries.
Answer: Transform boundaries are found along mid-ocean ridges (MORs). They break the MORs into smaller segments, which allows the spreading of the plates at MORs to be accommodated on the three-dimensional, spherical surface of Earth.
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4
Chapter 3: Patterns in Nature: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The internal ordering of mineral crystals can be detected using A)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B)X-ray diffraction (XRD).
C)a scanning electron microscope (SEM).
D)cathodized axial tomography (CAT).
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following common minerals is softest?
A)quartz
B)calcite
C)talc
D)fluorite
Answer: C
Q3) Natural glass is NOT considered a mineral because it
A)is not produced by geologic processes.
B)is organic.
C)does not have a fixed crystalline structure.
D)can be made synthetically as well as be a naturally occurring substance.
Answer: C
Q4) Explain why a cubic zirconia is NOT a mineral.
Answer: Cubic zirconia is manmade and therefore not considered a mineral.
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Chapter 4: Up From the Inferno: Magma and Igneous Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the fundamental difference between an explosive and an effusive eruption? What variables are important in determining whether a volcano "flows" or "blows"?
Q2) Large igneous provinces involve more than just the formation of large volumes of igneous rock. Which of the following global events has NOT been attributed to large igneous provinces?
A)sea-level rise
B)climate change
C)extinction
D)large outcrops of granite
Q3) In Bowen's discontinuous reaction series, the first mineral to crystallize out of a mafic melt is __________ .
A)olivine
B)plagioclase
C)pyroxene
D)quartz
Q4) What is a caldera? How is a caldera different from a stratovolcano?
Q5) What are the ways in which geoscientists can monitor volcanoes? Is it possible for scientists to predict eruptions?
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Chapter 5: A Surface Veneer: Sediments and Sedimentary
Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagenesis refers to
A)the development of layering within sedimentary rocks.
B)the act of deposition of sediment that will ultimately form sedimentary rock.
C)physical and chemical alterations, including compaction and cementation, that occur as sediment is transformed into rock.
D)the natural process of separating sediment by grain size.
Q2) A well-sorted sandstone with asymmetric ripples was MOST likely deposited as sand by a(n)
A)river (far from source).
B)glacier.
C)river (near source).
D)alluvial fan.
Q3) The elevation of a mountain could be slowly decreased by weathering and A)lithification.
B)sedimentation.
C)erosion.
D)deposition
Q4) How are a marine transgression and regression different?
Page 7
Q5) What is an alluvial fan? How is it different from a marine delta?
Q6) What is the difference between chemical and physical weathering?
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Page 8
Chapter 6: A Process of Change: Metamorphism and the Rock Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid, deep burial of sediments in an accretionary prism leads to the formation of a metamorphic rock called
A)blueschist.
B)greenschist.
C)migmatite.
D)gneiss.
Q2) What metamorphic facies would most commonly be associated with a subduction zone and why?
Q3) Which list properly orders these foliated metamorphic rocks from lowest grade to highest grade?
A)gneiss, slate, schist, and phyllite
B)slate, schist, phyllite, and gneiss
C)slate, phyllite, schist, and gneiss
D)gneiss, phyllite, schist, and slate
Q4) Two common metamorphic rocks that typically lack foliation are _________ and
A)slate; phyllite
B)gneiss; migmatite
C)quartzite; marble
D)schist; metaconglomerate
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Chapter 7: Crags, Cracks, and Crumples: Crustal
Deformation and Mountain Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mount Marshak towers above the landscape at 5.3 km tall. The rate of uplift at Mount Marshak is 1.3 mm/yr and the rate of erosion is 1.5 mm/yr. How tall will Mount Marshak be after a million years, assuming everything remains constant?
A)5.5 km
B)7.3 km
C)5.1 km
D)3.3 km
Q2) Which of the following is the process whereby rocks from depth are exposed at the surface during mountain building?
A) subsidence
B) uplift
C)jointing
D)foliation
Q3) A body of rock affected by compression will likely undergo
A)shortening.
B)stretching.
C)shear strain
D)rotation.
Q4) What are the three components of deformation? Briefly explain each.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: A Violent Pulse: Earthquakes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Mercalli intensity scale tends to be very subjective and thus is generally only used for historical earthquakes that were near people but were not recorded by seismometers. The Mercalli scale may be considered subjective because it A)relies on testimony from people.
B)does not take distance into account.
C)can only be used for large earthquakes.
D)cannot be used in heavily populated areas.
Q2) Earthquakes that occur in a band called the ___________ can be used to track the motion of subducted oceanic lithosphere.
A)Wegener belt
B)seismic gap
C)Wadati-Benioff zone
D)Richter zone
Q3) Which type of seismic wave has the fastest velocity?
A)L-wave
B)P-wave
C)R-wave
D)S-wave
Q4) Explain why tsunamis are NOT tidal waves.
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Chapter 9: Deep Time: How Old Is Old
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Q1) A __________ is a geologic layer that is distinct enough to allow it to be found regionally and used to correlate rocks.
A)marker bed
B)geologic contact
C)stratigraphic bed
D)disconformity
Q2) If the relative ages of two formations are known, their __________ can be inferred.
A)absolute ages
B)fossil assemblages
C)lithologies
D)relative positions in a sequence of rock layers
Q3) Unconformities represent __________ in the rock record.
A)erosion or nondeposition
B)continuing sequences
C)changes in size of the sediments
D)iridium layers from meteorites
Q4) What is the principle of uniformitarianism? How does this principle apply to our understanding of the Earth system? How is this useful in the context of relative dating?
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Chapter 10: A Biography of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hadean was a time in Earth history when
A)the first abundant shelly organisms appeared in the fossil record.
B)Earth's interior was so hot that a solid outer crust was quickly remelted.
C)stable continental interiors, termed cratons, first formed.
D)the dinosaurs appeared and came to dominate large-scale terrestrial life.
Q2) Where would you be most likely to see a piece of the earliest continental crust?
A)southern California
B) Iceland
C)the ocean floor
D)central Canada
Q3) Some researchers have suggested the use of the term __________ to denote the most recent part of the geologic record, which has been characterized by rapid changes in the atmosphere, landscape, and biodiversity as a result of human actions.
A)Holocene
B)Homosapian
C)Anthropocene
D)Neogene
Q4) Why are rocks formed before 3.85 Ga so rare?
Q5) How were mammals able to take over as the dominant class of organisms on Earth?
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Chapter 11: Riches in Rock: Energy and Mineral Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most mineral resources are considered to be and may present a strategic challenge globally because.
A)nonrenewable; they are not uniformly distributed on Earth
B)nonrenewable; all nations possess roughly equal and significant reserves
C)renewable; they are not uniformly distributed on Earth
D)renewable; all nations possess roughly equal and significant reserves
Q2) A landowner is looking to develop a coal mine on their property. She determines that a surface mine is the best option, as the coal seam she is targeting is close to the surface. The cost to start the mine is $20 million and the annual cost to operate is $16 million. She estimates that they can remove 450,000 tons of coal a year and sell the coal for $38.50 per ton. How long will it take before she is able to pay off her investment and start to make a profit?
A)15 months
B)15 years
C)1.15 years
D)115 months
Q3) Distinguish between cement and concrete. Explain how cement is produced. Describe why cement and concrete are so important to society.
Q4) What are biofuels? Identify some examples of biofuels.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can water play a role in slope stability and slope failure?
Q2) Which area would be most likely to host a slope failure?
A)the coast of Florida
B)a desert in central California
C)a desert in Arizona
D)the coast of southern California
Q3) Which of the following landforms would be the result of subsidence?
A)mountain range
B)wave-cut terrace
C)butte
D)basin
Q4) What is uplift and what is an outcome of uplift? What type of energy drives uplift?
Q5) Which of the following situations may lead to slope failure?
A)the addition of a small amount of water to a slope
B)installing a chain-link fence over a slope
C)undercutting a slope by a bulldozer
D)regrading a steep slope to create a gentler slope
Page 15
Q6) What type(s) of energy control(s) erosion? Explain your answer.
Q7) What is a landform and how is it linked to the landscape?
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Chapter 13: Freshwater: Streams, Lakes, and Groundwater
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a dam is built on a river, what effects might be felt downstream?
A)increase in the fish population
B)decrease in sediment supply
C)increase in the sediment load
D)increase in flood potential
Q2) When one stream captures the flow from another stream it is called
A) stream rejuvenation.
B) stream piracy.
C)antecedent capture.
D)beveled capture.
Q3) One way to mitigate flooding is to build ___________ , which are areas that are intended to flood and as such are not zoned for buildings.
A) floodways
B) floodplains
C)peneplains
D)artificial levees
Q4) A geologist is trying to determine the discharge of a river. The stream is semicircular in shape with a width of 10 m. They measure the velocity of the river to be 0.2 m/s. What is the discharge of the river? Show your work.
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Chapter 14: Extreme Realms: Desert and Glacial Landscapes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of deserts form on the leeward (dry) side of mountain ranges?
A)tropical
B)rain-shadow
C)coastal
D)subtropical
Q2) Glacial ice forms when snow accumulates in large enough volumes to compact and force __________ out and __________ the ice crystal size.
A)air; increase
B)water; increase
C)air; decrease
D)water; decrease
Q3) Cirques, horns, and arĂȘtes form from glacial __________ , whereas moraines, erratics, and till form from glacial __________ .
A)erosion; deposition
B)deposition; carving
C)retreat; advance
D)erosion; sublimation
Q4) Describe the differences between lag deposits and desert pavement.
Q5) List and describe one short-term cause for glaciations.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Waters: the Blue of the Blue Marble
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accounts for the largest amount of biomass in our oceans?
A)plankton
B)nekton
C)dinoflagellates
D)mammals
Q2) Imagine you are an oceanographer mapping the sea surface temperature variations throughout the Atlantic Ocean for the Northern Hemisphere. What phenomenon best explains the difference in sea surface temperatures of two coastal cities located at the same latitude located on opposite sides of the Atlantic Ocean?
A)Brazil current
B)jet stream
C)Guinea current
D)gulf stream
Q3) Waves are created by A)tides.
B)wind.
C)the crust.
D)the Moon.
Q4) Outline the impacts of our ocean dead zones, and discuss where they are forming.
Q5) Define the flow of the Ekman transport and explain its process.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Marine Geology: the Study of Ocean Basins and Coasts
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Q1) What are estuaries and how do they form?
Q2) Why do tides occur? What is the driving force, and what factors contribute to this force?
Q3) When the sea level rises, an ocean may invade a river valley, producing a nearshore body of water of mixed and variable salinity, which is termed a(n)
A)atoll.
B)lagoon.
C)estuary
D)jetty.
Q4) If sea level continues to rise and covers the city of Miami, the Florida coast will become a(n)
A)emergent coast.
B)submergent coast.
C)continental slope.
D)abyssal plain.
Q5) Describe one way humans have tried to mitigate beach erosion. Was it ultimately successful in both the short term and long term?
Q6) Why is it NOT a good idea to build on barrier islands?
Q7) How is an erosional coast different from an accretionary coast?
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Chapter 17: The Air We Breathe: Introducing Earths
Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atmospheric pressure and air density
A)increase with an increasing elevation.
B)decrease with a decreasing elevation.
C)decrease with an increasing elevation.
D)do not change as the elevation changes.
Q2) Although the Earth itself acts like a blackbody, its atmosphere does not. Rather, each atmospheric gas absorbs and emits radiation selectively, meaning that it absorbs only certain wavelengths and emits only certain wavelengths. Why does the atmosphere exhibit this behavior?
Q3) The boundary where two contrasting air masses meet is called a(n) A)front.
B)uplift.
C)aurora.
D)deposit.
Q4) How does a mercury barometer work? How do meteorologists use it to describe atmospheric pressure?
Q5) Define the word mirage. What are the similarities and differences between an inferior mirage and a superior mirage?
Q6) List the three laws that govern the behavior of blackbody radiation.
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Chapter 18: Winds of the World: the Earths Major Weather Systems
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Q1) A very fast high-altitude river of air that forms in the upper troposphere is called a(n)
A)typhoon.
B)jet stream.
C)monsoon.
D)air mass.
Q2) What are at least three fundamental differences between tropical and mid-latitude cyclones?
Q3) Where does a hurricane acquire its initial energy?
A)cold ocean water
B)warm ocean water
C)a cluster of thunderstorms
D)evaporation of ocean water
Q4) The thickness of Earth's boundary layer depends on the A)pressure gradient of the air pressure.
B)roughness and temperate of the surface below.
C)topography of the surface below.
D)temperate of the surface below.
Q5) Why might a mid-latitude cyclone form and how is its formation related to the polar-front jet stream?
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Chapter 19: Thunderstorms, Tornadoes, and Local Weather Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast an ordinary thunderstorm and a supercell thunderstorm.
Q2) A(n) __________ thunderstorm is an isolated thunderstorm that does not rotate.
A)squall-line
B)straight-line
C)supercell
D)ordinary
Q3) How can people best protect themselves from lightning?
Q4) The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to classify
A)thunderstorms based on their size and intensity.
B)thunderstorms based on their magnitude and the type of lifting mechanism involved in their formation.
C)the strength of lightning strikes based on the amount of energy transferred.
D)tornado intensities based on the damage caused and estimates of how this correlates to wind velocity.
Q5) Thunderstorms, lake-effect storms, and coastal sea breezes are examples of
A)local weather systems.
B)macroscale weather systems.
C)mid-latitude cyclones.
D)updrafts.
Page 22
Q6) What conditions are necessary for thunderstorm formation?
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Page 23
Chapter 20: Climate and Climate Change
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Q1) Global temperatures have _______ in the past 200 years.
A)risen
B)fallen
C)fluctuated wildly
D)stayed constant
Q2) How is a history of global climate change preserved in the stratigraphic record? Give an example.
Q3) When averaged over time, the amount of energy arriving at the Earth from the Sun ________ . This relationship is called the Earth's energy balance.
A)is greater than the amount of energy emitted to space by the Earth
B)is less than the amount of energy emitted to space by the Earth
C)is equal to the amount of energy emitted to space by the Earth
D)has been continually increasing
Q4) Climate varies with latitude because of the
A)thickness of the atmosphere.
B)angle of incidence.
C)distance from the sun.
D)abundance of greenhouse gases.
Q5) Why does Earth have seasons?
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Chapter 21: Our Solar System and Beyond
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Q1) A reflecting telescope operates by containing a(n)
A)flat mirror that refracts light to a focus in front of a mirror. The smaller the area of the mirror, the more light the telescope can gather. A smaller mirror at the focus sends the concentrated light to an eyepiece at the back or at the side of the telescope.
B)curved mirror that reflects light to a focus in front of a mirror. The larger the area of the mirror, the more light the telescope can gather. A smaller mirror at the focus sends the concentrated light to an eyepiece at the back or at the side of the telescope.
C)objective lens that refracts incoming light and concentrates it at a focus behind the lens. A second lens, the eyepiece, magnifies the concentrated light so that objects appear larger.
D)objective lens that reflects incoming light and concentrates it at a focus in front of the lens.
Q2) A space telescope can detect _________, whereas a radio telescope cannot.
A)visible light and infrared energy
B)infrared energy and gamma rays
C)x-rays and gamma rays
D)visible light and x-rays
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Chapter 22: Our Neighborhood in Space
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Q1) The nebula from which our solar system formed contained A)only gases.
B)gases and ice.
C)gases and dust.
D)gases, dust, and ice.
Q2) We are able to see the Moon from Earth because it
A)produces its own light.
B)reflects the light from the Sun.
C)reflects the light from Earth.
D)is very close to Earth.
Q3) The Great Red Spot on Jupiter is most likely a A)huge volcano.
B)huge storm.
C)huge impact crater.
D)large patch of liquid water.
Q4) Is or was there water on Mars? How do we know?
Q5) Contrast meteoroids, meteors, and meteorites.
Q6) Contrast asteroids and comets. How do they differ in terms of composition and location within our solar system?
Q7) Contrast volatile and refractory materials. Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 23: The Sun, Stars, and Deep Space
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Q1) The fourth state of matter where material consists almost entirely of ionized atoms circulating along with free electrons is called A)solid.
B)plasma.
C)liquid. D)gas.
Q2) What are the differences between black-, white-, and red-dwarf stars in terms of their size, mass, temperature, formation mechanism, and life cycle stage?
Q3) In the Big Crunch model, the Universe
A)contracts rapidly.
B)alternately explodes and implodes.
C)will expand indefinitely.
D)alternately expands and contracts, like an accordion.
Q4) How might expansion rates of the Universe change in the future, and what would such changes mean for the future of the Universe?
Q5) The Sun currently falls on the main sequence of the H-R diagram. How will it evolve as it nears the end of its life as a visible star?
Q6) Why is it thought that fusion began in our Sun but not in Earth?
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Chapter 24: Prelude: Welcome to Earth Science
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Q1) Deforestation of the Amazon rainforest for cattle grazing is an example of
A)anthropogenic change.
B)natural change.
C)sustainable change.
D)renewable change.
Q2) Rivers are in which part of the Earth System?
A)geosphere
B)hydrosphere
C)biosphere
D)atmosphere
Q3) Which of the following is MOST true of hypotheses in science?
A)A hypothesis is a possible natural explanation that can explain a set of data.
B)A hypothesis must be delineated before the start of any scientific endeavor.
C)A hypothesis is a scientific idea supported by an abundance of evidence.
D)It is important that hypotheses are proved correct.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of the lithosphere? It
A)is relatively rigid.
B)consists of the crust and uppermost mantle.
C)is the outermost layer of the solid Earth.
D)forms an intact shell around the Earth.
Page 28
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