Introduction to Genetics
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern inheritance and variation in living organisms. The course explores the molecular structure and function of genes, the processes of DNA replication, transcription, and translation, and the mechanisms of genetic mutation and recombination. Students will learn about Mendelian and non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance, genetic mapping, and the impact of genetics on evolution, population diversity, and human health. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications of genetic knowledge, including biotechnology and genetic engineering, as well as ethical considerations in genetic research.
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Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome
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Q1) The four basic tissue types are
A)blood cells,skin cells,neurons,and muscle cells.
B)adipose cells,muscle cells,bone cells,and sex cells.
C)connective tissue,epithelium,muscle,and nervous tissue.
D)the stomach,the small intestine,the liver,and the pancreas.
Answer: C
Q2) Polydactyly is considered a Mendelian trait as
A)it is caused by linked genes.
B)it is caused by a single gene.
C)it is caused due to environmental factors.
D)it affects the stem cells.
Answer: B
Q3) _____ is a field that is revealing and describing much of the invisible living world by sequencing all of the DNA in a particular habitat.
A)Stem cell science
B)Bioethics
C)Metagenomics
D)Biochemistry
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells
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Q1) Cells contain twice the normal number of chromosomes briefly during A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
Answer: C
Q2) The cell cycle is a series of events a cell undergoes as it prepares to A)divide.
B)die.
C)adhere to another cell.
D)pass along a signal.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a cure for people with recurrent infection from Clostridium difficile?
A)Renal transplantation
B)Genetic restructuring
C)Grafting
D)Fecal transplantation
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging
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Q1) A single-gene disease that can cause symptoms in a fetus is
A)Huntington disease.
B)Alzheimer disease.
C)malaria.
D)osteogenesis imperfecta.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true about the fetal stage of development?
A)The organ systems initially form,and then grow.
B)The head is disproportionately small at the beginning of the stage.
C)It comes after the embryonic period.
D)It consists of the first three months of the pregnancy.
Answer: C
Q3) Tanisha and Tawanda are twins but do not look alike.They are the result of fertilization of
A)one oocyte by two sperm cells.
B)two oocytes by one sperm cell.
C)two oocytes by two sperm cells.
D)one oogonium by one spermatogonium.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) A very narrow pedigree,such as that for Egypt's Ptolemy dynasty,reflects
A)families with many adopted children.
B)a very mild phenotype.
C)many uncles marrying their nephews.
D)families with many relatives having children with blood relatives.
Q2) Genotype refers to
A)the number of alleles of a gene that a person has.
B)the combination of alleles for a particular gene.
C)a person's entire genome sequence.
D)the appearance of a trait.
Q3) A Punnett square displays
A)members of a family and their phenotypes.
B)paired chromosomes in size order.
C)DNA sequences and the proteins they encode.
D)the probabilities of how alleles combine in offsprings.
Q4) Alleles are
A)alternate forms of a gene.
B)genes near each other on a chromosome.
C)genes at opposite ends of a chromosome.
D)genes that are only in pea plants.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws
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Q1) Familial hypercholesterolemia illustrates incomplete dominance in humans because
A)heterozygotes have an intermediate number of low-density lipoprotein receptors on their liver cells.
B)homozygous wild type individuals have an intermediate number of low-density lipoprotein receptors on their liver cells.
C)heterozygotes have an intermediate number of low-density lipoprotein receptors on their kidney cells.
D)heterozygotes have the minimal number of high-density lipoprotein receptors on their liver cells.
Q2) Which of the following is an illness caused by a mutation in mitochondrial DNA?
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Hemophilia
C)Leigh syndrome
D)Marfan syndrome
Q3) Mitochondrial disorders tend to cause great fatigue because
A)nerve cells are filled with mitochondriA.
B)muscle cells are normally filled with mitochondria.
C)affected cells do not use their mitochondrial DNA.
D)lysosomes dismantle the mitochondria in muscle cells.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Q1) The calculation for determining sex ratio is A)averaging the percentage of students who are female in many large school populations.
B)the number of males divided by the number of females multiplied by 1,000 for people of a particular age.
C)1,000 minus the number of whichever sex is in excess.
D)the number of Y chromosomes in a population divided by one-third the number of X chromosomes.
Q2) Number of eggs laid per week and milk yield are traits that are A)sex-linked.
B)sex-limited.
C)sex-influenced.
D)sex-driven.
Q3) An allele that is dominant in one sex but recessive in the other is A)X-linked.
B)sex-limited.
C)sex-influenced.
D)Y-linkeD.
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8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Concordance refers to
A)percentage of monozygotic twin pairs in which neither express the trait.
B)percentage of monozygotic twin pairs in which both express the trait.
C)percentage of dizygotic twin pairs in which both express the trait.
D)percentage of twin pairs in which both express a trait among pairs in which at least one twin has the trait.
Q2) DNA sequences that contribute to polygenic traits are called
A)qualitative trait loci.
B)quantitative trait loci.
C)multifactorial trait loci.
D)single nucleotide polymorphisms.
Q3) Heritability refers to
A)the genetic contribution to a phenotype in a population at a particular time.
B)the genetic contribution to the variability of a phenotype in a population at a particular time.
C)the number of genes contributing to a trait in a population.
D)the degree to which offspring resemble parents.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) The parts of the brain where addiction arises are
A)the suprachiasmatic nuclei,the ventricles,and the cerebral cortex.
B)the nucleus accumbens,the ventral tegmental area,and the prefrontal cortex.
C)the frontal medulla,the cerebellum,and the hypothalamus.
D)the presynaptic neuron,postsynaptic neuron,and synapse.
Q2) The molecular explanation for narcolepsy is that
A)certain brain cells have many extra orexin/hypocretin receptors,so these cells receive too many messages to sleep.
B)the orexin/hypocretin receptor is missing,abnormal in structure,or unable to move to the surface of certain brain cells,blocking signals to stay awake.
C)a gene is missing in chromosome 6 that encodes the protein narcoleptin.
D)a viral infection activates genes that promote sleep.
Q3) Causes of intellectual disability include gene and chromosomal disorders,infections,malnutrition,and noninherited birth defects.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) Meselson and Stahl's experiments showed that DNA replication is
A)dispersive,conservative,and semi-conservative.
B)dispersive,but not conservative or semi-conservative.
C)semi-conservative,but not dispersive or conservative.
D)quasi-conservative,but not dispersive or semi-conservative.
Q2) Chargaff showed that DNA that has 20% guanine has _____ cytosine.
A)20%
B)30%
C)60%
D)40%
Q3) The first and best-known DNA amplification technique is _____.
A)the polymerase chain reaction
B)Okazaki synthesis
C)Sanger sequencing
D)next-generation sequencing
Q4) Which of the following statements is true in DNA replication?
A)DNA polymerase unwinds the DNA at replication forks.
B)Primase removes short RNA primers and replaces them with DNA.
C)Ligase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands.
D)DNA polymerase proofreads DNA,correcting mismatched nucleotides.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein
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Q1) The enzyme that synthesizes messenger RNA from a DNA template is A)DNA polymerase.
B)RNA polymerase.
C)reverse transcriptase.
D)ligase.
Q2) About _____ percent of the human genome is the exome.
A)0.5
B)1.5
C)5.0
D)10
Q3) If part of a DNA template is the sequence GTTAGTCTGTGGGCT,then the mRNA transcribed from it is A)GTTAGTCTGTGGGCT. B)CAATCAGACACCCGA.
C)CAAUCAGACACCCGA.
D)gln-ser-asp-thr-arg.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Q1) Understanding the signals that activate pancreatic stem cells to differentiate as beta cells could be used to treat
A)restless legs syndrome.
B)male infertility.
C)endometriosis.
D)diabetes mellitus.
Q2) A microRNA is _____ bases long.
A)2 or 4
B)12 or 13
C)21 or 22
D)100 or 110
Q3) Rett syndrome results from
A)a microRNA that binds the wrong set of mRNA targets.
B)unstable transposons.
C)fetal hemoglobin that is reactivated in a child.
D)abnormal methylation of a gene expressed in the brain.
Q4) The "methylome" is the collection of all the methylated sites in the genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Q1) A source of gamma radiation is
A)plutonium and cesium isotopes.
B)alpha and beta globin.
C)uranium and radium.
D)carbon-14 and strontium-70.
Q2) A mutation is more likely to affect a differentiated cell than a stem cell due to A)skewed distribution of parental versus newly replicated DNA.
B)a conscious effort on the part of the individual.
C)lack of DNA replication in stem cells.
D)skewed distribution of stem and progenitor cells.
Q3) A researcher might use site-directed mutagenesis because A)spontaneous mutations occur too frequently to study.
B)using a mutagen yields results that are specific to a gene and not applicable everywhere in the genome.
C)mutation can happen at a specific site in the genome,compared to a mutagen that might cause mutations in several genes.
D)it works in humans but not in experimental organisms or cell culture.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Q1) The meiotic error that results in aneuploid cells is
A)crossing over.
B)nondisjunction.
C)recombination.
D)unequal segregation.
Q2) The type of chromosome abnormality that yields a long chromosome consisting of most of two acrocentric chromosomes is a(n)
A)Robertsonian translocation.
B)pericentric inversion.
C)paracentric inverson.
D)reciprocal translocation.
Q3) A karyotype that uses FISH that shows two chromosomes,each with two colors,but in the opposite patterns,most likely indicates a
A)Robertsonian translocation.
B)pericentric inversion.
C)paracentric inverson.
D)reciprocal translocation.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Q1) A common source of DNA for forensic testing is
A)the skin between the toes.
B)cells scraped from inside the cheek.
C)red blood cells.
D)mucus.
Q2) Familial DNA searches are controversial since innocent people may be accused based on sharing CODIS markers with convicted felons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Principles of population genetics must be applied to determine identity based on DNA profiling because
A)VNTRs are not found in all populations.
B)individuals are their own populations.
C)nonrandom mating does not occur in all populations.
D)alleles are invariant between all human populations.
Q4) Researchers began using short tandem repeats (STRs)because
A)shorter DNA molecules were more likely to persist in a violent situation.
B)each person has no more than one copy of each STR.
C)STRs are nonuniformly distributed.
D)restrictive enzymes cannot be used to cut short DNA molecules.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) The prevalence of a Y chromosome with the same sequences as Genghis Khan illustrates A)mutation.
B)natural selection.
C)nonrandom mating.
D)gene therapy.
Q2) Control of human reproduction to achieve a societal goal is called A)biogenics.
B)eugenics.
C)biodiversity.
D)natural selection.
Q3) Which of these affects allele frequencies the least?
A)natural selection
B)mutation
C)migration
D)genetic drift
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution
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Q1) The fact that modern Native Americans share certain genetic markers with indigenous populations in southern Siberia,but not with others,is evidence that
A)the ancestors of modern Native Americans migrated from Siberia to the Americas.
B)the ancestors of Native Americans migrated from Europe to the U.S.east coast.
C)the ancestors of modern Siberians migrated from the west coast of the U.S.to Russia.
D)Mitochondrial Eve lived in Siberia and her descendants migrated to the U.S.
Q2) Otzi the Ice Man is a well preserved example of A)Homo erectus.
B)Homo habilis.
C)Australopithecus robustus.
D)Homo sapiens.
Q3) The first primates with an angled skull base that were probably able to make a wide range of sounds to aid speech were A)Homo habilis.
B)Homo erectus.
C)Homo afarensis.
D)Homo sapiens.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Q1) Vaccinating a substantial portion of the population against an infectious disease establishes "herd immunity."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by fusing a
A)B cell and a cancer cell.
B)B cell and a T cell.
C)mast cell and a macrophage.
D)T cell and a plasma cell.
Q3) Mutation of the CCR5 coreceptor may have enabled people to survive various European plagues during the Middle Ages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The new approach to type blood,by identifying the instructions for the cell-surface antigens,is
A)serology.
B)genotyping.
C)gene therapy.
D)phenotyping.
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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) Tanisha was just diagnosed with an aggressive form of breast cancer called HER2.The cancer started because
A)she has a deletion in the BRCA1 gene that is found in African-American and Ashkenazi Jewish women.
B)her affected breast cells have many extra receptors for epidermal growth factor,and so they receive too many signals to divide.
C)her affected cells have extra genes for epidermal growth factor,sending signals for the cells to divide too frequently.
D)a translocation occurred between chromosomes 7 and 8,generating and activating a breast-specific oncogene.
Q2) A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse.The mouse develops tumors.This experiment indicates that cancer is
A)contact inhibited.
B)transplantable.
C)benign.
D)invasive.
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Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Patenting, modifying, and Monitoring Dna
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Q1) Which approach could be used to investigate distinctions between a muscle cell and a bone cell?
A)Gene expression profiling
B)DNA variation screening
C)Microarray comparative genomic hybridization
D)Transcription-mediated amplification
Q2) The requirements for patenting of an invention involving DNA in the U.S.are that it should be
A)new,useful,and not obvious to an expert in the field.
B)obvious,and no one should have previously been able to accomplish it.
C)helpful and affordable.
D)new,useful,and predicted by experts in the fielD.
Q3) To create a transgenic organism,a researcher
A)introduces foreign DNA into a fertilized ovum.
B)injects a gene of interest into a somatic cell.
C)injects a gene of interest into several somatic cells.
D)introduces foreign DNA into somatic cells in culture and transplants them.
Q4) RNA interference was discovered in 1998.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) Reginald receives a stem cell transplant to treat a blood cancer,multiple myeloma.His treatment is an example of A)germline gene therapy.
B)heritable gene therapy.
C)somatic gene therapy.
D)in vitro fertilization.
Q2) One of the most important types of information that a patient can bring to an initial appointment with a genetic counselor is
A)her immunization records from childhood.
B)results of a comprehensive lipid profile.
C)the family health history,extending to second degree relatives.
D)a list of the occupations of every family member.
Q3) Diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis cannot be based on the results of a genetic test alone because
A)the disease is incompletely penetrant.
B)genetic tests are untrustworthy.
C)the disease is genetically heterogeneiC.
D)the disease is not inheriteD.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) Which of the following is an assisted reproductive technology?
A)Producing human insulin in bacteria
B)A couple conceive using sperm from a sperm bank.
C)A man donates part of his liver to his daughter,who has cystic fibrosis.
D)A woman has breast reduction surgery to alleviate back pain.
Q2) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)screens _____ for genetic disorders.
A)oocytes
B)spermatocytes
C)polar bodies
D)early embryos
Q3) The procedure in which fertilization takes place in a laboratory dish and the resulting zygote is placed in the woman's uterine tube is called
A)embryo transfer.
B)ZIFT.
C)RhoGAM.
D)GIFT.
Q4) A lesbian couple may use intrauterine insemination (IUI)to have a child.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) The part of the genome that encodes protein is called the A)intron.
B)exon.
C)exome.
D)prodrome.
Q2) The human genome project did not discover copy number variants because A)people did not know they existed.
B)the sequenced and overlapped DNA pieces were unique.
C)there are too many to count,and they overlap among individuals.
D)no restriction enzymes are known that cut at these sequences.
Q3) _____ was the first organism to have its entire genome sequenced.
A)The fruit fly
B)E.coli
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Mycoplasma genitalium
Q4) The original impetus to sequence the human genome was to investigate A)how the four nitrogenous bases encode information.
B)how people vary.
C)how cancer arises.
D)the effects of exposure to low-level radiation on the genetics of populations.
Page 24
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