Introduction to Genetics Test Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics provides a foundational exploration of the principles governing heredity and variation in living organisms. The course covers the structure and function of DNA, genes, and chromosomes, the mechanisms of genetic inheritance, and patterns of genetic variation. Students will examine Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, molecular genetics, and the role of genetics in evolution and human health. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, this course cultivates an understanding of how genetic information is transmitted and expressed, as well as the technological advances in genomic research.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding natural selection?
A)It is based on competition for resources
B)Beneficial traits are passed on to the next generation
C)It enables a species to become better adapted to its environment
D)It may drastically change a species over time
E)All of the answers are correct
Answer: E
Q2) Science may be conducted using a process called the scientific method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT one of the general classes of macromolecules that are necessary for cellular function?
A)Nucleic acids
B)Proteins
C)Ions
D)Carbohydrates
E)Lipids
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple would like to know what the probability is that out of five children, three will be girls. This is solved using which of the following?
A)Sum rule
B)Product rule
C)Chi-square test
D)Binomial expansion
E)Random sampling error
Answer: D
Q2) Mendel's work was rediscoved in 1900 by which of the following individual(s)?
A)Carl Correns
B)Erich von Tschermak
C)Hugh de Vries
D)All of the answers are correct
Answer: D
Q3) In a Punnett square diagram, the outside of the box represents the _________.
A)Diploid offspring
B)Haploid offspring
C)Diploid gametes
D)Haploid gametes
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and
Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zip1 is a protein in yeast that is required for synaptonemal complex formation. Assuming synaptonemal complexes are required for meiosis in yeast, where do you predict these cells arrest (stop progressing through meiosis)?
A)Prometaphase of meiosis I
B)Metaphase of meiosis I
C)Metaphase of meiosis II
D)Between the zygotene and pachytene stages
E) Diakinesis
Answer: D
Q2) Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________.
A)binary fission ; binary fission
B)binary fission ; mitosis
C)meiosis ; mitosis
D)mitosis ; binary fission
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Q1) Huntington disease in humans is an example of a(n) ____________.
A)essential gene
B)lethal allele
C)semilethal allele
D)nonessential gene
E) conditional lethal allele
Q2) When wild-type offspring are produced from a cross between parents that both display the same recessive phenotype, this illustrates the genetic phenomenon of _______.
A) simple recessive alleles
B) incomplete penetrance
C) complementation
D) gene dosage
E) a spontaneous mutation
Q3) If a geneticist describes a trait as being 70% penetrant, what would they mean?
A)Individuals with the trait show variation in expression
B)It is lethal in 30% of the individuals who have the trait
C)Only 70% of the individuals who carry the allele(s) for a trait express the trait
D)The trait is present in 70% of the population
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inheritance of leaf pigmentation in the four-o'clock plant Mirabilis jalapa is an example of ____.
A) maternal effect
B) maternal inheritance
C) epigenetic inheritance
D) imprinting
Q2) What encodes the toxin paramecin in Paramecia aurelia?
A)mtDNA
B)cpDNA
C)Nuclear DNA
D)Kappa particles
Q3) A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives inside another species is called _______.
A)cytoplasmic inheritance
B)heteroplasmy
C)paternal leakage
D)endosymbiosis
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of recombination associated with independent assortment should approximate 50%.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The genotype hsp+ HSP- is something that you could easily expect to find in the fungus Neurospora crassa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following?
A)The genes are 23.6 millimeters apart
B)There are 23.6 other genes between the two genes of interest
C)23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes
D)23.6% of the offspring do not survive
Q4) Which of the following statistical tests is used to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently?
A)Sum rule
B)Binomial expansion
C)Product rule
D)Chi-square test
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Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum size of the
A) 10%-20%
B) 30%
C) 0.5%-1%
D) 1%-2.5%
E)coli chromosome capable of being carried by a P1 phage?
Q2) In the experiment performed by Benzer for intragenic mapping which of the following is the most critical control?
A) Perform the experiment with each different virus alone to determine the rate of reversion mutation
B) Re-type the strain of E. coli
C) Test the agar to make sure it can support E. coli and viral growth
D) Perform at least five dilutions to make sure the dilutions were performed correctly
Q3) Complementation experiments are used to determine if two observed mutations that are associated with the same trait are actually in the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photographic representation of the chromosomes of an organism is called a(n)
A) allele variation
B) chromosomal spreading
C) chromosome picture
D) karyotype
Q2) You perform comparative genomic hybridization. Instead of using cancer cells, you accidentally make both red and green DNA molecules from normal tissue. What will your ratio of green fluorescence to red fluorescence be?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)There will be no signal.
Q3) The common goldfish Carassius auratus has 100 chromosomes and is tetraploid. The goldfish therefore has _____ sets of chromosomes containing ______ chromosomes each.
A)4; 25
B)2; 50
C)4; 100
D)1; 100
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______ was labeled using the radioisotope <sup>32</sup>P in the Hershey-Chase experiments.
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) protein
D) carbohydrates
Q2) The fact that the helixes of the DNA strand are arranged in opposite directions gives DNA its _____ characteristics.
A) antiparallel
B) complementary
C) redundant
D) water-soluble
Q3) Which base is not found in DNA?
A)Cytosine
B)Guanine
C)Thymidine
D)Adenine
E)Uracil
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Q1) The 30 nm fiber is formed from arrays of nucleosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would introduce more twists into the DNA molecule of a bacterial cell?
A)Negative super coiling
B)Positive super coiling
C)Chromatin remodeling
D)All of the answers are correct
Q3) Which of the following is correctly matched with its description?
A)Highly repetitive DNA contains transposable elements and genes that are expressed in abundance and thus have many copies.
B)Moderately repetitive DNA contains unique sequences, such as genes found in one or a few copies.
C)Non-repetitive DNA is composed of thousands of copies of many short repeats.
D)Moderately repetitive DNA contains retro elements, such as the Alu sequence.
E) Moderately repetitive DNA contains transposable elements and genes that are expressed in abundance and thus have many copies.
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA polymerase III is the main replication enzyme in prokaryotes. What is it in eukaryotes?
A)DNA pol a
B)DNA pol d
C)DNA pol b
D)DNA pol g
Q2) Responsible for the majority of DNA replication.
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA primase
C)Topoisomerase
D)DNA polymerase I
E)DNA polymerase III
Q3) The purpose of DNA replication is to produce ______.
A)Two daughter strands
B)Two parental strands
C)Two template strands
D)None of the answers are correct
Q4) A primosome consists of a polymerase and a single-stranded binding protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RNA polymerase forms a closed complex during the process of elongation during transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the process of RNA editing adenine or cytosine may be deaminated and the result is
A)Adenine is changed to inosine and cytosine is changed to thymidine
B)Although both bases are covalenty changed there is no alteration in the tRNAs the modified bases may engage
C)The new bases effectively result in new codons
D)Answers adenine is changed to inosine and cytosine is changed to thymidine and the new bases effectively result in new codons are correct (Although both bases are covalenty changed there is no alteration in the tRNAs the modified bases may engage is incorrect)
E) Answers adenine is changed to inosine and cytosine is changed to thymidine and although both bases are covalenty changed there is no alteration in the tRNAs the modified bases may engage are correct (The new bases effectively result in new codons is incorrect)
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is responsible for binding the initiator tRNA in eukaryotes?
A)eIF2
B)EF-Tu
C)eIF3
D)EF-G
Q2) What site on the ribosome is primarily responsible for holding the growing polypeptide?
A)A
B)E
C)P
Q3) 61 different tRNAs are required for translation both in vivo and in vitro.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the name of the enzyme that adds CCA to the 3' end of tRNAs?
A)tRNA nucleotidyltransferase
B)Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C)RNA polymerase
D)Peptidyl transferase
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lac operon, the operator is an example of a trans-effect genetic regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mutation in the lacI gene prevents the gene product from binding allolactose. What will the expression level of the operon be in the absence of lactose?
A)no transcription
B)postive regulation
C)constitutively active
D)low level of expression
Q3) A riboswitch only affects translation of an operon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many promoters are in an operon?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)It depends on how many genes are present in the operon
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulators exert their effects on gene expression through histone acetyltransferase, histone deacetylase, and RNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely location of an insulator sequence?
A)At the end of a gene
B)In the middle of a gene
C)At the beginning of a gene
D)Between two genes
E) Within an intron
Q3) Methylation of DNA bases is one way that regulatory transcription factors may influence gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What activates CREB?
A)Binding of cAMP
B)Phosphorylation
C)Dimerization
D)Lowering of cAMP concentration
E) Binding to GRE
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the consequence if an individual was homozygous for an IBP that could not bind iron but could bind to the IRE?
A) Unregulated transferrin receptor levels
B) Increased degradation of ferritin
C) Possible iron toxicity to the cells at levels of iron that would not normally be toxic to a cell
D) There would be no predicted consequence to iron metabolism in the cell
Q2) Which of the following statements are correct?
A)Changes in gene expression based on environmental conditions are not considered normal while developmental changes are
B)Environmental epigenetic changes can vary due to the exposure of the organism to different environmental conditions, while those programmed during development are the result of stimuli generated by the organism itself
C)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation only occurs in reptiles and insects, while developmental epigenetic regulation occurs in all animals
D)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically reversible while developmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically not reversible.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase copies
A)DNA to DNA.
B)DNA to RNA.
C)RNA to DNA.
D)RNA to RNA.
Q2) The HIV genome contains nine genes, and therefore encodes just nine proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Azidothymidine (AZT) is mentioned in your book as an HIV drug. AZT is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. That means AZT is only effective during the ______ stage of the viral life cycle.
A)entry
B)integration
C)viral assembly
D)release
Q4) The Gag polyprotein is cleaved into
A)Vif and Vpu
B)HIV protease, reverse transcriptase, and integrase
C)Matrix protein, capsid protein, nucleocapsid protein, and p6
D)Vpr, Rev, Tat, and Nef
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in a promoter region that causes the promoter sequence to more closely resemble the consensus sequence is called an up promoter mutation and results in a decrease in transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A culture of
A) Physiological adaptation theory
B) Random mutation theory
C) Both theories
D) Neither theory
E)coli bacteria is used to establish several subcultures.Each subculture is then plated and individulal colonies that grow on the agar plates are then tested for their sensitivity to the bacteriophage T1. There is a spectrum of sensitivities where some plates have a high number of resistant colonies and some plates had very few. This data supports which theory?
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20
Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) Transposable elements in bacteria are commonly called insertion sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Long-terminal repeats are unique to which group of transposons?
A)Composite transposon
B)Non-viral retro element
C)Viral-like retro element
D)Replicative transposon
E)Insertion sequence
Q3) Which of the following enzymes is required for a transposon to move?
A)Integrase
B)Jumpase
C)Splicase
D)Transposase
Q4) Which of the following describes attP and attB of bacteriophage \(\lambda\)?
A)Specific proteins in the cell membrane
B)A unique set of phospholipids that identify the organelle of interest
C)Glycoproteins in the cell wall
D)Specific DNA sequences that are recognized by integrase
21
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Q1) A vector is a small segment of DNA that a gene of interest is inserted into for cloning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the purpose of DNA ligase in a cloning experiment?
A)The purpose is to proofread the vector for mistakes.
B)The purpose is to reestablish the stable sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA molecule.
C)The purpose is to allow the vector to enter into the cell.
D)The purpose is to function as a selectable marker.
Q3) What technique can be used to determine DNA-protein interactions?
A)Western blotting
B)PCR
C)DNAse I foot printing
D)restriction enzyme analysis
Q4) What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction?
A)The DNA strands separate
B)The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA
C)The primers bind to complementary sequences of the template DNA
D)The reaction stops
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematopoietic stem cells are _________.
A)Pluripotent
B)Totipotent
C)Unipotent
D)Multipotent
Q2) A major disadvantage with current gene therapy techniques using viral vectors is the possibility of an immune response against the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following cells is not pluripotent?
A)ES cells
B)EG cells
C)EC cells
D)All of the answers are pluripotent
E)None of the answers are pluripotent
Q4) In gene addition, homologous recombination is used to remove the original gene and replace it with the cloned gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) What does physical mapping provide that the other types of genetic mapping do not?
A)Recombination distances between genes
B)Number of nucleotide base-pairs between genes
C)Relationship of the gene to specific chromosomal banding patterns
Q2) If all members of a population have the identical DNA sequence at a given site, that site is said to be _______.
A)Monomorphic
B)Polymorphic
C)Trimorphic
Q3) A site that has variation within the members of the population is said to be ________.
A)Monomorphic
B)Polymorphic
C)Trimorphic
Q4) An amplified restriction fragment length polymorphism is a combination of the procedures for producing RFLP and STS markers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) What would be the most reasonable technique to use to determine if a drug is capable of inhibiting a transcription factor?
A) ChIP assay used with a DNA microarray
B) Mass spectometry of proteins in the cell
C) 2-D gel electrophoresis
D) Antibody microarray
Q2) A pattern recognition algorithm examines a string of nucleotides for sections that match a specific sequence parameter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What technique is used to separate cellular proteins for analysis?
A)Western blots
B)Antibody microarrays
C)Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
D)Functional protein microarrays
Q4) A functional protein microarray can be used to establish the function or substrates for a given group of proteins.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) The general approach in which researchers and clinicians use methods that enable them to understand the molecular changes that occur in diseases such as cancer is called _________.
A)molecular profiling
B)personalized medicine
C)DNA microarrays
D)cluster analysis
Q2) DNA damage is sensed by E2F at the G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub> checkpoints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Programmed cell death is called genome maintenance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of human cancers are caused by ______.
A)viral infections
B)inherited mutations
C)spontaneous mutations
D)carcinogens
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) What is the first stage of embryonic pattern development in Drosophila?
A)limb position
B)body axes
C)segmentation patterns
D)metamorphosis
Q2) A Drosophila larva that develops from an oocyte that has no bicoid mRNA will have what developmental defect?
A)only ventral structures
B)no dorsal structures
C)only anterior structures
D)only posterior structures
Q3) Cell lineage diagrams are most easily prepared in which model organisms?
A)Drosophila melanogaster
B)C.elegans
C)Xenopus laevis
D)Arabidopsis thaliana
Q4) Studies of invertebrate and vertebrate development suggest that there is a universal body plan for animal development.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) A heterogeneous environment is typically a ______ factor against the fitness of the population.
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Neutral
Q2) The formula p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1 is associated with which of the following?
A)Calculations of heterozygosity
B)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C)Calculations of recombination frequencies
D)Degrees of freedom
Q3) If the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4, what value is used for the term p<sup>2</sup> in the equation p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1?
A)0.4
B)0.2
C)0.16
D)16
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) The variance is sum of the standard deviation from the mean divided by the degrees of freedom.
A)True B)False
Q2) The fact that quantitative traits may be based on a polygenic basis was first discovered in studies of DDT resistance in Drosophila.
A)True B)False
Q3) Realized heritability may be determined from artificial selection experiments.
A)True B)False
Q4) A regression analysis predicts how much one variable will change in response to a change in a second variable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) What is the most common form of cladogenesis?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
Q2) Homologous genes that are found in different species are called A)paralogs.
B)orthologs.
C)gene families.
D)clades.
Q3) Many species of cats (including big cats like lions, tigers, etc.) have tails. For cats, tails are likely to be a ______.
A)synapomorphy
B)shared derived character
C)ancestral character
D)clade
Q4) Researchers who study molecular evolution often analyze DNA sequences using computer programs which identify homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
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