Introduction to Genetics Solved Exam Questions
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Genetics is a foundational course that explores the principles governing heredity and variation in living organisms. It covers the structure and function of genes, chromosomes, and DNA, as well as the mechanisms of inheritance, gene expression, and mutation. Students will learn about Mendelian and non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance, genetic mapping, molecular genetics techniques, and the role of genetics in evolution, medicine, and biotechnology. The course emphasizes problem-solving and critical thinking through case studies and laboratory exercises, preparing students for further study in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics From Genes to Genomes 5th Edition by Leland H. Hartwell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: The Study of Biological Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most recently what technical advancement has accelerated the study of genomes?
A)The ability to sequence large complex genomes rapidly and economically.
B)The ability to isolate and sequence individual genes.
C)The ability to screen for mutations in individual genes.
D)The ability to determine the expression of all the mRNAs in a single cell.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the difference between the structure of DNA and proteins?
A)DNA is composed of amino acids and proteins are composed of nucleotides.
B)DNA is composed of the 4 nucleotides A, G, C and T while proteins are composed of the 4 nucleotides A, G, C and U
C)DNA is composed of nucleotides and proteins are composed of amino acids
D)DNA is composed of 10 different amino acids while proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids
Answer: C
Q3) A genome can be best described as
A)a segment of DNA that codes for a protein.
B)DNA associated with proteins
C)an A-T or G-C nucleotide pair.
D)all the genes in a cell
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Mendels Principles of Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How was the approach taken by Mendel similar to the approaches taken by modern scientific inquiry?
A)Mendel repeated his rexperiments
B)Mendel only manipulated a single variable.
C)Mendel used the same technical methods are are used today.
D)Mendel's experiments challenged several hypotheses that were favored at the time.
Answer: A
Q2) If individuals 1 and 4 have a child together, what is the probability that the child will exhibit the disease?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Extensions to Mendels Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predict the phenotypic ratio of the F<sub>2</sub> progeny of a parental cross between a homozygous black rat and an albino homozygous for cream.
A)1 albino : 2 black : 1 cream
B)9 black : 3 cream : 4 albino
C)9 black : 3 albino : 4 cream
D)12 black : 3 cream : 1 albino
E)12 black : 3 albino : 1 cream
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a phenotypic description of allele interactions affecting the expression of traits?
A)incomplete dominance
B)codominance
C)polymorphic
D)multifactorial
E)pleiotrophic
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
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Q1) In Drosophila virilis, nuclei of somatic cells contain 12 chromosomes while nuclei of sperm cells contain only 6 chromosomes.What does "n" equal for this species?
A)3
B)6
C)12
D)24
E)6 or 12, depending on cell type
Q2) Premeiotic germ cells that divide mitotically in females are referred to as A)primary oocytes.
B)secondary oocytes.
C)ootids.
D)oogonia.
E)ova.
Q3) A chromosome with two arms of equal length is referred to as A)acrocentric.
B)homologous.
C)telocentric.
D)metazoan.
E)metacentric.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Linkage, Recombination, and the Mapping of
Genes on Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The R/r and S/s genes are linked and 10 map units apart.In the cross Rs / rS * rs / rs what percentage of the progeny will be Rs / rs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)25%
D)40%
E)45%
Q2) his4/trp1; his4/trp1; HIS4/TRP1;HIS4/TRP
A)PD
B)NPD
C)T
D)Cannot be determined
Q3) Two genes are considered linked when F<sub>2</sub> progeny more commonly show the recombinant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws; ws; ws; ws
A)First-division segregation pattern
B)Second-division segregation pattern
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure, Replication, and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protein that progressively unwinds DNA ahead of each replication fork is called A)primase.
B)helicase.
C)topoisomerase.
D)telomerase.
E)ligase.
Q2) The nicking of DNA that initiates recombination during mitosis may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
A.instructions from the normal cell cycle program.
B.X-rays.
C.chemical damage.
D.physical damage.
E.radiation.
Q3) DNA is localized mainly in the A)cell membrane.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)vacuoles.
D)chromosomes.
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy and Function of a Gene: Dissection
Through Mutation
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Q1) The term mutation refers to
A)only changes in the DNA that result in new phenotypes.
B)only changes in the DNA that result in novel proteins.
C)any change in the DNA of a cell.
D)a heritable change in the DNA of a cell.
E)any change in the cell that changes its survival chances.
Q2) In the human genetic disorder Alkaptonuria, urine turns black because of the presence of homogentisic acid in individuals with the trait.This is due to
A)the presence of large amounts of homogentisic acid in the diet.
B)failure of individuals with Alkaptonuria to manufacture enzymes involved in the synthesis of homogentisic acid.
C)failure of wild-type individuals to manufacture enzymes involved in the synthesis of homogentisic acid.
D)failure of the kidneys to remove homogentisic acid from the urine.
E)failure of individuals with Alkaptonuria to manufacture enzymes involved in the breakdown of homogentisic acid.
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Chapter 8: Gene Expression: The Flow of Information From
DNA to RNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____________ consists of proteins and small nuclear RNAs forming discrete particles that mediate splicing.
A)holoenzyme
B)splicesome
C)nucleosome
D)ribosome
E)chromosome
Blooms Level 1: Remember
Q2) The appearance of a novel phenotype resulting from the substitution of a single base pair might be due to
A)change in the amino acid sequence only.
B)change in the amount of protein expressed.
C)alteration in a gene that codes for a nontranslated RNA.
D)change in the developmental time or location at which a gene is expressed.
E)All of the choices are possible consequences of a single base pair substitution. Blooms Level 3: Apply
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Chapter 9: Digital Analysis of Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the BLAST tool at http://blast.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/Blast.cgi and click "Protein blast" to find out the identity of the protein with the following amino acid sequence: CCKHPEAKRM
PCAEDYLSVV LNQLCVLHEK TPVSDRVTKC CTESLVNRRP
A)myosin
B)actin
C)albumin
D)DNA polymerase
E)tubulin
Q2) What proportion of the genome is comprised of the exome?
A)< 0.1%
B)2%
C)10%
D)20%
E)45%
Q3) What information cannot be determined from the DNA sequence of a cDNA clone?
A)exon sequences
B)sequence of the promoter
C)similarity to previously identified sequences
D)amino acid sequence of the encoded polypeptides
E)sequence of the spliced mRNA transcript
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Chapter 10: Analyzing Genomic Information
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Q1) How many bases do deletions, duplications, and insertions most frequency involve?
A)1
B)10
C)100
D)1000
Q2) Deletions and duplications are most often caused by
A)ultraviolet light.
B)chemical damage.
C)unequal crossing over.
D)spontaneous errors in DNA replication.
Q3) The process of _______ removes amniotic fluid from a pregnant mother to examine fetal cells for genetic problems.
A)amniocentesis
B)chorionic villus sampling
C)preimplantation genetic diagnosis
D)in vitro fertilization
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Chapter 11: The Eukaryotic Chromosome
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Q1) When constructing a YAC, why must a large amount of random DNA be included?
A)The random DNA base pairs with DNA in the natural chromosomes of a cell.
B)YACs that are too small do not segregate properly during mitosis and the random DNA is used as filler.
C)The random DNA functions as telomeres.
D)The random DNA contains origins of replication needed for maintenance of the YAC.
E)The random DNA allows YACs to be used in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
Q2) Cohesins are a multisubunit protein complex that functions to
A)hold sister chromatids together.
B)ensure that proper chromosome arm length is maintained.
C)allow easy karyotyping.
D)develop meiotic chromosome replication.
Q3) With regard to the typical human cell, which of the following appears to be true?
A)There is only one origin of replication.
B)There are multiple origins of replication that function consecutively.
C)There are multiple origins of replication that function simultaneously.
D)Replication is not understood well enough to postulate on replication origins.
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Rearrangements and Changes
in Chromosome Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) Down syndrome can result from
A)three copies of chromosome 21.
B)a translocation of a part of chromosome 9.
C)a reciprocal translocation between any two autosomes.
D)trisomy X
Q2) The condition of semisterility is most closely associated with A)chromosomal duplications.
B)pericentric inversions.
C)translocation heterozygotes.
D)translocation homozygotes.
Q3) Moves DNA directly
A) retroposon
B) transposon
C) transposable element
D) transposase
Q4) A piece of genetic material that moves from place to place in the genome
Q5) Moves in the genome with the aid of an RNA intermediate
Page 14
Q6) A change in the genetic material where a DNA sequence changes orientation
Q7) A change in the genome whereby copies of one or more genes are added to the genome
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horizontal gene transfer can
A)accelerate evolution of a species
B)inihbit evolution of a species.
C)has no role in evolution.
D)only has a role in evolution if the transfer is to a different species.
Q2) A strain of E.coli is trp? his? lac?.Which medium would this bacterium grow on?
A)lactose + histidine + tryptophan
B)glucose + histidine + tryptophan
C)maltose + histidine + tryptophan
D)minimal glucose, no histidine, no tryptophan
E)glucose + histidine + tryptophan and maltose + histidine + tryptophan
Q3) Two F<sup>+</sup> E coli strains are co-cultured in the same flask.One is Str<sup>r</sup> Thr<sup>+</sup> and the other is Gen<sup>r</sup> Thr<sup>-</sup>.The culture is then plated on minimal media that is supplemented with gentamycin only and a few colonies grow.What sort of genetic exchange is most likely occurring?
A)Transformation
B)Conjugation
C)Transduction
D)Electroporation
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Chapter 14: Organellar Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to gene transfer between the organelles and the nucleus
A)some organelles may only survive in the cells in which they have transfered genes.
B)organelle genomes are the same between species
C)none of the genes that have been transfered are essential for organelle functioning.
D)organelle genomes experience lower rates of mutation.
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to mitochondrial genes?
A)They are transmitted, largely intact, from parent to offspring.
B)Their inheritance shows Mendel's principle of segregation.
C)Their inheritance shows Mendel's principle of independent assortment.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A researcher hopes that a plant cell, after being shot with a gene gun, will A)die.
B)incorporate foreign DNA into its nucleus.
C)mutate to a new genotype.
D)show uniparental inheritance.
Q4) Maternal-chloroplast inherited
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sigma factor that mediates a global heat shock response in E.coli is
A)sigma 70.
B)sigma 32.
C)sigma 34.
D)sigma 72.
E)sigma 36.
Q2) What would be the phenotype of a nonsense mutation in the lac repressor function?
A)constitutive expression of the Lac operon.
B)inducible expression of the Lac operon.
C)permanently repressed expression of the Lac operon.
D)cannot predict what would happen to expression of the Pac operon
Q3) Anabolic pathways involved in the synthesis of essential molecules are usually regulated by
A)end product of the pathway.
B)substrate of the pathway.
C)other metabolites that are limiting.
D)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gene products encoded by trans-acting elements perform their function by
A)associating with regulatory sequences distant from the gene from which they were transcribed.
B)regulating the expression of the gene from which they were transcribed.
C)the association of nucleotides with the elongating RNA transcript.
D)physically associating with DNA polymerase.
E)regulating the activity of telomerase.
Q2) What does RNA polymerase I synthesize?
A)dsRNA
B)mRNA
C)tRNA
D)snRNA
E)rRNA
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of enhancer DNA sequences?
A)They contain the TATA box regulatory element.
B)They retain function if their nucleotide sequence is inverted.
C)They can be more than 10 kilobases from the gene they regulate.
D)They may increase or decrease gene transcription levels.
E)They may contain multiple regulatory elements.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Manipulating the Genomes of Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is one problem associated with using retroviruses as human gene therapy vectors?
A)Their random integration into the host chromosome may result in detrimental mutations.
B)They need to integrate through an RNA intermediate.
C)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very low.
D)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very high.
Q2) How can transgenics be used in gene expression studies?
A)A reporter gene can be cloned so that it is under the control of tissue specific regulatory regions.
B)A gene from the trasngenic chromosome can be cloned under an arteficial promoter and enhancer regions.
C)A gene from the trasngenic chromosomes can be cloned under the control of its normal regulatory regions.
D)A misense mutation of a gene froound in the transgenic organisms genome can be cloned under the control of synthetic regulatory regions.
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Chapter 18: The Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the three characteristics of value to geneticists for model organisms?
A)ease of cultivation
B)rapid reproduction
C)small size
D)small genome
Q2) How are temperature sensitive mutants used to determine when genes act during development?
A)Embryos can be shifted to the non-permissive temperature to inactivate the mutant gene and the effect of inactivation on subsequent stages observed.
B)Embryos can be shifted to the permissive temperature to inactivate the mutant gene and the effect of inactivation on subsequent stages observed.
C)Adults can be shifted to the non-permissive temperature to inactivate the mutant gene and the effect of inactivation on fertilization can be observed.
D)Embryos can be shifted to the permissive temperature to activate the mutant gene and the effect of activation on subsequent stages observed.
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Chapter 19: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) The retinoblastoma (Rb) protein regulates progression into S phase by regulating ___________ activity.
A)cyclin D
B)p53
C)CDK4
D)E2F
E)CDC28
Q2) What kind of information will be used for personalized cancer treatment?
A)PCR and sequencing of 1-2 oncogenes
B)Whole genome sequencing.
C)PCR analysis of the RB and p53 genes.
D)PCR and sequencing of 6-10 tumor suppressor genes.
Q3) The activity of Rb is regulated by A)its phosphorylation state.
B)cyclin A.
C)E2F.
D)its polyA tail.
E)its level of methylation.
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Chapter 20: Variation and Selection in Populations
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Q1) What evidence supports the hypothesis that humans originated in Africa?
A)H.spaiens genomes contain some Neaderthal DNA sequences.
B)A Y chromosomal mutation is common in 1 in 1,000 males in Asia.
C)Mt sequence variation is least in African populations.
D)Mt sequence variation is highest in African populations.
Q2) The Hardy-Weinberg equation is best at predicting short term genotypic frequencies since
A)the equation does not take into consdieration epistatic effects.
B)it is based on inhertiance based on Mendel's second law.
C)the equation is based on Mendelian principles of single gene inheritance.
D)over the long term some of the assumptions of the equation will not be true.
Q3) Biological ancestry describes the
A)the possibility of inheriting mitochondria from the mother.
B)memebers of different generations interact.
C)shared genes but not parentage.
D)parentage and not shared genes.
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Chapter 21: Genetics of Complex Traits
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Q1) The total phenotype variance (V<sub>P</sub>) is
A)the sum of genetic variance (V<sub>G</sub>) and environmental variance (V<sub>E</sub>).
B)the difference between V<sub>G</sub> and V<sub>E</sub>.
C)not dependent on V<sub>G</sub>.
D)not dependent on V<sub>E</sub>.
E)always constant.
Q2) Multifactorial traits
A)are affected by both genetic and environmental factors.
B)usually do not result in continuous phenotypes.
C)are not usually affected by environmental conditions.
D)usually result in one or two phenotypic values such as red/white eye color in Drosophila.
Q3) By definition linkage disequilibrium means that
A)two alleleic variants correlate with the presence of a particular phenotype.
B)two alleleic variants do not correlate with the presence of a particular phenotype.
C)that two alleleic variants are at least 60 mu apart.
D)two alleleic variants are 50 mu apart
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