Introduction to Genetics Question Bank
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Genetics explores the fundamental principles governing inheritance and variation in living organisms. This course covers the structure and function of genes, the molecular basis of genetic information, and the mechanisms of genetic transmission in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Students will learn about Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, gene expression and regulation, genetic mutations, and the use of modern genetic technologies in research and society. Emphasis is placed on developing analytical skills through problem-solving and understanding the role of genetics in health, evolution, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the best answer from the list below.Not all of the answers will be used.
a.alleles
b.de novo mutations
c.point mutations
d.nucleases
e.DNA polymerase
f.Tatum and Beadle
g.Gregor Mendel
1.___one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2.___gene variants
3.___cut DNA at specific location
4.___unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5.___DNA replication
Answer: 1. ___f__one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
2. ___a__gene variants
3. ___d__cut DNA at specific location
4. ___b__unique DNA variants that exist in a child but neither of its parents.
5. ___e__DNA replication
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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation occurs in a germ cell of a pure-breeding,wild-type male mouse prior to DNA replication.The mutation is not corrected,and the cell undergoes DNA replication and a normal meiosis producing four gametes.How many of these gametes will carry the mutation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)It is impossible to predict.
Answer: B
Q2) Mice (Mus musculus)have 40 chromosomes per diploid cell (2n = 40).How many double- stranded DNA molecules and how many chromosomes are there in a mouse cell that is in the G2 stage of the cell cycle?
A)40 DNA molecules and 20 chromosomes
B)40 DNA molecules and 40 chromosomes
C)40 DNA molecules and 80 chromosomes
D)80 DNA molecules and 40 chromosomes
E)80 DNA molecules and 80 chromosomes
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a trihybrid,how many different gamete genotypes can be produced with respect to the three genes of interest?
A)3
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)27
Answer: C
Q2) A corn plant of genotype A/a;B/B;C/c;D/d;E/e;f/f;G/g is selfed.How many different completely homozygous genotypes could be produced?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)32
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by
Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a linear tetrad analysis,the second division segregation (M<sub>II</sub>)frequency of the cyh locus is 16%.The map distance from this locus to its centromere is:
A)4 m.u.
B)8 m.u.
C)16 m.u.
D)32 m.u.
E)50 m.u.
Q2) In a cross in which there is a mean crossover frequency of 0.9 between two marker loci,the recombinant frequency for those loci will be:
A)5%.
B)10%.
C)30%.
D)45%.
E)90%.
Q3) Draw a linkage map or maps consistent with the following recombination frequencies:
a)A-B 30%,A-C 50%,B-C 50%,B-D 50%,A-D 50%,C-D 15%
b)A-B 30%,A-C 50%,B-C 20%,B-D 35%,A-D 50%,C-D 15%
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) To demonstrate linkage of two markers A and B by transformation,one needs to demonstrate that the frequency of transformation by:
A)A and B is greater than the product of their individual transformation frequencies.
B)A and B is greater than the sum of their individual transformation frequencies.
C)A and B is less than the product of their individual transformation frequencies.
D)A and B is less than the sum of their individual transformation frequencies.
E)A is equal to the frequency of transformation by B.
Q2) Strain A of E.coli is auxotrophic for methionine,while strain B is auxotrophic for lysine.Both strains are F<sup>-</sup>.You want to produce a strain that is prototrophic.Design an experiment to produce the desired prototroph.Include in your experimental design your screening method for detecting the prototroph.
Q3) Two labs calculated cotransduction frequencies for the genes A and B.Lab 1 calculated 0.63,and lab 2 calculated 0.47.Which lab reported the genes to be closer together?
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Chapter 6: Gene Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,the ABO blood type is determined mainly by four alleles of one gene,defined by the following allelic series: I<sup>A</sup> = I<sup>B</sup><sup> </sup>> i.(I<sup>A</sup> is codominant to I<sup>B</sup>,and i/i results in blood type O).What matings can potentially produce children of any of the four blood types?
Q2) In loppins (fictitious diploid invertebrates),ear shape is controlled by two genes with two alleles each;upright ears (F)is dominant to floppy ears (f),and double-pointed ears (P)is dominant to single-pointed ears (p).Moreover,due to genetic interactions,floppy ears are always single-pointed.A loppin with floppy ears is crossed to a loppin with upright single-pointed ears,and the phenotypic ratios in the offspring are 2 floppy : 1 double-pointed upright : 1 single-pointed upright.What are the genotypes of the parents?
A)p/p;f/f and p/p;F/f
B)P/p;f/f and p/p;F/F
C)P/p;f/f and p/p;F/f
D)P/P;f/f and p/p;F/F
E)P/p;F/f and p/p;F/f
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8
Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primase and telomerase enzymes are both considered types of:
A)DNA polymerases.
B)retroviruses.
C)transcription factors.
D)reverse transcriptases.
Q2) In eukaryotic DNA replication,re-association of histones with newly formed DNA is accomplished by:
A)spontaneous association of histones with DNA.
B)chromatin assembly factor (CAF-1)attaching to the primase enzyme.
C)histones only associating with new DNA after the chromosome is completely replicated.
D)histones not releasing DNA during replication.
E)chromatin assembly factor 1 (CAF-1)and histones binding to the sliding clamp structure.
Q3) What structural feature of DNA suggests a possible method of its replication?
A)The nucleotides between nucleotide strands are complementarily paired.
B)The hydrogen bonds between A-T and G-C are the same on all DNA molecules.
C)The DNA strands run anti-parallel.
D)The phosphate bonds in the backbone of all DNA molecules.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a chromosome,which of the following is TRUE?
A)RNAs of different genes can be transcribed off either DNA strand,but always 5' to 3'.
B)RNAs of different genes can be transcribed off either DNA strand,but always 3' to 5'.
C)The RNAs of all genes are synthesized 5' to 3' off the same DNA strand.
D)The RNAs of all genes are synthesized 3' to 5' off the same DNA strand.
E)Different genes can be transcribed off either strand,some in the 5' to 3' direction and some in the 3' to 5' direction.
Q2) In what cellular compartment are introns removed from pre-mRNA to make mature mRNA?
A)cytoplasm
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)nucleus
D)mitochondria
E)Golgi apparatus
Q3) Name the three major modifications of mRNA in eukaryotes before it is transported to the cytoplasm.In addition,tell why each of the modifications is necessary.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the initiation of prokaryotic translation,a defect in IF3 function would generate:
A)inefficient association of the 30S and 50S subunits.
B)proteolysis of the 50S subunit.
C)an inability of tRNA and mRNA binding to the 30S subunit.
D)premature association of the 30S and 50S subunits.
E)normal progression of translation (no defect).
Q2) DNA probes are often synthesized based on knowledge of the protein produced by a gene.What might be a potential problem of synthesizing DNA probes in this manner?
A)The deduced DNA probe would be missing introns associated with prokaryotic genes.
B)Because codons in DNA are redundant,knowing which codon to assign an amino acid may be difficult.
C)The deduced DNA probe would be missing introns associated with eukaryotic genes.
D)Because codons in DNA are redundant,knowing which codon to assign an amino acid may be difficult,as well as the deduced DNA probe would be missing introns associated with eukaryotic genes.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
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11
Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) This linear vector is comprised of bacteriophage genome components and can carry cloned DNA up to 15 kb in size.
A)pUC19
B)lambda
C)fosmid
D)bacterial artificial chromosome
E)T-vector
Q2) A transgenic mouse is different from a knockout mouse in that:
A)transgenic mice have DNA added to their genome.
B)transgenic mice do not have DNA added to their genome.
C)the transgene is inserted at a random (ectopic)site in the genome.
D)a knockout mouse is more healthy than a transgenic mouse.
E)the knockout mouse is sterile.
Q3) Bacterial artificial chromosomes are comprised of:
A)components of the bacterial F plasmid and can carry large inserts (200,000 bp).
B)fosmid DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.
C)viral lambda DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.
D)a bacterial chromosome,with some artificial components.
E)recombinant proteins isolated from specific phage viruses.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) phenotype of I<sup>+</sup> O<sup>+</sup> Z<sup>-</sup> / I<sup>+ </sup>O<sup>C </sup>Z<sup>+</sup>
A)temporal control
B)positive control
C)negative control
D)inducible
E)noninducible
F)repressible
G)constitutive
H)operator
I)repressor
J)effector molecule
K)feedback inhibition
L)suppressor mutation
Q2) A promoter mutation (P<sup>-</sup>)results in:
A)no transcription.
B)inducible transcription.
C)transcription but no translation.
D)no translation.
E)constitutive transcription.
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regions of a chromosome that are bundled in highly condensed chromatin are known as:
A)homochromatin.
B)heterochromatin.
C)euchromatin.
D)epichromatin.
E)hyperchromatin
Q2) Compared to heterochromatin,euchromatin is:
A)rich in genes and comprised of densely packed nucleosomes.
B)poor in genes and comprised of densely packed nucleosomes.
C)rich in genes and comprised of loosely packed nucleosomes.
D)poor in genes and comprised of loosely packed nucleosomes.
E)rich in genes and completely lacking nucleosomes.
Q3) The GAL4 protein has which of the following functional domains?
A)a DNA-binding domain
B)an activation domain
C)a repressor domain
D)a DNA-binding domain and an activation domain
E)a DNA-binding domain and a repressor domain
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The homeotic,gap,pair-rule,and segment polarity genes all control:
A)aspects of anterior-posterior pattern formation.
B)the number of segments.
C)the developmental fates (identities)of the individual segments.
D)dorsal-ventral pattern formation.
E)the production of the anterior-posterior morphogens.
Q2) The formation of stripe 2 in a Drosophila embryo is controlled by the binding of four transcription factors to the eve stripe 2 cis-acting regulatory element.This includes:
A)one maternal protein and three gap proteins.
B)one paternal protein and three gap proteins.
C)one pair-rule,one segment-polarity,and two gap proteins.
D)two pair-rule and two gap proteins.
E)all maternal proteins.
Q3) The maternal-effect Bicoid gene codes for:
A)a signal protein.
B)a serine protease.
C)a DNA-binding transcription factor.
D)a cell-to-cell junction protein.
E)a transmembrane protein.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sanger DNA sequencing determines the nucleotide sequence because:
A)dideoxy nucleotides are incorporated into a growing DNA strand.
B)dideoxy nucleotides terminate the growing DNA strand.
C)PPi is incorporated into the growing DNA strand.
D)PPi is released from the growing DNA strand.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) Pyrosequencing determines the nucleotide sequence because:
A)dideoxy nucleotides are incorporated into a growing DNA strand.
B)dideoxy nucleotides terminate the growing DNA strand.
C)PPi is incorporated into the growing DNA strand.
D)PPi is released from the growing DNA strand.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) What is meant by "codon bias"?
A)Codons are specific for the amino acids they specify.
B)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome.
C)Some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
D)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome,and some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q4) Describe the information content of a genome.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are FALSE about Tc1 elements found in C.elegans?
A)Tc1 elements are retrotransposons.
B)Tc1 elements can transpose only in somatic cells.
C)Tc1 elements were used to study the RNAi based silencing mechanisms.
D)Single Tc1 element can trigger the silencing of all copies of Tc1 elements in the C.elegans genome.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) IS-induced mutations are different from missense mutations in that they are:
A)nonrevertible.
B)less severe.
C)more severe.
D)nonpolar.
E)not reverted by mutagens.
Q3) An autonomous element:
A)requires no other elements for its mobility.
B)requires one additional element(s)for its mobility.
C)is only found in corn (maize).
D)is found only in plants.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fragile X syndrome is caused by:
A)exposure to high doses of 5-bromouracil.
B)exposure to high doses of free radicals.
C)an inherited microdeletion.
D)spontaneous depurination.
E)trinucleotide expansion.
Q2) The rare enol form of thymine pairs with guanine.If a thymine enolization occurs during replication,what would be the mutational event?
A)AT to TA
B)CG to AT
C)CG to GC
D)GC to TA
E)TA to CG
Q3) A mutation that occurred in a plant petal would be best termed:
A)dominant.
B)germinal.
C)recessive.
D)somatic.
E)suppressor.
Q4) How do mutation and DNA damage differ?
18
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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that in a certain diploid fish genes A and T are on chromosomes 4 and 7,respectively.A female fish is heterozygous at both loci and is also heterozygous for a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 1 and 4.The translocation breakpoint on chromosome 4 is 10 map units away from the a allele (A is located on the normal chromosome 4). If this female is crossed to a male of genotype a/a;t/t and with normal chromosomes,what percentage of the progeny is expected to be phenotypically A;T and have only normal chromosomes?
A)0%
B)2)5%
C)22.5%
D)25%
E)45%
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic features is indicative of an inversion having occurred?
A)formation of chromosomal "loop" structures in meiosis I
B)reduced fertility
C)pseudodominance
D)formation of chromosomal loops during meiosis and reduced fertility
E)reduced fertility and pseudodominance
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequencing of a population of 110 dogs has revealed nine polymorphic sites within a small region of chromosome 11.All four possible variants were observed for each site.Based on these data,one can say that:
A)all the dogs in the sample population have different haplotypes.
B)different haplotypes have different frequencies in the sample population.
C)not all possible haplotypes are present in the sample population.
D)the sample population is not representative of the entire population.
E)some of the dogs in the sample population have the same haplotype.
Q2) You are studying an X-linked trait.There are two alleles,one showing complete dominance over the other.In females,84 percent show the dominant phenotype.What percentage of the males will show the dominant phenotype,assuming that individuals in this large population mate at random with respect to this trait?
A)84
B)60
C)40
D)36
E)16
Q3) How is the genetic composition of a population defined?
Q4) What processes increase genetic variation in a given population?
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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) In the course of estimating the degree of linkage of a marker and a quantitative trait of interest,researchers announced that they obtained a LOD score of 4.5.This finding indicates that:
A)there is a 4.5% chance that an individual with the marker will also show the trait of interest.
B)the marker is 4.5 map units away from the QTL controlling the trait of interest.
C)the marker is most likely not linked to the QTL controlling the trait of interest.
D)the odds that the marker is linked to the QTL controlling the trait of interest are 4.5:1.
E)the odds that the marker is linked to the QTL controlling the trait of interest are 4500:1.
Q2) A high variance indicates that:
A)the mean value is very high.
B)most values are very close to the mean.
C)most values are higher than the mean.
D)most values are lower than the mean.
E)the variation among the values is high.
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21
Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits
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Q1) An adaptive walk of beta-lactamase in response to selective pressure exerted by cefotaxime likely involved:
A)the random generation of five changes that provide microbial resistance to the antibiotic.
B)sequential changes in single amino acids that each provided an incremental level of resistance to the antibiotic.
C)increased genetic change induced by selective pressure exerted by the antibiotic.
D)one clear beneficial change and several non-impactful changes in the gene.
E)major shifts in the metabolic pathways in the microbe under selection.
Q2) The melanocortin 1 receptor protein displays four amino acid substitutions between dark- and light-colored populations of pocket mice.In dark mice,these unique amino acids cause the receptor to:
A)fold inappropriately in the cell membrane.
B)incorrectly identify ligand.
C)be non-functional in regulating gene expression.
D)be internalized and degraded.
E)be constitutively active.
Q3) Define the molecular clock.
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