Introduction to Genetics Question Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics provides a foundational understanding of the principles that govern heredity and variation in living organisms. The course explores the structure and function of DNA, genes, and chromosomes, and examines the molecular mechanisms behind gene expression and regulation. Students will study patterns of inheritance, including Mendelian and non-Mendelian genetics, and consider the genetic basis of development and disease. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and practical examples, the course emphasizes the role of genetics in evolution, biotechnology, and contemporary issues in biology.
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Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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1140 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The separation of genes during the formation of the sperm and egg and the reunion of genes at fertilization is explained by the behavior of chromosomes in a form of cell division called meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is an example of basic research?
A) Developing a new diagnostic test
B) Synthesizing proteins for treating disease
C) Manufacturing a vaccine
D) Developing a new drug to treat diabetes
E) Learning how plants turn carbon dioxide into sugar
Answer: E
Q3) Genetics is defined as the scientific study of ____.
A) diseases
B) DNA
C) heredity
D) chromosome structure
E) cell structure
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the cell cycle,the G1 phase represents ____.
A) the stage of DNA synthesis
B) splitting of the chromosomes into chromatids
C) a period of growth
D) the stage of actual cell division
E) the stage just prior to meiosis
Answer: C
Q2) The two types of nucleic acids are ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: DNA; RNA RNA; DNA
Q3) Sister chromatids are joined by a common centromere and each carries identical ____________________.
Answer: genetic information genes
Q4) The chromosomal structure that anchors the spindle fiber to the chromosome is known as the ____________________.
Answer: centromere
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Should states have mandatory screening programs that test every newborn for genetic disorders? Explain your reasoning.
Answer: Answers will vary.Some students may use portions of the following information for the basis of their answers.??All states have mandatory screening programs that test every newborn for genetic disorders.Some states test for only about four disorders,while others screen for up to 50.Some genetic disorders can be treated successfully if the condition is detected early in life.In spite of the benefits offered by such programs,critics charge that patients' privacy rights are violated because the programs are mandatory.Others feel that the results of such screening may be used in the future to restrict the reproductive rights of those diagnosed with a genetic disorder.
Q2) In Mendel's pea plant experiment,the trait of pea shape was represented by the two variations ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: smooth; wrinkled wrinkled; smooth
Q3) In crosses involving complete dominance,the F2 genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 and is expressed as a phenotypic ____________________ ratio (express as x:x).
Answer: 3:1
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are ____ basic patterns of Mendelian inheritance.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
E) seven
Q2) The phenotype of ____ does not develop until adulthood.
A) muscular dystrophy
B) Marfan syndrome
C) cystic fibrosis
D) hemophilia
E) Huntington's disease
Q3) List and explain at least three patterns of inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait.
Q4) Most of those affected with an autosomal dominant genetic disorder are homozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans requires a(n)____________________ of several generations.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Illustrate how the five basic human eye colors can be explained by a model using two genes (A and B),each of which has two alleles (A and a,B and b).
Q2) Spina bifida is one of the most common and most complex birth defects involving the ____ system.
A) nervous
B) circulatory
C) respiratory
D) digestive
E) endocrine
Q3) The contributions of genes and environmental factors are strictly defined during the study of complex traits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mendel's pea plants made good experimental subjects because they ____.
A) exhibit continuous variation
B) exhibit a variety of inheritance patterns
C) exhibit discontinuous variation and complete dominance
D) are sterile
E) have many complex traits that are easy to research
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than ____ percent of couples decide to terminate a Down syndrome pregnancy.
A) ten
B) thirty C) fifty
D) seventy E) ninety
Q2) The FRAX A site near the tip of the long arm of the X chromosome is associated with a form of intellectual disability known as Martin-Bell syndrome,or
Q3) Amniocentesis collects cells from the fluid surrounding the fetus in order to prepare a(n)____________________.
Q4) Changes in the number of copies of chromosomal DNA segments and the genes they contain are called ____________________.
Q5) Explain how the terms diploid and haploid relate to human chromosome number in both autosomes and sex cells.
Q6) A chromosome whose centromere is placed very close to,but not at,one end is called a(n)____________________ chromosome.
Q7) The long arm of a chromosome is called the ____________________ arm.
Q8) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Q1) In 2012,the International Olympic Committee began using tests that measure the levels and the body's response to the male hormone ____________________ as a means of distinguishing females from males when sex was questionable.
Q2) Pattern baldness is a(n)____ trait.
A) X-linked
B) Y-linked
C) sex-linked
D) sex-limited
E) sex-influenced
Q3) By the end of the first trimester of pregnancy,all of the major ____________________ have formed and are functional.
Q4) The undifferentiated genitalia of an early human embryo develops into male genitalia under the influence of ____.
A) oxytocin
B) prostaglandin and DHT
C) prolactin
D) testosterone, AMH, and DHT
E) Wolfian duct inhibitors
Q5) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism and give examples.
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Telomerase is an enzyme that adds telomere repeats to the ends of ____________________.
Q2) The woman scientist who made a major contribution to the discovery of the structure of DNA was _____________________.
Q3) Bacteriophages are viruses that ____.
A) catalyze bacterial reproduction
B) attach to bacterial cells and extract bacterial DNA
C) interfere with DNA replication in the cytoplasm of cells
D) produce histones
E) infect and copy themselves inside bacterial cells
Q4) ____________________ is spread by droplets produced when an infected person sneezes or coughs.
Q5) Summarize the process of DNA replication and outline the difference between how each strand replicates.
Q6) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin obtained X-ray diffraction photographs that indicted that DNA has a ____________________ shape with a constant diameter.
Q7) Cytosine,uracil,and thymine are single-ringed nitrogen-containing organic bases called ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) George Beadle and Edward Tatum discovered the key step in showing that genes produce ____________________ through the action of proteins.
Q2) The codon encoding the amino acid methionine functions as a start codon when it occurs at the beginning of a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The secondary structure of a protein forms ____.
A) pleated sheets or coils
B) when pleated sheet regions fold back on themselves
C) from interactions between polypeptide chains
D) from covalent bonding between amino acids
E) a functional chromatin unit
Q4) If the nucleotide sequence in a DNA template strand is GGCTTAACCATT; the complementary mRNA strand will have the sequence ____________________.
Q5) A protein folded into an infectious conformation that is the cause of several disorders is called a(n)____________________.
Q6) Proteins are the intermediary between a(n)____________________ and a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Q1) The simplest sugars are called ____________________,and two of these sugars linked together form a(n)____________________.
Q2) Discuss how the therapy for PKU would be different if the disease was not caused by the essential amino acid phenylalanine,but rather by a non-essential amino acid.Would the disorder be potentially more or less life-threatening? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) Metabolism is the sum of all _____________________ by which cells convert and utilize energy
Q4) Dr.Asbjorn Folling discovered that the blood of children affected by PKU reacted with ferric chloride to produce a green color indicating the presence of phenylalanine. A)True B)False
Q5) Even the replication of DNA and the expression of genes depend on the action of ____________________.
Q6) The study of genetic variations that affect people's responses to environmental agents,including man-made chemicals,is called ____________________.
Q7) Hemoglobin is a(n)____________________-containing protein in red blood cells.
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Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest single source of radiation exposure for the average person in the U.S.?
A) radon
B) medical X-rays
C) cosmic
D) nuclear medicine
E) consumer products
Q2) The ability of DNA polymerase to repair its own nucleotide mismatches is called ____________________.
Q3) When the direct method of measuring mutation rates is used,estimates are made for a specific ____________________ over a number of
Q4) People with cystic fibrosis display a single phenotype for the disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis have different levels of severity of the disease.
Q6) A cell that accumulates lots of mutational damage to its DNA may escape the normal controls of the cell cycle and become ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)____________________ between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 in chronic myelogenous leukemia results in a Philadelphia chromosome.
Q2) A proto-oncogene ____.
A) always becomes cancerous
B) causes cancer
C) encodes tumor-suppressing proteins
D) repairs DNA
E) regulates cell division
Q3) Genes that turn off or decrease the rate of cell division are known as ____________________ genes.
Q4) A cellular molecular pathway by which an external signal is converted into a functional response is called ____________________.
Q5) Cancer-causing mutations of the cell cycle ____.
A) increase the speed of the cycle
B) cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle
C) eliminate one or more stages of the cycle
D) interfere with S phase of the cycle
E) stop the cycle and cause a build-up of cell toxins
Q6) Mutant forms of proto-oncogenes are called ____________________.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Growth hormones given to dairy cows would still be necessary to stimulate milk production in a cloned animal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A series of techniques in which DNA fragments from an organism are linked to self-replicating vectors to create recombinant DNA molecules,which are then replicated in a host cell,is called ____________________.
Q3) Explain the role of probes in the search for a specific human gene within a genome library.
Q4) During in vitro fertilization,the fertilized egg ____.
A) is enucleated and fused with a donor egg
B) develops in a Petri dish to form an embryo containing 64 to 128 cells
C) develops in a Petri dish to form an embryo containing four to eight cells
D) develops in the host animal and eventually results in a clone born to the host
E) undergoes a second fertilization with a donor animal's sperm
Q5) Consumer fears and uncertainty about the safety of cloned milk and meat have prevented these products from being sold in stores even though the ____________________ has ruled that such food is safe.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first commercial product made with recombinant DNA techniques was ____________________.
Q2) Explain the advantages of using recombinant DNA technology to produce human proteins in transgenic plants,animals,or cultured cells.
Q3) Embryonic stem cells derived from blastocysts are pluripotent,and therefore useful in stem cell research because they ________.
A) are viable under a wide range of laboratory conditions
B) do not replicate and are therefore stable long-term
C) can form all cells, tissues, and organs of the human body
D) are specialized and therefore arrested in G0
E) function to replace damaged or diseased body parts in adults
Q4) Opponents of the use of recombinant DNA technology in agriculture argue that the FDA should require the _____ of food containing transgenic ingredients.
A) labeling
B) testing
C) posting of safe handling guidelines
D) cloning
E) spreading
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) Genetic maps are constructed by estimating the distances between linked genes based on the calculation of ____________________.
Q2) The field of ____________________ develops software to efficiently store,analyze,present and access genomic sequence date.
Q3) The different proteins characteristic of breast cancer subtypes can be used as _____ for proper diagnosis and treatment.
A) prebiotics
B) biomarkers
C) DNA clones
D) bioinformatic data
E) physical maps
Q4) Genetic similarities between humans and laboratory animal models facilitate research on the cause,diagnosis,and treatment of human genetic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The goal of pharmacogenomics is to identify genes related to human diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of low sperm count in males is _____.
A) varicocele
B) undescended testicles
C) testicular failure
D) semen disorders
E) obstructions
Q2) Do you agree with the practice of using PGD to select for gender or for genetic disabilities present in the parents (for example,deafness and dwarfism)? Why or why not? Should there be legal restrictions on PGD in the US? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why enzyme replacement therapy cannot cure a genetic disease,and why gene therapy offers the only cure.
Q4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)is used by couples in which the _____.
A) female has blocked oviducts
B) female has very irregular ovulation
C) female is approaching menopause
D) source of sperm is a sperm bank
E) male is infertile
Q5) A variation of the PGD method,called ____________________,can test for genetic disorders in the egg before fertilization.
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Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) Suppose that an infectious agent,such as a virus or bacterium,had surface antigens identical to those displayed on the surface of human cells.Would the immune system be able to detect and destroy these agents? Why or why not?
Q2) The best animal models for xenotransplantation of organs into humans are the nonhuman primates,such as chimpanzees and baboons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ T cells secrete interleukins that activate other cells in both the cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses.
Q4) Complement proteins can form a system of proteins that create a pore in the membranes of bacteria.This system is called the ____________________.
Q5) What is the underlying molecular cause of Crohn's disease?
A) B cells are mutated and do not release antibodies.
B) Receptor proteins are mutated and cause an abnormal immune response.
C) Helper T cells are inactivated.
D) Mucus is not released from epithelial tissues.
E) Antigen-presenting cells are absent.
Q6) Outline the three levels of defense of humans against the invasion of pathogens.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) Family,twin,and adoption studies have revealed a(n)_____________________ component to mental illnesses,such as bipolar disorder.
Q2) Discuss the tools used to see if human behavior has a genetic component,and give two examples of either normal or abnormal behavior that appears to have a genetic component.
Q3) Because sons adopted by alcoholic men show a rate of alcoholism more like that of their biological father,there is an argument for the role of genetic factors in this disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gene associated with aggressive behavior in different studies is called _____________________.
Q5) Learned behaviors are defined as behaviors with which we are born. A)True
B)False
Q6) According to results from genome wide association studies,at least seven _____________________ are linked to both schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
Q7) Discuss the difficulties in studying the genetics of human behavior traits
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the out-of-Africa model and multiregional theories of the origin of modern man.Which theory is supported by the preponderance of genetic evidence? What type of evidence supports the other theory
Q2) Which population has a small percentage of Denisovan genes,thus suggesting interbreeding?
A) Asians
B) Melanesians
C) H. floresiensis
D) Neanderthals
E) chimpanzees
Q3) A predictable effect of genetic drift in a small population is an increase in _____. A) mutations
B) dominant alleles
C) recessive alleles
D) genetic variation
E) homozygosity
Q4) The frequency of a certain genotype in a population is called
Q5) On average,humans differ by _____________________% of their genomic sequences.
22
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