Introduction to Genetics
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics is a foundational course that explores the principles of heredity and variation in living organisms. Students are introduced to key concepts such as DNA and RNA structure, gene expression, Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance patterns, genetic mutations, and the molecular mechanisms underlying genetic diversity. The course also examines techniques used in modern genetics, including genetic mapping, sequencing, and biotechnology applications. Through case studies and laboratory exercises, students gain insight into how genetic information is transmitted across generations and how genetic research impacts fields such as medicine, agriculture, and evolutionary biology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA is formed by the process of _____________.
A) transcription
B) translation
C) both transcription and translation
D) None of the answers are correct
Answer: A
Q2) The study of the processes of transcription and translation is at the _____ level of biological organization.
A) population
B) organismal
C) cellular
D) molecular
Answer: D
Q3) A variation of a gene is called a(n) _______.
A)species
B)morph
C)genome
D)allele
E)proteome
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of family trees in humans is called a _______ analysis.
A)pedigree
B)monohybrid
C)dihybrid
D)statistical
E)probability
Answer: A
Q2) The observable characteristics of an organism are called its ___________.
A)Phenotype
B)Genotype
C)Dominance
D)Genes
E)None of the answers are correct
Answer: A
Q3) The results that demonstrated that traits were not blended were the ones where
A)The F2 plants were selfed
B)The true-breeding parents were crossed
C)The F1 generation plants were selfed
D)None of these experiments refuted the blending hypothesis
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing a fruit fly cross similar to those that Morgan performed. Unfortunately, you forgot to write down the parents of your cross. You count the progeny, and find you have 40 red-eyed males, 80 red-eyed females, and 40 white-eyed males. Assuming that all genotypes from this cross should have equal survival rates, what are the genotypes of the parent flies?
A) X<sup>w</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w+</sup>
B) X<sup>w</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
C) X<sup>w+</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
D) X<sup>w+</sup>Y and X<sup>w</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
Answer: C
Q2) In a species of turtles you are studying, you find that when eggs are incubated at a low temperature, the hatched turtle will be male. Eggs incubated at a high temperature yield females, and intermediate temperatures lead to both male and female offpsring. This mode of sex determination is most similar to that in A) insects.
B) birds.
C) bees.
D) alligators.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paralogs are often functionally redundant and can compensate for the loss of either of the paralogs in a set.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Incomplete penetrance indicates that individuals who possess a dominant trait always express the trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans homozygous for the sickle cell allele have sickle cell anemia. A human that is heterozygous for the sickle cell allele is an example of _____________.
A) codominance
B) incomplete penetrance
C) heterozygous advantage
D) multiple allele systems
Q4) Male-pattern baldness is only an autosomal dominant trait in humans. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diseases are associated with imprinting?
A)Angelman Syndrome
B)LHON
C)Alzheimer's Disease
D)All of the answers are correct
Q2) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A)Acetylation
B)Nitration
C)Phosphorylation
D)Methylation
Q3) A modification that occurs to a nuclear gene that alters gene expression without modifying the DNA sequence is called _______ inheritance.
A)extranuclear
B)cytoplasmic
C)maternal effect
D)epigenetic
E)nuclear
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end result of meiosis in fungi is a tetrad of spores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a given mapping experiment, you expect that incidence of double crossovers is 3.5%, but you only observe 2.5%. This can be explained by ________________.
A) Interference
B) Linkage
C) Coincidence
D) Segregation
Q3) In humans, there are _______ autosomal linkage groups, plus an X and Y chromosome linkage group.
A) 23
B) 46
C) 22
D) 92
Q4) The rearrangement of alleles by the process of crossing over is called genetic linkage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) During conjugation, one strand of the F factor DNA remains in the donor cell and one strand is transferred to the recipient cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The units of genetic distance derived from bacterial conjugation studies are called _____.
A) seconds
B) map units
C) centimorgans
D) recombination units
E) minutes
Q3) A histidine, methionine auxotroph _________.
A) can synthesize only histidine and methionine
B) can only use histidine and methionine as nutrition sources
C) cannot synthesize histidine and methionine
D) is killed by histidine and methionine
E) lacks proteins with histidine or methionine
Q4) A minute is the basic unit of map distance in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) A translocation cross may occur in an individual that has a(n)
A)reciprocal translocation.
B)unbalanced translocation.
C)simple translocation.
D)All of the answers are correct
Q2) Which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?
A)Sex cells
B)Nerve cells
C)All somatic cells
D)Liver cells
E)Red blood cells
Q3) Klinefelter and Turner syndromes are examples of A)sex chromosome aneuploidy.
B)autosomal aneuploidy.
C)reciprocal translocations.
D)paracentric inversions.
Q4) The majority of autosomal aneuploid conditions are lethal, but sex chromosome aneuploids are usually not lethal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nucleoside consists of only a five-carbon sugar and a phosphate group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNA can exist as a triple helix, although its function in biological systems is not well understood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The idea that the adenine and thymine bases of the DNA interact in some manner was first proposed by _______.
A) Watson and Crick
B) Franklin
C) Pauling
D) Chargaff
Q4) What is a characteristic of T2 bacteriophage?
A)It does not require a host cell for replication
B)The phage attaches to the cell wall of a target eukaryotic cell
C)The phages injects its DNA into the host cell
D)The new phages are formed outside the host cell
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of MARs and SARs?
A) To bind to the nuclear matrix
B) To form loop structure
C) To condense DNA
D) All of the answers are correct
Q2) DNA topoisomerase I does which of the following?
A)Introduce positive super coils
B)Relieve positive super coils
C)Introduce negative super coils
D)More than one of these
Q3) The DNA of a bacterial cell must be compacted about _______ fold to fit within the confines of the cell.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 150
D) 1000
E) 1,000,000
Q4) The DNA-protein complex in eukaryotic chromosomes is called the genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many DNA polymerases are found in prokaryotes?
A)5
B)7
C)9
D)12
Q2) GGGCCATTCGAACGTCCGAAAATGCCCCTGAATGAAAATTTTGGCCC. The primer used for replication in vitro is CCCGGTAAGCTT. Where is the 5' end for the template and primer, respectively?
A)Left, left
B)Right, left
C)Left, right
D)Right, right
Q3) Catenanes can only form in cells with circular chromosomes, such as bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Meselson-Stahl experiments supported the model of dispersive DNA replication. A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order of elements that comprise a functional protein encoding gene in a prokaryote?
A) Promoter, regulatory region, transcribed region, terminator
B) Regulatory region, promoter, transcribed region, terminator
C) Regulatory region, promoter, terminator, transcribed region
D) Promoter, transcribed region, regulatory region, terminator
Q2) The holozyme is formed when the core enzyme associates with A)Start codons
B)b
C)b'
D)\(\sigma\)
E)a
Q3) An R loop experiment was performed on two different mRNA's. The first showed one R loop, while the second showed two R loops separated by a region of double-stranded DNA. What is the composition of these two mRNA's?
A)The first contains no introns and the second two introns
B)The first contains no introns and the second one intron
C)The first contains one intron and the second two introns
D)The first contains two introns and the second one intron
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anticodon on the mRNA recognizes the codon on the tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A polyribosome would be found in which of the following types of cells?
A)Prokaryotic
B)Eukaryotic
C)Both
Q3) Where does mRNA/tRNA codon-anticodon recognition take place?
A) 30S
B) 40S
C) 50S
D) The surface between the two ribosomal subunits
Q4) RF1 and RF2 are active during _______.
A)initiation
B)elongation
C)termination
D)peptidyl transfer
Q5) 61 different tRNAs are required for translation both in vivo and in vitro.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A riboswitch only affects translation of an operon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A deletion in an operon removes the terminator. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon?
A)The transcript will be produced and normal in length
B)The transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal
C)The transcript will be produced, but longer than normal
D)The transcript will produced, but will contain a deletion
E) The transcript will not be produced
Q3) In Jacob, Monod, and Pardee's experiment, what would have been the conclusion if all four tubes produced a yellow color when b-ONPG was added?
A)Expression of the lac operon is constitutive whether lacI is functional or not
B)LacI provides the binding site for the repressor
C)LacI encodes a diffusible repressor
D)The researcher added too much b-ONPG
Q4) In the lac operon, the operator site is recognized by an activator protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A repressor protein would enhance the ability of TFIID to bind to the TATA box of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A transactivation domain is an example of a motif found in transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A particular gene has a mutation in its NFR that causes it to bind abnormally tightly to histones. What effect would you expect this mutation has on the expression of this gene?
A)The expression of the gene would be abnormally high.
B)The effect on gene expression is impossible to predict.
C)The gene would encode a different protein instead.
D)The expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent.
E) The promoter of the gene will be constantly available to transcription factors and RNA polymerase.
Q4) When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A)Acetylation
B)Nitration
C)Phosphorylation
D)Methylation
Q2) Gene methylation can be detected through the use of restriction endonucleases. Usually these are used in pairs where one enzyme will digest only unmethylated DNA in its recognition sequence while the other is insensitive to methylation. Which of the following statements is correct?
A)The enzyme that is insensitive to methylation serves as a control to make sure the inability of the other enzyme to digest DNA is not due to a mutation.
B)These are used in pairs since experiments have to be replicated and this one way of performing a replication of the experiment
C)The experimental design is flawed since there should be a third enzyme that would serve as a positive cocntrol
D) This experimental design is able to detect most of the methylated C residues in a particular region of DNA.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Q1) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, and patients often exhibit a fever, sore throat, swollen glands, and fatigue for several weeks. In some patients, the virus can reactivate later and cause physical symptoms once again. This is likely because
A)they were misdiagnosed the first time, and only really were infected by the virus the second time they became sick.
B)the virus was latent in these patients, and then switched to the active form and began making new virus particles.
C)the patients had the virus initially, and they became sick again at the time the virus became latent.
D)the Epstein-Barr virus is an emerging virus so we do not know much about its infectious life cycle.
Q2) What structure on bacteriophage \(\lambda\) plays an analogous role to the spike glycoproteins in HIV?
A)Capsid
B)Shaft
C)Base plate
D)Tail fibers
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Q1) Beechdrops is a parasitic plant that cannot perform photosynthesis but relies on its host the Beech tree. However, Beechdrops still retains many if not all of the genes for photosynthesis. Snapdragons and gladiolas are common garden flowers that rely on their ability to perform photosynthesis. If you were to compare the gene sequences for these three plants for ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO) a protein necessary for photosynthesis what would you predict?
A) The differences between gladiolas and snapdragons would most likely be silent mutations while those in beechdrops may be silent or missense
B) Since these three plants are not highly related the sequences for RuBisCO would be very different between them
C) The differences between gladiolas and snapdragons would most likely be in the second nucleotide of codons while beechdrops would have a higher number of mutations in the third nucleotide of the diffferent codons
D) The differences between gladiolas and snapdragons would most likely be missense mutations while those in beechdrops may be silent or missense
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) Ty is an example of a retro element in the human genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is technically not part of the genetic information of a transposable element?
A)Long-terminal repeats
B)Inverted repeats
C)Direct repeats
D)Transposase
Q3) Which of the following describes attP and attB of bacteriophage \(\lambda\)?
A)Specific proteins in the cell membrane
B)A unique set of phospholipids that identify the organelle of interest
C)Glycoproteins in the cell wall
D)Specific DNA sequences that are recognized by integrase
Q4) Transposase is involved with removing the transposable element from its current location.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations generated during site-directed mutagenesis occur randomly in the genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a DNA library?
A)A collection of vectors, each containing a fragment of the original genome
B)A complete sequence of the genetic material in an organism
C)An electronic file that may be used for additional genetic analysis
D)A collection of mRNA from a given cell
Q3) R factors typically contain genes for antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cDNA library differs from a genomic DNA library in which way?
A)It consists solely of RNA molecules
B)It contains many copies of the gene of interest
C)It contains only coding sequences, not introns
D)It is typically 10-100 times the size of a DNA library
Q5) A dideoxy nucleotide is missing an -OH group at the 2' end.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Q1) The primary interest of genetic research into stem cells is the desire to be able to clone a human being.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first organism ever cloned by researchers was Dolly the sheep in 1997.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first hormone to be made by recombinant bacteria was ____.
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)Somatostatin
D)Testosterone
Q4) Identical twins are an example of gene cloning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following terms represents a cell that can form any other cell of the organism?
A)Pluripotent
B)Totipotent
C)Unipotent
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) In sequencing by synthesis (SBS) methods, the sequence of a sample is directly determined as nucleotides are incorporated into a DNA strand by DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a FISH procedure, the probe being used is labeled with a fluorescent tag.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term that best describes how the components of a genome interact to produce an organism's traits is:
A)Proteomics
B)Functional genomics
C)Structural genomics
D)Genomics
Q4) ________ uses the unique banding patterns of a chromosome to determine the general location of a gene.
A)Physical mapping
B)Cytogenetic mapping
C)Linkage mapping
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24
Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Genetic sequences may be useful in predicting protein structure because
A) there is a high statistical frequency of specific amino acids within a given secondary structure
B) the folding of the protein is based on how the mRNA folds.
C) the physical and energetic properties of the DNA influence protein folding.
D) knowing what specific codons are used for each amino acid in the protein can help predict its structure.
Q2) What type of computer based search methodology would most likely be used to identify a potential promoter for a gene in a nucleotide sequence?
A) Search-by-signal
B) Search-by-content
C) Search-by-identity
D) Search-by-recognition
Q3) The program BLAST would be best used for what purpose?
A) Determining what restriction sites are present in a fragment of DNA
B) Identifying a promoter sequence
C) Identifying splice donor and acceptor sites
D) Identify related sequences to a given DNA sequence in the Genbank database
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) Haplotypes between homologs in the same individual _________; haplotypes for the same chromosome in different individuals ________.
A)are always the same; are always different
B)can be the same or different; can be the same or different
C)are always the same; can be the same or different D)can be the same or different; are always different
Q2) Which test provides the earliest indication of genetic problems in a fetus?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Chorionic villus sampling
C) Both provide reliable indications at the same stage of development
Q3) A disease that can be caused by mutations in different genes is said to have homogeneity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When GTP is bound to Ras, it is in the _____ form.
A)active
B)inactive
Q5) DNA damage is sensed by E2F at the G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub> checkpoints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) What is one way in which plant development differs from animal development?
A)Plants can develop only from somatic cells
B)Plants lack morphogens
C)Cell migration occurs in plants
Q2) The bicoid gene has what pattern of inheritance?
A)sex-linked
B)incomplete penetrance
C)maternal inheritance
D)autosomal
Q3) A
C.elegans with a heterochronic mutation in lin-14 will lay eggs normally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Homeotic genes activate other genes that determine the ____________ of each segment.
A) segment
B) parasegment
C) morphological characteristics
D) zygotic
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) A group of individuals from the same species that can interbreed with one another is the definition of a ________.
A)Species
B)Population
C)Race
D)Community
E)Kingdom
Q2) Migration is a key evolution mechanism by which microevolution occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic by which a population is in equilibrium according to Hardy-Weinberg equation?
A) The population is large.
B) There is no migration into or out of the population.
C) There is no selection against a given genotype.
D) There is no mutation in the gene being studied.
E) There is nonrandom mating
Q4) In humans, the gene for eye color is an example of a ________ trait.
A)Monomorphic
B)Polymorphic
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) To use a backcross mating strategy for QTL mapping
A)two inbred parental strains that differ in a quantitative trait are crossed are mated.
B)the F<sub>1</sub> offspring are crossed with each other.
C)the F<sub>2</sub> offspring must contain chromosomes that are recombinant betweeen the markers and the genes involved in the trait
D)each parent should contain the same alleles at each QTL.
Q2) The fact that quantitative traits may be based on a polygenic basis was first discovered in studies of DDT resistance in Drosophila.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Calculate the narrow-sense heritability of height between aunts and neices if the observed phenotypic correlation coefficient is 0.1.
A)0.4
B)2.5
C)4
D)0.25
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) It is currently believed that apple maggot flies are undergoing a divergence into two separate species. Two hundred years ago these maggot flies laid their eggs only on the hawthorn fruit, but after apples were introduced in the Americas, some maggot flies started laying their eggs on apples. Today, females generally lay their eggs on the type of fruit they grew up in, and male flies end up mating on the type of fruit they grew up in. Therefore hawthorn flies mate with hawthorn flies and apple flies mate with apple flies. If genetic changes between the hawthorn maggot flies and the apple maggot flies continue until the flies are different species, this would be an example of A) allopatric speciation.
B) parapatric speciation.
C) sympatric speciation.
Q2) Proteins that are functionally less important for the survival of an organism generally evolve _____ more important proteins. A)more slowly than B)more quickly than C)at the same rate as
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