Introduction to Genetics Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics provides a foundational understanding of the principles governing heredity and variation in living organisms. The course explores the molecular structure and function of genes, patterns of inheritance, genetic mapping, and the regulation of gene expression. Students will examine Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, DNA replication, mutation, genetic technologies, and contemporary applications such as genetic engineering and biotechnology. Through lectures and practical exercises, learners will gain insights into how genetics underpins evolution, development, and disease, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences.
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Human Genetics and Society 2nd Edition by
Ronnee Yashon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sex and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether a fetus develops as a male or female depends on
A) a complex interaction of genes and environment.
B) hormones produced by the mother during pregnancy.
C) how many sperm enter the egg.
D) the number of autosomes present.
E) only on which sex chromosomes are present.
Answer: A
Q2) What is involved in in vitro fertilization?
A) The woman receives hormone treatments.
B) Eggs are surgically removed from the woman's ovaries.
C) Both sperm and eggs are placed in a dish to allow fertilization.
D) A sperm sample must be provided.
E) All of these are steps in in vitro fertilization.
Answer: E
Q3) fertilization occurring
Answer: C
Q4) In females,one X chromosome out of the two becomes a Barr body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Assisted Reproductive Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does egg production occur in females?
A) In the fallopian tubes.
B) In the endometrium of the uterus.
C) In the ovaries.
D) In the myometrium of the uterus.
E) In the vagina.
Answer: C
Q2) The action of the sperm entering the egg triggers the completion of meiosis of the egg.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) sperm are stored here
Answer: C
Q4) Sperm and eggs have half the number of chromosomes as normal cells of the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) important for the production of semen
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Changes in Chromosome Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) Telomeres may play a role in aging.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is considered the main risk factor for having a child with Down syndrome?
A) maternal age
B) paternal age
C) exposure to radiation
D) exposure to cancer-causing chemicals
E) the combined age of the parents
Answer: A
Q3) Monosomy involving an autosomal chromosome is never fatal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have XXY sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Now,our hypothetical gene has undergone a mutation.The mutant sequence is TACGATAGTACCCGGATT.Transcribe the mutant sequence into mRNA,and determine the amino acid sequence of the resulting polypeptide chain.Determine if the nucleotide modification produced a different amino acid sequence n the protein.What do you think the consequence of this mutation would be in terms of protein function?
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about sickle cell anemia?
A) Affected individuals have a wide range of symptoms.
B) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
C) It can lead to early death if left untreated.
D) It results from a mutation in the gene that encodes beta globin.
E) All of these are correct.
Q3) The region on the DNA where the RNA polymerase initially binds is called the A) termination sequence. B) promoter.
C) stop codon.
D) start codon.
E) message.
Q4) contains a region called the anticodon
Q5) carboxyl group
Q6) Describe the roles of mRNA and tRNA in protein synthesis.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Changes in DNA: Mutations and Epigenetics
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Q1) Which of the following statements about epigenetics is TRUE?
A) Epigenetic changes occur because of DNA mutations.
B) Epigenetic changes are only due to genetic factors.
C) Epigenetic changes alter the replication of DNA.
D) Epigenetic modifications can be caused by environmental factors..
E) Epigenetic drugs are widely used to treat many genetic disorders.
Q2) Environmental mutagens include certain molecules found in A) cigarette smoke.
B) vehicle exhaust.
C) some plants.
D) some processed foods.
E) all of these.
Q3) Free radicals
A) form because of radiation exposure.
B) form due to base analogs.
C) form when atoms have paired electrons.
D) are not reactive.
E) are incorporated into DNA instead of normal bases.
Q4) Cite examples of how nucleotide repeats can cause genetic disorders.How does the number of repeats relate to the severity of the disorder?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embryonic stem cells can only form a limited number of cell types.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about recombinant DNA is true?
A) Recombinant DNA techniques often make use of restriction enzymes.
B) Recombinant DNA molecules are formed when a DNA molecule attaches to the bacterial cell wall.
C) Recombinant DNA molecules always contain human DNA.
D) Recombinant DNA molecules result when DNA is transcribed.
E) Recombinant DNA molecules are formed when DNA from at least three different organisms are joined together.
Q3) Humans have only been able to genetically modify agricultural plants and animals since recombinant DNA technology was developed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As gene transfer technology becomes more sophisticated,novel combinations of traits may be developed,requiring specific management plans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Genetic Testing and Prenatal Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently,some genetic conditions can be treated,but none can be cured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This type of testing is usually used to identify individuals who will develop disorders in midlife.
A) Presymptomatic testing
B) Prenatal diagnosis
C) Ultrasonography
D) Carrier testing
E) Amniocentesis.
Q3) Prenatal genetic testing is performed
A) in order to understand developmental disorders.
B) to detect genetic disorders and birth defects in the developing fetus.
C) to identify if an individual will develop a genetic disorder in midlife.
D) to understand patterns of inheritance.
E) to determine if the parents are carriers of disease alleles.
Q4) Tay-Sachs is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting lysosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between genetic testing and genetic screening.
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Chapter 9: DNA Forensics
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is unstable and breaks down after a year or so.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Do you think mandatory DNA profiling should be done for all U.S.military personnel? Why or why not? Could this mandatory profiling be considered a violation of the individual's human rights? Explain your answer.
Q3) haplotypes
A)useful for tracking maternal ancestry
B)passed only from fathers to sons
C)information stored in CODIS
D)a series of specific DNA markers
E)repeated sequences of 10-100 base pairs in length
F)DNA differences that are only one base pair long
G)method to make many copies of a segment of DNA
H)analysis using restriction enzymes
Q4) All STRs are located on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The closer two genes are to each other the more likely they are to be inherited.
B) Genes close together on the same chromosome are said to be linked.
C) It is more difficult to map genes to individual autosomes than to the sex chromosomes.
D) Humans have many genes that are not present in other organisms.
E) The field of genomics compares genes and their proteins from different species.
Q2) What are some of the legal and ethical questions associated with genomics?
Q3) All of the following describe new information learned about the human genome EXCEPT
A) the human genome has many regions of noncoding DNA.
B) only about 1.5% of the genome codes for proteins.
C) the human genome has many regions of repetitive sequences.
D) transposons make up the majority of the repetitive sequences.
E) All of these describe new information about the human genome.
Q4) It is easier to map genes on the autosomes than on the sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intelligence
A) is a multifactorial trait.
B) is easily measured.
C) shows a very low concordance in MZ twins.
D) is currently determined by the size of one's head.
E) is not influenced by environmental factors.
Q2) All humans suffering from obesity should respond to leptin treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the case of complex traits,
A) all of the genes involved are present on the same chromosome.
B) at least three genes are involved.
C) the phenotype is determined strictly by environmental factors.
D) there can be a wide range of phenotypes.
E) the trait is never influenced by environmental factors.
Q4) A particular trait shows a high concordance in MZ twins raised together but a lower concordance in MZ twins raised apart.What do these results indicate about genetic and environmental components controlling this trait?
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Chapter 12: Cancer and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gardasil
A)Translocation
B)Breast cancer
C)Oncogene
D)Skin cancer
E)Tumor suppressor gene
F)Cervical cancer
G)Lung cancer
Q2) The two major checkpoints in the cell cycle are the
A) prophase and metaphase checkpoints.
B) G2/M and interphase/M checkpoints.
C) G2/M and prophase checkpoints.
D) G1/S and metaphase checkpoints.
E) G1/S and G2/M checkpoints.
Q3) ____ is the time between mitotic cell divisions.
A) Metaphase
B) Interphase
C) Mitosis
D) Cytokinesis
E) G2
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Chapter 13: Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease
A)A mutated form of the gene causes serotonin not to break down
B)Cell loss in the brain
C)An area in the chromosome is prone to breakage
D)Some are more aggressive, taller males
E)Lithium treatment
Q2) Schizophrenia is a
A) multifactorial condition that affects behavior.
B) recessive genetic condition that affects behavior.
C) only determined by environmental conditions.
D) disorder that develops due to exposure to toxins.
E) disorder that cannot be treated.
Q3) Behavioral genetics is the study of the influence of
A) environment on behavior.
B) genetics on behavior.
C) animal behavior on human behavior.
D) diet on behavior.
E) drugs on behavior.
Q4) Discuss how information about the behavioral genetics of other organisms can be used in human genetics..
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Immunogenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct about whether a person with type O blood can receive a transfusion of type A blood?
A) Yes, type A individuals are universal donors.
B) No, type A individuals can donate only to another type A individual.
C) No, since type O individuals will produce antibodies against the A and B markers, the type A blood will be rejected.
D) Yes, type O individuals are universal recipients.
E) Yes, but only if the blood is Rh+.
Q2) What is/are the specific cell(s)involved in the adaptive immune system?
A) T cells and B cells
B) red blood cells
C) antibodies
D) platelets
E) A,B, and O cells
Q3) What is an antigen? What is an antibody? Identify the role of each substance in the immune response.
Q4) Organs from transgenic pigs are routinely used in transplants to humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Genetics and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Y chromosome is passed from
A) mothers to all of her sons.
B) fathers to all of his daughters.
C) fathers to all of his sons.
D) mothers to all of her daughters.
E) fathers to all of his children.
Q2) On which chromosome is the gene for Huntington disease found?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 21
D) X
E) Y
Q3) When considering sickle cell anemia and malaria,
A) both diseases are determined entirely by genetics.
B) the geographic distributions of the two are very similar.
C) there is no overlap in their geographic distributions.
D) both disease are caused by the same parasite.
E) the two diseases show no know relationship.
Q4) What is population genetics? Why do geneticists sometimes study particular populations?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Human Evolution
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Q1) Charles Darwin
A) did not present his ideas on evolution in public until after he published On the Origin of Species.
B) did not present his ideas on evolution in public until after he published The Descent of Man.
C) presented his ideas on evolution in a joint paper with Charles Lyell.
D) presented his ideas on evolution in a joint paper with Alfred Russel Wallace.
E) presented his ideas on evolution before Alfred Russel Wallace did.
Q2) Human populations from _____ have the highest degree of genetic diversity.
A) Africa
B) Siberia
C) Asia
D) Europe
E) Australo-Melanesia
Q3) In The State of Tennessee v.John Thomas Scopes,Scopes was found guilty and served 30 days in jail.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how lactose tolerance can be considered evidence of recent human evolution.
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Chapter 17: A Different World: The Past, Present, and Future
of Human Genetics
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Q1) What is an antigen? What is an antibody? Identify the role of each substance in the immune response.
Q2) List possible options for a woman who has a family history of breast cancer and tests positive for a mutant allele of the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
Q3) Compare and contrast positive and negative eugenics.
Q4) Discuss the eugenics movement in the United States.What was the basis for this movement? How did this movement influence Nazi Germany?
Q5) The procedure that removes all of a woman's breast tissue is called A) BRACAnalysis®.
B) cutaneous mastectomy.
C) nuclear transfer.
D) subcutaneous mastectomy.
E) mammography.
Q6) Knockout mice have been useful in modeling different kinds of cancer,diabetes,and cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss how vaccinations work.
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Chapter 18: Biology Basics 1-Cells and Cell Structure
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Q1) nucleus
Q2) Which part of the cell contains chromatin?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) cytoplasm
C) plasma membrane
D) lysosomes
E) nucleus
Q3) The Golgi apparatus is responsible for energy production within the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mitochondria are the only organelles that are not associated with any genetic disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The human body consists of only a few different types of cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The HLA markers are present in the cytoplasm of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Biology Basics 2-DNA and RNA
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Q1) Which base is ONLY found in RNA?
A) cytosine
B) adenine
C) thymine
D) uracil
E) guanine
Q2) Which of the following components is NOT present in RNA?
A) thymine
B) phosphate group
C) uracil
D) ribose
E) cytosine
Q3) All of the following are differences between DNA and RNA EXCEPT
A) DNA has deoxyribose and RNA has ribose.
B) DNA is only found in the nucleus while RNA is found in both the cytoplasm and nucleus.
C) RNA is usually single-stranded and DNA is usually double-stranded.
D) RNA contains uracil and DNA contains thymine.
E) DNA is a polynucleotide while RNA is not.
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Chapter 18: Biology Basics 3-Genes, Populations, and the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) There appears to be a relationship between the genetics of PTC tasting,taste preferences,and diet in some people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Individuals who contract malaria are more likely to also develop sickle-cell anemia.
B) The sickle-cell allele is the result of a large deletion in the gene for hemoglobin.
C) The distribution of the sickle-cell allele is the same throughout the world.
D) Sickle-cell anemia is a dominantly inherited genetic disease.
E) Carriers of the sickle-cell allele are more resistant to malaria than non-carriers.
Q3) In general,naturally occurring environmental agents do not play a role in causing cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rheumatoid Arthritis is considered an autoimmune disease.
A)True
B)False
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