Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics Exam Preparation Guide
Introduction to Genetics provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles governing the inheritance of traits in living organisms. Topics covered include the structure and function of DNA and RNA, Mendelian genetics, patterns of inheritance, gene expression and regulation, genetic mutations, and the application of genetic technologies in modern science and medicine. The course emphasizes problem-solving and critical thinking through analysis of genetic crosses and real-world case studies, laying the foundation for advanced studies in biology, medicine, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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28 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both genes and the _______ influence the traits of an organism.
A)genome
B)environment
C)population
Answer: B
Q2) A species that contains two copies of each chromosome is called _______.
A) a genetic mutation
B) a morph
C) haploid
D) diploid
E) alleles
Answer: D
Q3) Gene expression involves the process of transcription and translation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Science may be conducted using a process called the scientific method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(an) _______ is a variation of a gene.
A)trait
B)character
C)gamete
D)allele
E)variant
Answer: D
Q2) Mendel's work with two-factor (dihybrid) crosses led directly to which of the following?
A)Chromosomal theory of inheritance
B)Particulate theory of inheritance
C)Law of segregation
D)Law of independent assortment
E)Theory of biological evolution
Answer: D
Q3) Mendel's work on inheritance had an immediate influence on the scientific community and theories of inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces haploid cells of two mating types, a and \(\alpha\), which are morphologically similar. Cells of opposite mating types can mate. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a(n) ___________ species.
A) isogamous
B) heterogamous
C) prokaryotic
D) asexual
Answer: A
Q2) Vincristine is a cancer chemotherapy drug. It binds to tubulin dimers, inhibiting assembly of microtubules. Where do you predict that vincristine stops the cell cycle?
A) S phase
B) Prophase
C) Metaphase
D) Telophase
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Q1) When wild-type offspring are produced from a cross between parents that both display the same recessive phenotype, this illustrates the genetic phenomenon of
A) simple recessive alleles
B) incomplete penetrance
C) complementation
D) gene dosage
E) a spontaneous mutation
Q2) The coat characteristics of arctic foxes and Siamese cats, where proteins in the extremities function differently than in other parts of the body, is an example of
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple allele systems
C) semilethal alleles
D) temperature-sensitive allele
E) None of the answers are correct
Q3) Incomplete dominance is an example of blending of phenotypes, not genotypes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of _____.
A) X-inactivation
B) genomic imprinting
C) maternal inheritance
D) extranuclear inheritance
Q2) What is a disease associated with extra nuclear inheritance?
A)Angelman Syndrome
B)Prader-Willi Syndrome
C)LHON
D)Muscular Dystrophy
Q3) mtDNA contains all of the genes necessary for the complete function of mitochondrial metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives inside another species is called _______.
A)cytoplasmic inheritance
B)heteroplasmy
C)paternal leakage
D)endosymbiosis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) While mapping two genes in Drosophila, you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. What is the distance between these genes?
A) 30 map units
B) 6.67 map units
C) 200 map units
D) 15 map units
Q2) You have calculated the interference value for a given mapping experiment to be 30%. What does this mean?
A)30% more double crossovers occurred than expected
B)30% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected
C)70% more double crossovers occurred than expected
D)70% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected
Q3) Mitotic recombination occurs between homologous chromosomes. In which of the following would you not expect to encounter mitotic recombination?
A)The fungus, Aspergillus nidulans
B)Tobacco plants
C)Homo sapiens
D)Drosophila melanogaster
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Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) Which mechanism of genetic transfer utilizes a sex pilus?
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) All of the answers are correct
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms of genetic transfer utilizes a physical connection between two bacteria?
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) All of the answers are correct
Q3) The protein complex that initiates the process of conjugation following contact between two bacteria is called the _________.
A) origin of transfer
B) T DNA
C) relaxosome
D) nucleoprotein
Q4) Competent cells are those used in studies of conjugation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Q1) A _______ translocation represents when a piece of one chromosome is attached to another chromosome.
A) simple
B) complex
C) reciprocal
D) balanced
Q2) The production of gene families, such as the globin genes is the result of ________.
A)inversions
B)deficiencies
C)gene duplications
D)simple translocations
E)None of the answers are correct
Q3) What term describes an organism with two complete sets of chromosomes from two different species?
A)Tetraploid
B)Aneuploid
C)Allodiploid
D)Allotetraploid
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Q1) What is the most complex structure DNA can form?
A)individual nucleotides
B)a folded and bended double helix
C)a single strand of DNA
D)a DNA double helix
Q2) One strand of DNA is 5' - AGGCCTTA - 3'. What is the opposite strand?
A) 5'-AGGCCTTA-3'
B) 5'-TCCGGAAT-3'
C) 3'-AGGCCTTA-5'
D) 3'-TCCGGAAT-5'
Q3) According to Chargaff's rule, if the DNA of a species contains 20% adenine, what percent of guanine will it contain?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q4) A purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Q1) Over winding of the DNA decreases the number of turns in the double helix, and thus results in super coils in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Loop domains are responsible for what level of condensation of the bacterial chromosome?
A) 10 fold
B) 100 fold
C) 1000 fold
D) 10,000 fold
Q3) Which of the following is correctly matched with its description?
A)Highly repetitive DNA contains transposable elements and genes that are expressed in abundance and thus have many copies.
B)Moderately repetitive DNA contains unique sequences, such as genes found in one or a few copies.
C)Non-repetitive DNA is composed of thousands of copies of many short repeats.
D)Moderately repetitive DNA contains retro elements, such as the Alu sequence.
E) Moderately repetitive DNA contains transposable elements and genes that are expressed in abundance and thus have many copies.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Q1) What functions are accomplished by the primosome?
A)Tracking along DNA
B)Tracking along DNA, separating double stranded DNA
C)Tracking along DNA, separating double stranded DNA, synthesizing RNA primers
D)Tracking along DNA, separating double stranded DNA, synthesizing RNA primers, adding nucleotides
Q2) Okazaki fragments do which of the following?
A)Assist in forming the replication fork
B)Bind to the oriC region
C)Assist in the synthesis of DNA from the lagging strand
D)Reform the double-helix following replication
E)None of the answers are correct
Q3) After the action of the helicase, single-stranded binding proteins keep the parental DNA strands from reforming a double-helix.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA polymerases are unable to bind to what areas of the chromosome?
A) Centromeres
B) 3' end of telomeres
C) Origins of replication
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of RNA editing can alter the base sequence of the mRNA following transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Prinbow box contains a CACAAC consensus sequence located in the -100 region of the promoter.
A)True B)False
Q3) An R loop experiment was performed on two different mRNA's. The first showed one R loop, while the second showed two R loops separated by a region of double-stranded DNA. What is the composition of these two mRNA's?
A)The first contains no introns and the second two introns
B)The first contains no introns and the second one intron
C)The first contains one intron and the second two introns
D)The first contains two introns and the second one intron
Q4) Sigma factor belongs to a general group of proteins called the transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) \(\alpha\)-helices and \(\beta\) -sheets are examples of what level of protein structure?
A)Primary structure
B)Secondary structure
C)Tertiary structure
D)Quanternary structure
Q2) An anticodon is located on ______.
A)DNA
B)mRNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
E)snRNA
Q3) A protein called actin consists of 376 amino acids. The mRNA for actin must be longer than A)125 nucleotides.
B)376 nucleotides.
C)1128 nucleotides.
D)3384 nucleotides.
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lac operon, the operator site is recognized by an activator protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a bacteria is placed in an environment that contains both glucose and lactose, the regulation of the lac operon will allow which nutrient to be processed first?
A)Glucose
B)Lactose
C)Both will be processed equally
D)Neither will be processed in this environment
Q3) If CAP could not bind to its CAP site, then what would be the result? Assume lactose is present in each scenario.
A)Transcription would be difficult to repress in the presence of glucose
B)Transcription would be difficult to activate in the presence of glucose
C)Transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose
Q4) Operons that code for catabolic enzyme systems are typically regulated by repressors.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following directly interacts with the DNA as a transcriptional regulator?
A)cAMP
B)G protein
C)Protein kinase A
D)CREB protein dimer
E) Glucocorticoid response element
Q2) What might happen if the insulator between two genes is missing?
A)Without the insulator, neither gene can be transcribed.
B)Transcription factors influencing one gene's expression may abnormally influence a neighboring gene's expression.
C)Transcription factors will not be able to influence the expression of either gene.
D)Without insulation, both genes will be expressed at maximal levels.
E) Transcription factors will not be able to bind to the insulator.
Q3) CpG islands are associated with which of the following?
A)Nucleosome location
B)DNA methylation
C)Steroid hormone activity
D)cAMP pathway
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely explanation for the phenomenon where a protein may be found in different sub-cellular locations in different cells is
A) stabilization of the mRNA transcript
B) alternative splicing
C) RNA interference
D) transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
Q2) Which of the following can control mRNA stability?
A) The stop codon that is used to terminate translation in the mRNA
B) AU rich elements in the mRNA
C) distance of the stop codon to the polyA tail
D) number of A's in polyA tail
Q3) What are some diseases associated with imprinting?
A)Angelman Syndrome
B)LHON
C)Alzheimer's Disease
D)All of the answers are correct
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase copies
A)DNA to DNA.
B)DNA to RNA.
C)RNA to DNA.
D)RNA to RNA.
Q2) Azidothymidine (AZT) is mentioned in your book as an HIV drug. AZT is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. That means AZT is only effective during the ______ stage of the viral life cycle.
A)entry
B)integration
C)viral assembly
D)release
Q3) The HIV genome is especially prone to mutation because
A)it is made of DNA.
B)it is an emerging virus.
C)it is copied by reverse transcriptase, which lacks a proofreading function.
D)of the many different drugs HIV patients must take.
Q4) The HIV genome contains nine genes, and therefore encodes just nine proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Q1) What would be a set of anticipated results from a "Lederberg" experiment?
A) Total number of colonies on a plate: 1500 Total number of resistant colonies on replica plate with T1: 150
B) Total number of colonies on a plate: 1500 Total number of resistant colonies on replica plate with T1: 1500
C) Total number of colonies on a plate: 500 Total number of resistant colonies on replica plate with T1: 1500
D) Total number of colonies on a plate: 1500 Total number of resistant colonies on replica plate with T1: 0
Q2) The results of the replica plating experiments by the Lederbergs supported which theory?
A)Random mutation theory
B)Physical adaptation theory
C)Both theories
D)Neither theory
Q3) Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS) is an example of a deaminating agent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) Transposable elements in bacteria are commonly called insertion sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A heteroduplex is a DNA double helix that contains mismatches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ty is an example of a retro element in the human genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following enzymes is required for a transposon to move?
A)Integrase
B)Jumpase
C)Splicase
D)Transposase
Q5) To date, there are not any indications that transposable elements offer a selective advantage to a species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Q1) Which of the following is a step in a PCR?
A)DNA is cooled to a temperature at which the hydrogen bonds holding the strands break.
B)The primers anneal to the complementary sequences on the template DNA.
C)DNA gyrase enzyme relieves the supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.
D)The DNase I synthesizes a new strand of DNA that is complementary to the template DNA.
Q2) The polymerase used in PCR reactions is derived from the thermophile organism Thermus aquaticus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequences in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one component that is needed to perform a PCR?
A)primers
B)DNA ligase
C)RNA polymerase
D)deoxynucleoside triphosphates
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Q1) A transgenic organism has recombinant DNA integrated into its genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the production of transgenic plants, what selectable marker is most commonly used to indicate that a cell has taken up the T DNA that includes the cloned gene?
A)Ampicillin
B)Neomycin
C)Streptomycin
D)Kanamycin
Q3) Hematopoietic stem cells are _________.
A)Pluripotent
B)Totipotent
C)Unipotent
D)Multipotent
Q4) The use of microorganisms or their products to alleviate plant disease is called biological control.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) Which of the following acronyms describes a technique used in chromosome painting?
A)RFLP
B)VNTR
C)STR
D)FISH
E)STS
Q2) Which of the following procedures best determines the relative order, but not precise location, of a series of genes on a chromosome?
A)Physical mapping
B)Cytogenetic mapping
C)Linkage mapping
Q3) The method of sequencing genomic fragments cloned straight from the genome is:
A)Cytogenetic mapping
B)Shotgun sequencing
C)Southern blotting
D)Polymerase chain reaction
Q4) YAC stands for yeast artificial cosmid.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) In analyzing microarray data if the ratio of mRNA present before and after a particular treatment is 1 it indicates that
A)there was no change in mRNA levels before and after treatment.
B)the gene was not expressed either before or after treatment.
C)gene expression could not be detected.
D)mRNA was not detected before treatment.
Q2) What does detection of a fluorescent signal from one of the spots of a DNA microarray indicate?
A)The probe hybridized to the sequences present in that spot
B)The probe did not hybridize to that particular gene
C)The experiment was not conducted correctly
D)That the probe was non-specifically trapped by the material present in the spot.
Q3) The genes of a gene family that consist of two or more homologous genes are called ___.
A)Orthologs
B)Paralogs
C)Polylogs
D)Homologs
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) An oncogene may promote cancer by keeping the cell growth pathway in the off position.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What prion conformation may result in a prion-related infection?
A)PrP<sup>Sc</sup>
B)PrP<sup>C</sup>
C)Both can cause disease
Q3) Haplotypes between homologs in the same individual _________; haplotypes for the same chromosome in different individuals ________.
A)are always the same; are always different
B)can be the same or different; can be the same or different
C)are always the same; can be the same or different
D)can be the same or different; are always different
Q4) A _______ is a cellular gene that has the potential to become an oncogene.
A) carcinogen
B) proto-oncogene
C) tumor-suppressor genes
D) caspase gene
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) The bicoid gene has what pattern of inheritance?
A)sex-linked
B)incomplete penetrance
C)maternal inheritance
D)autosomal
Q2) The ABC model explains the process of _______.
A)brain development
B)flower development
C)sex determination
D)muscle development
Q3) Molecules that convey positional information and promote developmental changes are called _______.
A) morphogens
B) determined
C) totipotent
D) apical
Q4) HoxC-6 is always expressed posterior to vertebrae 7 during the development of every vertebrate.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding a balanced polymorphism?
A)The frequency of alleles is not changing over time
B)The homozygous condition for the alleles is not advantageous to the organism
C)The population (or species) occupies a heterogeneous environment
D)An example in humans is sickle-cell anemia
E)All of the answers are correct
Q2) Migration of a random few individuals from one population to a new area to establish a new population is an example of ____
A)Bottleneck effect
B)Mutation
C)Founder effect
D)Selection
Q3) In the calculation of Hardy-Weinberg equilibria in the context of nonrandom mating, random mating is represented by the factor f equal to 1.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The allele pool is the sum of all of the alleles in a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) What is trure concerning a quantitative trait?
A)Individuals fall into distinct classes for comparison
B)The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous
C)The phenotypic variation for the trait falls into two to three classes
D)The frequency distribution of the trait will have an asymmetrical shape
Q2) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?
A)Genetic variance
B)Environmental variance
C)Both variances
D)Neither variance
Q4) Eye color in Drosophila is an example of
A) Discontinuous, non-quantitative trait
B) Discontinuous, quantitative trait
C) Continuous, non-quantitative trait
D) Continuous, quantitative trait
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Researchers who study molecular evolution often analyze DNA sequences using computer programs which identify homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is currently believed that apple maggot flies are undergoing a divergence into two separate species. Two hundred years ago these maggot flies laid their eggs only on the hawthorn fruit, but after apples were introduced in the Americas, some maggot flies started laying their eggs on apples. Today, females generally lay their eggs on the type of fruit they grew up in, and male flies end up mating on the type of fruit they grew up in.
Therefore hawthorn flies mate with hawthorn flies and apple flies mate with apple flies. If genetic changes between the hawthorn maggot flies and the apple maggot flies continue until the flies are different species, this would be an example of A) allopatric speciation. B) parapatric speciation. C) sympatric speciation.
Q3) Orthologous genes may form gene families in a species.
A)True
B)False
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