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Course Introduction
Introduction to Forensic Science provides an overview of the fundamental principles and techniques used in the application of science to the criminal justice system. Students will explore methodologies for collecting, preserving, and analyzing physical evidence from crime scenes, including fingerprints, DNA, trace materials, and digital data. The course covers foundational topics such as forensic pathology, toxicology, entomology, and serology, as well as the legal and ethical considerations involved in forensic investigations. Through case studies and hands-on activities, students will gain an understanding of the roles forensic scientists play in solving crimes and supporting the legal process.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard
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Q1) The ten sections of The American Academy of Forensic Science include all of the following except:
A) Arson/Explosives
B) General
C) Jurisprudence
D) Toxicology
E) Criminalistics
Answer: A
Q2) Bite marks would be LEAST likely to be found in cases involving:
A) child abuse.
B) assault.
C) arson.
D) sexual abuse.
E) murder.
Answer: C
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Q1) The crime scene notes must accurately record:
A) the tasks assigned each investigator.
B) personnel arrivals and departures from the scene.
C) descriptions of evidence present at the crime scene.
D) arrival and departure times of media personnel and on-lookers.
E) A, B, and C.
Answer: E
Q2) A rough sketch need NOT include a:
A) location of walls, doors and windows in the building on scene.
B) sketch of the suspect(s).
C) compass heading designating north.
D) date, location, and time of the incident.
E) location of all recovered physical evidence.
Answer: B
Q3) As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye:
A) remains the same.
B) decreases.
C) increases.
Answer: C
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Q1) Physical evidence can be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion if:
A) it is collected in accordance with the Fourth Amendment.
B) it does not have a well-documented chain of custody.
C) evidence taken from suspect is obtained voluntarily.
D) the standard reference sample (control) does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene.
E) he or she has not already confessed to the crime.
Answer: D
Q2) If the laboratory can piece broken glass from a window or headlight together, then the evidence has ___________ characteristics.
A) identification
B) comparative
C) class
D) individual
E) none of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) What is the main ingredient in ordinary glass?
A) soda (NaCO)
B) lime (CaO)
C) borate
D) metal oxides
E) sand
Q2) The periodic table is a:
A) summary of the order of analyses undertaken in a forensic investigation.
B) chart listing by name and symbol of all the known elements.
C) forensic text table of contents.
D) special laboratory surface for multiphase experiments.
E) forensic newsletter issued periodically.
Q3) If an object is immersed in a liquid of greater density, it will:
A) float.
B) be suspended in the liquid.
C) sink.
Q4) Explain the application of density and refractive index as it pertains to glass evidence.
Q5) Explain the difference between elements and compounds. Cite one example of each.
Q6) Describe the proper collection of glass evidence.
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Q1) Which is NOT an effect of marijuana use?
A) dryness of the mouth
B) decrease in appetite for sweets
C) increased heart rate
D) reddening of the eyes
E) impaired motor skills
Q2) The pattern and intensity of dependency on a drug does not depend on the:
A) cost of the drug.
B) bioavailability of the active metabolite.
C) individual's rate of metabolism.
D) frequency of administration.
E) dose and route of administration.
Q3) "Designer" drugs are:
A) high-end products of the major pharmaceutical companies.
B) often abused by the wealthy.
C) only available in "boutique" pharmacies and drug stores.
D) chemically related to controlled substances.
E) very often used in the fashion industry.
Q4) Compare and contrast the clinical aspects of psychological and physical drug dependency.
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Q1) Alcohol is eliminated from the body chemically unchanged in:
A) perspiration.
B) urine.
C) breath.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q2) Briefly describe the case of Schmerber v. California and the implied consent laws.
Q3) Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported through the body and eliminated.
Q4) The DOT set the maximum allowable blood alcohol concentration for commercial truck and bus drivers at:
A) .04%.
B) .05%.
C) .08%.
D) .02%.
E) .10%.
Q5) Briefly describe how a toxicologist finds a drug in human tissue or organs.
Q6) List and describe lab tests that are used in measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.
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Q1) Bruno Richard Hauptmann was convicted of the kidnap and murder of the Lindbergh child in part on the basis of optical examination of:
A) GSR (gunshot residue).
B) hair.
C) wood.
D) soil.
E) fibers.
Q2) An objective lens with a numerical aperture of 1.50 can separate details at half the distance of a lens with a numerical aperture of:
A) 3.00
B) 0.075
C) 0.75
D) 0.65
E) 30.00
Q3) Working Distance
Q4) Briefly describe how a microspectrophotometer is used to examine trace evidence.
Q5) Magnification
Q6) Depth of Focus
Q7) Field of View
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Q1) Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.
Q2) Which blood components are directly pertinent to the forensic aspects of blood identification?
A) white blood cells
B) blood serum
C) red blood cells
D) platelets
E) both B and C
Q3) List the lab tests that are used to characterize seminal stains.
Q4) Describe how blood and semen are to be properly preserved.
Q5) In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility?
A) D
B) A
C) B
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q6) Create a table showing the four blood types, their antigens and their antibodies.
Q7) List and describe the presumptive tests used to determine if a stain is blood.
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Q1) The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism's:
A) environment.
B) decisions.
C) nitrogenous bases.
D) DNA nucleotide sequence.
E) amino acids.
Q2) Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA?
A) cytosine
B) uracil
C) guanine
D) adenine
E) thymine
Q3) The separation of STRs using capillary electrophoresis:
A) evolved from the flat-gel electrophoresis approach.
B) automates sampling and data collection.
C) decreases analysis time.
D) is currently the preferred method.
E) all of the above
Q4) Explain the forensic value of VNTR's.
Q5) Diagram the complementary strand for the following DNA segment ATAGCCGTA.
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Q1) The intersection of straight lines through the long axis of several individual bloodstains in an impact spatter pattern illustrates the ___________ of the pattern:
A) drying time
B) void pattern
C) velocity classification
D) area of origin
E) area of convergence
Q2) Explain how the texture of a surface, directionality and the angle of impact can impact the shape of the individual bloodstains.
Q3) The ________________ of a bloodstain pattern in a three-dimensional space illustrates the position of the victim or suspect when the stain-producing event took place.
A) directionality
B) tangent area
C) area of origin
D) area of convergence
E) void
Q4) Describe the methods used to document bloodstain evidence at a crime scene.
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Q1) List and explain the three phases of hair growth.
Q2) The monomers involved in the synthesis of proteins are:
A) lipids.
B) sugars.
C) amino acids.
D) fatty acids.
E) starches.
Q3) In the Wayne Williams case, the fibers that proved to be the most crucial evidence were made of:
A) acetate and nylon.
B) nylon and silk.
C) silk and acetate.
D) wool and cotton.
E) acrylate and mylar.
Q4) Generally, the parallel refractive index of a fiber is ________ the perpendicular refractive index of the same fiber.
A) greater than
B) the same as
C) less than
Q5) Explain the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.
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Q1) Briefly describe what an isotope is.
Q2) List and explain the important forensic properties of soil.
Q3) Atoms having the same atomic number but different atomic masses are called:
A) isobars.
B) isotopes.
C) isotherms.
D) isometrics.
E) isomers.
Q4) Describe the proper collection and preservation techniques for paint evidence.
Q5) In order to compare soil specimens, some forensic laboratories rely on:
A) GRIM 3 results.
B) the density-gradient tube technique.
C) the 3 R rule.
D) a reference collection.
E) refractive index studies.
Q6) Which coat represents the "eye appeal"?
A)electrocoat primer
B)primer surface
C)basecoat
D)clearcoat

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Q1) All combustible fuels simultaneously igniting to engulf a structure in flames is known as:
A) flashover.
B) pyrolysis.
C) combustion.
D) flash point.
E) spontaneous combustion.
Q2) Which substance has the highest ignition temperature?
A) kerosene
B) benzene
C) fuel oil
D) turpentine
E) octane
Q3) When investigators search a fire scene, the first focus must be on:
A) finding the origin of the fire.
B) taking photographs and making sketches.
C) looking for signs of breaking and entering.
D) interviewing eyewitnesses.
E) all of the above
Q4) List and explain the telltale signs that a fire has been accelerant initiated.
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Q1) For each of the following provide an example of a common type of explosive; commercial, homemade and military.
Q2) Describe how a forensic scientist would collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion.
Q3) Which is a homemade explosive that has been used by terrorist organizations in the Middle East?
A) PETN
B) RDX
C) TATP
D) TNT
E) tetryl
Q4) High explosives can be classified as either ___________ or ___________ explosives.
A) initial; secondary
B) military grade; non-military grade
C) civilian; military
D) primary; secondary
E) low impact; high impact
Q5) Briefly explain the classification of explosives.
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Q1) Will West was the man who:
A) had a virtual "double" with a similar name.
B) invented Superglue.
C) was identified generations later by DNA analysis.
D) mutilated his fingerprints with acid.
E) devised the fingerprint classification system used in Spanish-speaking countries.
Q2) Investigators can use ________ to detect latent fingerprints without use of chemicals or powder treatments.
A) GC/MS
B) RUVIS
C) FTIR
D) GRIM 3
E) AFIS
Q3) Prints that are not readily visible are commonly referred to as:
A) rolled.
B) obscured.
C) plastic.
D) latent.
E) open.
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Q1) The distribution of gunpowder particles and other discharge residues around a bullet hole permits:
A) estimation of the height of the shooter
B) determination of the distance from which the gun was fired
C) determination of the caliber of bullet used
D) determination of the kind of firearm used
E) estimation of the angle of bullet impact
Q2) Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft earth can be best preserved by:
A) photographing and casting with dental stone.
B) photographing and then use of the electrostatic lifting technique.
C) casting with dental stone and then attempting the electrostatic lift technique.
D) It is not possible to accurately preserve such markings.
E) both A and B
Q3) Generally speaking, the amount of gun powder particles found around a bullet hole is ________ to the distance from which the weapon was fired.
A) indirectly related
B) directly related
C) not related
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Q1) If an investigator is to prepare standards from a suspect typewriter, the following procedure is recommended:
A) Partial copies of the suspect text are to be typed in light, medium, and heavy touches.
B) Each character should be typed without the ribbon.
C) Prepare at least one copy of the text in full word-for-word order.
D) Examine the type impressions left on the ribbon.
E) All of the above are recommended procedures.
Q2) In the case of ___________, the Supreme Court held handwriting to be nontestimonial evidence not protected by Fifth Amendment privileges.
A) United States Secret Service v. Mara
B) Gilbert v. California
C) United States v. Mara
D) Carmichael v. Kumho Tire Co.
E) none of the above
Q3) List and describe some of the techniques that document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.
Q4) What is a questioned document?
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Q1) A software algorithm used to create a "fingerprint" of a file or an entire HDD is called:
A) RAM.
B) MD5.
C) CPU.
D) ROM.
E) MAC OS.
Q2) Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene.
Q3) List and describe three locations where forensic investigators may pinpoint the origin of a hacker.
Q4) One gigabyte can be expressed as:
A) 1,000 kilobytes (KB).
B) 1,000 bytes.
C) 1,000 megabytes (MB).
D) 8,000 bits.
E) 80,000 kilobytes (KB).
Q5) Describe how e-mails, chat and IM's can be traced and recovered by a computer forensics expert.
Q6) Explain the various areas found on the computer where a user's Internet activities can be investigated.
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