Introduction to Forensic Science Pre-Test Questions - 866 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Forensic Science

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Introduction to Forensic Science provides students with a comprehensive overview of how scientific principles and techniques are applied to legal investigations. This course examines the roles of forensic scientists, crime scene analysis, the collection and preservation of evidence, and the interpretation of physical, chemical, and biological specimens. Students will explore the fundamentals of fingerprint analysis, toxicology, DNA profiling, trace evidence, ballistics, and forensic pathology. Through case studies and practical exercises, the course highlights the significance of forensic science in the justice system and introduces ethical considerations involved in forensic investigations.

Recommended Textbook

Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo

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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious

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Q1) Are there any problems with having trial judges as the gatekeepers? How can the system be improved?

Answer: Main points:

Under the Daubert standard, judges are to decide whether to allow expert testimony. Judges are expected to be "amateur scientists".

Judges do not have the training in research and thus cannot discern between good and not-so-good science.

To improve the system, judges need to undergo mandatory training in research methods and be kept abreast of new scientific knowledge in the field of forensic psychology and other social sciences through continuing education.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance

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Q1) Sylvester is hired by the defense to help select jurors who would be less likely to convict. This is an example of the following role played by psychologists in the legal system:

A) advisor

B) evaluator

C) reformer

D) clinician

Answer: A

Q2) Isabella is advocating for a change in the way domestic violence victims are treated by police and the courts. This is an example of the following role played by psychologists in the legal system:

A) advisor

B) evaluator

C) reformer

D) clinician

Answer: C

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance

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Q1) The legal realism movement that has re-energized the dormant field of law and social science in the late 1920s and 1930s has all of the following as its key principles, EXCEPT:

A) laws reflect immutable principles found in nature.

B) laws must be continually re-examined and adjusted.

C) law is one of the tools to make society better.

D) law is only as good as its effects.

Answer: A

Q2) Judges _____ the use of brain scans in the courtroom claiming that the scientific value of this evidence _____.

A) gladly accept; is exceptional

B) routinely deny; is not established

C) never accept; only applies in brain injury cases

D) often allow; can be correctly interpreted during expert testimony

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.

Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?

Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) Research shows that:

A) it is easy for jurors to discount or ignore a confession when told it is false.

B) it is very difficult for jurors to discount a confession, even when told it is false.

C) jurors can forget the confession if told by the judge that it is false.

D) None of the above statements are true.

Q2) Jeremy purposely confessed to a crime he did not commit to cover for his wife. This type of confession is referred to as an:

A) instrumental-coerced confession.

B) instrumental-voluntary confession.

C) authentic-coerced confession.

D) authentic-voluntary confession.

Q3) All of the following are possible explanations for waiving the Miranda rights, EXCEPT:

A) the suspect may not understand his or her rights clearly.

B) people are used to signing waivers or various kinds.

C) police are very careful in explaining to suspects their rights.

D) people do not want to create an impression they are guilty.

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions

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Q1) After a long interrogation, an innocent suspect comes to believe he has committed a crime despite having no memory of doing so. His interrogators have told him that he must have either "blacked out" during the commission of the crime or "repressed" his memory because the experience was so traumatic. His subsequent confession would be classified as an:

A) instrumental-coerced false confession.

B) instrumental-voluntary false confession.

C) authentic-coerced false confession.

D) authentic-voluntary false confession.

Q2) If a man falsely claims to have committed a crime to cover up an affair, he would be making an:

A) instrumental-coerced confession.

B) instrumental-voluntary confession.

C) authentic-coerced confession.

D) authentic-voluntary confession.

Q3) What was traditionally called "the third degree" refers to:

A) interrogation tactics that included direct physical violence.

B) interrogation tactics that used purely psychological means of coercion.

C) the good cop-bad cop approach.

D) having three officers present during an interrogation.

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection

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Q1) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).

Q2) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.

Q3) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.

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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection

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Q1) Training people to detect lies _____ their ability _____ their confidence in their ability to discern lies.

A) improves; but undermines B) improves; and enhances C) does not improve; but raises D) does not improve; and thwarts

Q2) When police detectives were assessed as to their ability to detect lies, according to the text, they were _____ likely to correctly assess the truthfulness of videotaped statements compared with college students.

A) more

B) less C) equally as

D) significantly more

Q3) Some promising low-tech methods of lie detection include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) asking the suspects to tell their stories backwards.

B) insisting that suspects maintain eye contact with the interrogator.

C) asking suspects to draw a picture.

D) making suspects listen to their own story recorded.

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection

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Q1) Lucas is very worried that somebody may find out about his activities in drug trade. When asked questions about drug selling, he would deny any involvement and likely experience the following physiological changes detected by the polygraph:

A) lower blood pressure, fatigue, and constipation.

B) changes in breathing, eye movements, and body temperature.

C) decrease in skin moisture, coughing, and dry mouth.

D) changes in blood pressure, breathing, and skin conductance.

Q2) What type of error is committed when a guilty suspect is misclassified as innocent?

A) false negative

B) false positive

C) true negative

D) true positive

Q3) All of the following are described in the text as promising lie-detection technologies being developed currently EXCEPT:

A) criteria-based content analysis (CBCA).

B) hand micromovement tracing.

C) electroencephalogram (EEG).

D) high-definition infrared thermal imaging.

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Q1) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.

Q2) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?

Q3) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?

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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic

Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace

Evidence

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Q1) A qualitative statement made by an expert when presenting evidence is:

A) a subjective statement corroborated by statistics.

B) a non-statistical statement about the strength of a match.

C) dependent on simple match standards of inquiry.

D) supported by extensive research with peer review.

Q2) A survey was administered to high school seniors in Anytown. According to the survey results, fewer than 10 of them drove drunk in the previous 3 month. However, Anytown police records indicate that more than 30 Anytown seniors were arrested for driving drunk in the previous 3 months. On the basis of this information, the survey has:

A) high inter-rater validity.

B) low inter-rater reliability.

C) high test-retest reliability.

D) low measurement validity.

Q3) Class characteristics can best be described as:

A) unique to a particular object.

B) common to a general group of objects.

C) unique to a particular person.

D) common to a general group of fingerprint examiners.

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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic

Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace

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Q1) If a measure or observation consistently produces similar results through repeated measurements, it is known as:

A) validity.

B) reliability.

C) practicality.

D) accuracy.

Q2) The largest DNA database system in the world is maintained by the:

A) INTERPOL.

B) FBI.

C) CIA.

D) Secret Service.

Q3) For many years, _____ forensic evidence, like bullet matching or handwriting analysis, has been used _____ in the courts.

A) questionable; widely

B) solid; rarely

C) questionable; rarely

D) solid; widely

Page 14

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).

Q2) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?

Q3) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) The characteristics of serial killers seem to have _____ though there _____ common to all serial killers.

A) little similarity; are a few traits

B) some recurring patterns; are only two characteristics

C) a lot of similarities; are only two characteristics

D) some recurring patterns; are no characteristics

Q2) According to the text, the attempt to examine the psychological state of an individual prior to his or her death is known as:

A) the NASH system.

B) geographic profiling.

C) psychological autopsy.

D) probative evidence.

Q3) The reliance on maps and mathematics to develop predictions about possible locations of future crimes is referred to as:

A) criminal profiling.

B) characterization.

C) geographic profiling.

D) the NASH system.

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies

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Q1) Which of the following types of serial killers is most likely to be psychotic, as hypothesized by Holmes and Holmes (2010)?

A) Hedonistic

B) Power-oriented

C) Mission-oriented

D) Visionary

Q2) Behavioral investigative advice (BIA) offers help to investigators on all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) whether a crime might be part of a series of crimes.

B) what questions to ask during police interviews.

C) how to use the media to lure the suspect into making a mistake.

D) what personality traits can be inferred from crime scene evidence.

Q3) Most serial murder cases _____ solved by diligent police work _____ profiles. A) are not; but rather by B) are not; nor by C) are; with a huge help from D) are; and not by

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?

Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?

Q3) Explain the voir dire process.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Sample Questions

Q1) The one day or one trial system is used to:

A) increase guilty pleas.

B) reduce the time defendants spend in jail.

C) turn criminal into civil cases.

D) reduce the number of hardship exemptions.

Q2) According to the text, research completed by Olczak, Kaplan, and Penrod (1991) revealed that seasoned lawyers performed _____ students when selecting favorable juries.

A) slightly better than B) less well than

C) no better than

D) significantly better than

Q3) What is usually called jury _____ is actually a process of _____.

A) desensitization; appreciation of differences

B) selection; eliminating candidates from the pool

C) swearing-in ceremony; explaining the trial procedure

D) stereotyping; social scientific research

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing

Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults

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Q1) Comparing two high-profile cases of "scientific jury selection" -- the "Harrisburg Seven" in Pennsylvania in 1972 and OJ Simpson in 1995 -- most people who know the cases can agree that:

A) both cases represent a triumph of scientific jury selection.

B) both cases demonstrate a failure of scientific jury selection.

C) scientific jury selection failed in one case and triumphed in the other.

D) neither case is a good example of scientific jury selection.

Q2) In civil cases, the standard of proof for being held liable is _____, while in criminal cases, it is _____.

A) beyond a reasonable doubt; clear and convincing evidence

B) clear and convincing evidence; preponderance of the evidence

C) preponderance of the evidence; beyond a reasonable doubt

D) reasonable person standard; clear and convincing evidence

Q3) A juror that scores high on measures of authoritarianism would be least likely to convict:

A) a gang member accused of killing another gang member.

B) a police officer accused of using excessive force.

C) a college student accused of stealing.

D) a politician accused of corruption.

Page 20

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.

Q2) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?

Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) According to the text, the cross-race effect is present in babies as young as:

A) 6 months.

B) 9 months.

C) 12 months.

D) 18 months.

Q2) The memory process is often described as having the following component(s):

A) encoding, storage, retrieval.

B) storage, retrieval, identification.

C) retrieval, storage, processing.

D) processing, encoding, storage.

Q3) When presented with a lineup, Alexis was able to identify the perpetrator of a robbery she had witnessed. She was not sure of her identification at first, but when the investigator mentioned that another witness had also chosen the same suspect, her confidence that she remembered the perpetrator well grew close to 100%. This is an illustration of:

A) scripts.

B) unconscious transference.

C) post-identification feedback effect.

D) bias-reducing instructions.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony

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Q1) Tracy witnessed two men holding up a bank, both wearing camouflage pants. When questioned about the crime, she had a good recall for the pants and described these pants in detail to the policemen. When she was questioned about the crime a month later, she still remembered the pants but had a poor recall for other details. This phenomenon is known as:

A) decay theory.

B) retrieval inhibition.

C) unconscious transference.

D) the bystander effect.

Q2) According to research studies on eye witness identification that are described in the text, which of the following is FALSE?

A) People tend to overestimate the duration of a brief event.

B) It is more difficult for people to recognize the faces of others outside of their racial group.

C) High-stress conditions usually increase the rate of correct identifications.

D) Seeing the perpetrator hold a weapon impairs the witnesses' ability to recognize the assailant.

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?

Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?

Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?

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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) Adjudicative competence is a legal concept that describes defendants' ability to:

A) participate effectively in legal proceedings.

B) plead guilty.

C) aid in their own defense.

D) waive an attorney.

Q2) According to the text, even if the accused is deemed incompetent to stand trial, he or she may receive treatment to become competent, in the legal sense. Restoration to competency happens for _____ of incompetent defendants.

A) about half

B) a moderate number

C) the vast majority

D) the rare few

Q3) Bona fide doubt may also be referred to as _____ doubt.

A) substantial

B) reasonable

C) voluntary

D) collateral

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial

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Q1) Some forensic psychologists argue that all of the following conditions should trigger an automatic competency evaluation for juveniles EXCEPT:

A) history of developmental disability.

B) family history of mental illness.

C) low or "borderline" intelligence.

D) age 12 or younger.

Q2) According to the textbook, all of the following are common mental health problems diagnosed in defendants found to be incompetent to stand trial EXCEPT:

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B) bipolar disorder.

C) schizophrenia.

D) intellectual disability.

Q3) Unlike what most people think, malingering means that all of the following is likely to happen to the criminal defendant who is faking incompetency EXCEPT:

A) being set free.

B) getting hospitalized in a secure facility.

C) his or her competency attempted to be restored.

D) if serious, charges can be refiled later, when competency is regained.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?

Q2) How do jurors view the insanity defense?

Q3) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) Regarding the insanity defense, one reason that jurors often disregard the instructions from judges about legal definitions is that jurors use their _____, whereas the various definitions are often _____.

A) commonsense notions of insanity; narrowly bound

B) narrowly bound concepts; based on common sense

C) complex concepts; based on common sense

D) constrained notions; intentional

Q2) The M'Naghten rule lists three components to be used as a defense in criminal cases. One of the components is that at the moment of the crime, the accused must have:

A) been laboring under a defect of reason.

B) had an irresistible impulse.

C) been possessed by a demon.

D) been unable to exercise self-control.

Q3) Legal definitions of insanity are crafted by:

A) legislators and psychologists.

B) judges and psychiatrists.

C) social workers and psychologists.

D) legislators and judges.

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure

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Q1) Contrary to what most people believe, the insanity defense is _____ raised and is usually _____.

A) infrequently; unsuccessful

B) frequently; unsuccessful

C) infrequently; successful

D) frequently; successful

Q2) What happens to defendants who are found guilty but mentally ill?

A) They are released.

B) They are routinely sent to prison.

C) They are sent to a psychiatric hospital.

D) There are no clear rules on dispositions for these defendants.

Q3) Successful insanity pleas are associated with all of these psychiatric illnesses EXCEPT:

A) psychosis.

B) mental retardation.

C) personality disorders.

D) mood disorders.

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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?

Q2) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?

Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) The DSM-5 contains _____ among its classifications of mental disorders.

A) the rape trauma syndrome (RTS)

B) the battered women syndrome (BWS)

C) the battered spouse syndrome (BSS)

D) It contains none of these.

Q2) Studies have found that women who used violence against their abusers were likely to be found _____ in a jury trial, and expert testimony on BWS was likely to _____.

A) guilty; support the prosecution's arguments

B) not guilty; help the defendant win an acquittal

C) guilty; not make a difference

D) not guilty; matter very little

Q3) Betty endured abuse throughout most of her 30+ years of marriage. During that time, she became less resistive to the attacks and more submissive. A term Lenore Walker used to describe this state is:

A) posttraumatic stress syndrome.

B) reorganization phase.

C) learned helplessness.

D) hypervigilance.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense

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Q1) Studies that analyzed verdicts reached in cases of battered women who killed their husbands or partners, found that _____ of the women were convicted, and expert testimony on BWS _____.

A) very few; made a substantial impact on jurors

B) the vast majority; did not have much influence

C) about half; was crucial

D) none; made all the difference

Q2) Burgess and Holmstrom (1979) found that _____ of rape victims had returned to normal functioning 5 years after the rape.

A) only 5%

B) about half

C) about three quarters

D) over 95%

Q3) According to responses to the National Crime Victimization Survey, intimate partner violence has been _____ in the last 15 to 20 years.

A) increasing

B) staying the same

C) decreasing

D) fluctuating (going up and down)

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?

Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?

Q3) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) There are several conclusions that can be drawn from research on implanting false memories. Which of the following conclusions is NOT correct?

A) The majority of people in the studies did not succumb to successful "memory implantation."

B) If a person is 100% sure the memory is true, it is often a good indicator of a true memory.

C) Hypnosis and other therapeutic techniques facilitate the production of implanted memories.

D) People who strongly believe in the possibility of recovering a suppressed memory are more likely to recover false memories.

Q2) One reason why adult hearsay witness testimony may be perceived differently from that of a child, is that:

A) adults are more confident in their testimony.

B) children are less nervous.

C) adults are more likely to lie without being caught.

D) children are more likely to make eye contact.

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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape

Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:

A) oppression.

B) regression.

C) repression.

D) confabulation.

Q2) In the case of Maryland v. Craig (1990), the Supreme Court allowed the use of _____for child witnesses.

A) hearsay testimony

B) closed-circuit television (CCTV)

C) coercive questioning

D) NICHD Investigative Interview protocol

Q3) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.

A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively

B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently

C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently

D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively

Page 35

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Q1) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?

Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?

Q3) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision

Makers

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Q1) The rights and responsibilities of parents in the determination of custody are called:

A) legal custody.

B) physical custody.

C) child custody.

D) parental competence.

Q2) Jennifer's parents are contemplating divorce and have not been able to agree on custody issues. The fight for custody has already impacted Jennifer, as her dropping grades demonstrate. Unfortunately, the state where the family lives does not have:

A) good legal counseling.

B) psychologists to rely on for opinions.

C) mandatory counseling.

D) mandatory mediation laws.

Q3) The goal of the approximation rule is to:

A) maintain as much stability for the child as possible.

B) make sure the right parent has custody.

C) keep the preferred custody arrangement set in place by the court previously.

D) uphold judicial rights in determining custody.

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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers

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Q1) Which response style is more common in child custody evaluations?

A) Faking good.

B) Acquiescence.

C) Malingering.

D) Learned helplessness.

Q2) All of the following instruments are commonly used by psychologists in child custody evaluations EXCEPT the:

A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Second Edition (MMPI-2).

B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.

C) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Fourth Edition (WAIS-IV).

D) Millon Multiaxial Personality Inventory, Third edition (MCMI-III).

Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about mediation?

A) It leads to custody agreements more quickly.

B) It is conducted in a non-adversarial setting.

C) It is more costly than litigation.

D) It is faster than litigation.

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?

Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?

Q3) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) Unanimity is required by _____ states in capital murder trials.

A) 25

B) 30

C) 45

D) all 50

Q2) When jurors are instructed to disregard the inadmissible evidence, they sometimes feel there is no good reason for such an instruction. Instead, they give that evidence an even greater weight. This process is assumed by _____.

A) relativity

B) parallel processes

C) inferiority

D) reactance

Q3) During the deliberation process, two distinct styles are evident. These two styles are _____ and _____.

A) verdict-driven style; evidence-driven style

B) verdict-driven style; leniency-based

C) evidence-driven style; reactance-based

D) evidence-driven style; reconciliation

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes

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Q1) Research suggests that judges and juries agree on verdicts in about _____ of cases.

A) 3/4

B) 1/2

C) 1/3

D) 1/4

Q2) The process by which jurors change their opinions because of compelling arguments from other jurors is known as:

A) normative influence.

B) informational influence.

C) reconciliation.

D) situational influence.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a factor likely to lead to a hung jury?

A) Unanimous decision rules.

B) Ambiguity of evidence.

C) Length of trial.

D) Attorney skills.

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Q1) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?

Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?

Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness

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Q1) Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as:

A) voluntary civil commitment.

B) involuntary civil commitment.

C) involuntary criminal commitment.

D) deinstitutionalization.

Q2) According to the text, research studies find that the rate of sexual reoffense is _____ than that of other crimes.

A) slightly higher

B) significantly higher

C) lower

D) not different

Q3) Cathy is incarcerated because she has a history of physical and mental abuse of her stepchildren. She has been held in custody for an extended period because she has the possibility of becoming violent, which is also known as:

A) extended detention.

B) preventative detention.

C) overzealous sentencing.

D) legitimate sentencing.

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness

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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Court extend the Tarasoff requirement by deciding that information provided by a family member of an adult client and not by the client could trigger the "duty to protect" requirement?

A) O'Connor v. Donaldson

B) Ewing v. Goldstein

C) Kansas v. Hendricks

D) Kansas v. Crane

Q2) Many states and the federal government have passed sexually violent predator civil commitment laws. The basis of these laws is to protect vulnerable citizens, or exercise the _____ power, and to restrain violent individuals, or exercise the state's _____ power.

A) parens patriae; police

B) police; parens patriae

C) double jeopardy; substantive

D) substantive; double jeopardy

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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the

Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?

Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?

Q3) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?

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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) It is often difficult to take a precise look at how much sexual harassment takes place on the job. One reason, according to the text, is that when asked about such past events, victims create reports that might be biased because of:

A) social desirability bias.

B) the interviewer's poor interviewing skills.

C) distorted memories.

D) confusion about the interview's purpose.

Q2) Another form of harassment is when a work environment is so contentious that victims cannot carry out their job responsibilities. This type of sexual harassment is referred to as:

A) hostile environment.

B) discrimination based on gender.

C) quid pro quo harassment.

D) consensual relationship.

Q3) Two basic forms of sexual harassment at work were identified by:

A) Howard Smith.

B) Peter Glick.

C) Susan Fiske.

D) Catherine MacKinnon.

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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment

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Q1) "Sleep with me if you want to be promoted" is an example of which type of sexual harassment, as identified by Catherine MacKinnon?

A) Quid pro quo.

B) Sexual discrimination.

C) Hostile work environment.

D) Sexual categorical remarks.

Q2) Studies show some clear signs that modern forms of racism do exist. For example, one study finds that:

A) subjects report liking Black people slightly less than liking White people, and their facial muscles confirm this reality.

B) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.

C) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that they like Black people significantly more than they report.

D) subjects report liking Black people much less than liking White people, but their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.

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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,

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Q1) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.

Q2) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?

Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.

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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives

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Q1) Prisons were formed to change criminals into productive members of society. However, this perspective is at odds with the other goals of imprisonment, such as retribution and incapacitation. According to the text, failure to improve criminals' socially acceptable skills, as well as the generally unpleasant nature of prisons, often leaves criminals:

A) ill trained but less violent.

B) more able to exercise self-control.

C) more sedate and thoughtful.

D) ill trained and more aggressive.

Q2) One way that criminals were punished in the American colonies was through _____, which included being placed into stocks.

A) imprisonment

B) work release

C) public shaming

D) probation

Q3) Prisons generally hold criminals:

A) for a long period of time.

B) for a short period of time.

C) until they receive a hearing.

D) while they await trial.

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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives

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Q1) Which of the four goals of imprisonment did the creators of early prisons in the United States aspire to fulfill?

A) Incapacitation.

B) Deterrence.

C) Retribution.

D) Rehabilitation.

Q2) The Supreme Court abandoned the rigidity of mandatory sentencing in the case of:

A) United States v. Booker.

B) United States v. Ruback.

C) United States v. McCarthy.

D) United States v. Wroblewksi.

Q3) According to the text, all of the following factors have contributed to the stunning rise of the prison population in the United States, EXCEPT:

A) "war on drugs."

B) increased use of parole.

C) mandatory sentencing.

D) increased imprisonment of juveniles.

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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty

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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?

Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?

Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.

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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty

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Q1) According to the text, the race of the victim is possibly more important than the race of the defendant when it comes to sentencing. Research has shown that if the victim is white, the prosecution is more than _____ as likely to recommend the death penalty.

A) twice

B) three times

C) four times

D) five times

Q2) In Roper v. Simmons (2005), the Court ruled against juveniles being executed because they are inherently:

A) more impulsive than adults.

B) less impulsive than adults.

C) more culpable than adults.

D) less culpable than adults.

Q3) A defendant is deemed "guilty" or "not guilty" during _____ of a capital murder trial.

A) phase one

B) phase two

C) the early part

D) the final days

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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty

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Q1) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:

A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.

B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.

C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.

D) guilt phase and penalty phase.

Q2) How many states have NO death penalty?

A) 18

B) 29

C) 31

D) 37

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a result of Gregg v. Georgia (1976) and its companion cases?

A) The sentence of death was made mandatory for certain types of murder.

B) All death sentences are reviewed by state supreme courts.

C) Bifurcated proceedings are used in all capital trials.

D) Jurors are instructed to weigh aggravating and mitigating factors.

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