Introduction to Food Science Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Introduction to Food Science explores the fundamental principles underlying the nature, composition, and behavior of food. This course examines the physical, chemical, and biological properties of food components and investigates the processes involved in food preparation, preservation, safety, and quality control. Students will learn about the impact of processing techniques on nutritional value, sensory attributes, and shelf life. The course also introduces current issues and advancements in food science, including food biotechnology, additives, labeling, and sustainability, preparing students for further study or careers in the diverse field of food science.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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Chapter 1: Food Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Religious practices primarily influence dietary intake by
A) defining what is and is not acceptable to eat.
B) declaring foods as acceptable or unacceptable and specifying preparation procedures.
C) requiring blessings and specialized preparation procedures before consumption.
D) requiring all food to be blessed and well cooked.
Answer: B
Q2) olfactory
A)relating to the sense of smell
B)combined sense of taste, odor, and mouthfeel
C)a description of a food's firmness or thickness
D)relating to the sense of taste
E)capable of evaporating like a gas into the air
Answer: A
Q3) The SuperTracker is a graphic representation of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Food Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) shortometer
A)used to measure mineral content
B)measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
C)measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
D)measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
E)measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following chemical tests measures the degree of unsaturation in fats?
A) pH test
B) iodine value test
C) peroxide value test
D) chromatography
E) fuchsin test
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sterol of least significance in food is cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following food items is/are not a colloidal dispersion?
A) salad dressings
B) jam, gelatin, cheese, and butter
C) whipped egg white and whipped cream foams
D) marshmallows
E) all of the above are colloidal dispersions
Answer: E
Q3) The physiological purpose of eating and drinking is to replace those nutrients used up
A) in the body's maintenance.
B) in the body's repair.
C) in the body's growth.
D) as energy.
E) all of the above answers are correct
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of foodborne illness is caused by _____.
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) parasites
D) industrial chemicals
Q2) According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which of the following foods is not in the temperature danger zone?
A) roast beef sandwich standing at 38 degrees F
B) cooked rice standing at 45 degrees F
C) baked potato standing at 115 degrees F
D) pasta and vegetable salad standing at 128 degrees F
Q3) National surveillance information for foodborne illnesses ultimately goes to federal offices such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Listeria monocytogenes is one of the few bacteria who can thrive at refrigerator temperatures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume of one large egg is approximately _____ ounce(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) To _____ a food is to cut it lengthwise into very thin, stick-like shapes.
A) dice
B) julienne
C) mince
D) shred
E) slice
Q3) Which of the following mixing methods produces cakes with a fine-grained, velvety texture?
A) conventional sponge method
B) conventional or creaming method
C) pastry-blend method
D) muffin method
E) single-stage method
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Chapter 6: Meal Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about centerpieces is false?
A) Centerpieces should be the predominant visual piece that overpowers the dining room.
B) Centerpieces should not keep guests from being able to see each other across the table.
C) Centerpieces should be in scale with the table.
D) all of the above are true statements
Q2) Comparison of food prices is based on A) edible portion.
B) as purchased portion.
C) cost per serving.
D) delivery charges.
Q3) No matter what type of meal service is used, dessert is always placed on a cleared table.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Russian table service, a chilled sorbet is served after the main entrée to refresh the palate by clearing any lingering flavors.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Meats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a method of aging meats?
A) rigor mortis
B) fast or wet
C) vacuum
D) none of the above because all of the answers are methods of aging meats
Q2) Collagen's molecular structure consists of
A) three polypeptide strands twisted together.
B) strands held together by hydrogen and covalent bonds.
C) strands that are high in proline, hydroxyproline, and glycine.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) _____ is a brown sauce made with mushrooms, tomato sauce, and tarragon.
A) Bordelaise
B) Chasseur
C) Mornay
D) Robert
Q4) When broiling thick steaks or those to be well done, the door of an electric oven should be left open while a gas broiler door should be left closed.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Poultry
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Q1) Regardless of the preparation procedure used, poultry should be cooked until it holds 165 degrees F for a minimum of 15 seconds because of the risk of foodborne illness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Turkeys may be trussed before they are cooked to
A) shorten cooking time.
B) withstand higher cooking temperatures.
C) ensure the skin turns a golden brown and gets crispy.
D) prevent the legs and wings from overcooking before the breast is done.
E) all of the above
Q3) Poultry is sold by
A) age at slaughter and weight, regardless of gender.
B) gender and age.
C) gender, weight, and degree of fat.
D) weight at slaughter.
Q4) The best way to determine the doneness of poultry is by touching; if it is firm to the touch it is done.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abalones are the largest of crustaceans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) whole fish
A)body that is entirely intact
B)head, tail, fins and scales, and entrails are removed
C)made by slicing the fish lengthwise from front to back
D)whole fish with entrails removed
E)cut from dressed fish from top fin to bottom fin at 90 degree angle
Q3) dressed fish
A)body that is entirely intact
B)head, tail, fins and scales, and entrails are removed
C)made by slicing the fish lengthwise from front to back
D)whole fish with entrails removed
E)cut from dressed fish from top fin to bottom fin at 90 degree angle
Q4) One of the reasons why fish is tender is because
A) it is impossible to overcook it.
B) of the high omega-3 fatty acid content.
C) there is little hydroxyproline in the connective tissue.
D) all of the above answers are correct
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Chapter 10: Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to prevent the curdling of a milk mixture that contains an acid is to
A) add the acid to the milk mixture.
B) add the milk to the acid mixture.
C) add salt to the mixture before adding the milk.
D) wait until after the milk and acid are combined to heat the mixture.
Q2) Although milk is rich in many minerals, it is low in iron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Milk treated with the enzyme lactase has a slightly tangy flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following compounds does not contribute to the color of milk?
A) fat
B) carotene
C) riboflavin
D) niacin
E) calcium complexesf. none of the above answers is correct
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Chapter 11: Cheese
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cheese should be both frozen and thawed as quickly as possible for the best quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ tends not to oil off during cooking.
A) Muenster
B) Monterey jack
C) Mozzarella
D) Camembert
Q3) Hard cheese
A)A cheese aged for a very short period, containing 50-75% moisture.
B)A cheese that is not aged, containing greater than 80% moisture.
C)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 30-40% moisture.
D)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 40-50% moisture.
E)A cheese aged for the longest period of time, containing approximately 30% moisture.
Q4) It is correct to cut the mold off most soft, unripened cheeses as long as you go out one inch from the moldy area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Eggs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding methods for hard-cooking eggs?
A) A drawback of the hot-start method is that eggs may crack when lowered into the water.
B) A drawback of the hot-start method is that the eggs may be more difficult to peel.
C) A drawback of the cold-start method is that the process requires more attention.
D) An advantage of the cold-start method is that the egg white by the shell's surface stays soft and does not overcook.
Q2) Grades for eggs are determined by
A) candling.
B) evaluating the appearance.
C) measuring the Haugh units.
D) all of the above
Q3) The only part of the egg which will produce a stable foam is the white.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potentially toxic compound called solanine is produced when A) potatoes are exposed to sunlight.
B) vegetables are stored in airtight plastic bags and they "stew."
C) legumes are soaked or cooked in alkaline environment.
D) legumes are soaked or cooked in an acidic environment.
Q2) Vegetables are a source of
A) balanced proteins.
B) complete proteins.
C) incomplete proteins.
D) unbalanced proteins.
Q3) carotenoids
A)the yellow and orange pigments
B)the blue-green and green pigments
C)the red-purple pigments (eggplant)
D)the cream and white pigments
E)the purple-red and yellow pigments (beets)
Q4) The flavor of cabbage and onions change dramatically when they are cooked and these changes are due to sulfur compounds.
A)True
B)False
15
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Chapter 14: Fruits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deaeration
A) decreases shelf life.
B) increases flavor.
C) reduces the oxidation of vitamin C.
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q2) butter
A)a thick and smooth fruit preserve made from long-cooked fruit that is sieved
B)a mixture of fruits (usually citrus, or at least with some citrus) with added nuts and raisins but no sugar
C)a product made from juice of cooked fruit with added sugar and pectin; may be clear if the juice is strained first
D)a preserved fruit product made from ground or mashed whole cooked fruit
E)a preserved fruit product made from the juice with thin slices of fruit and rind
Q3) Phenolic compounds
A) are also known as tannins.
B) are found predominately in ripe fruits.
C) provide the sweet flavor found in ripe fruits.
D) prevent enzymatic browning by an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Salads whose main ingredients are not leafy vegetables but that still combine several vegetables are called vegetable salads.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The salad's base or under-liner is
A) green leafy vegetables.
B) pasta or some grain.
C) cottage cheese or meat.
D) gelatin, whipped or not.
E) the salad's foundation.
Q3) bisque
A)a broth made from meat and vegetables and then strained to remove the solids
B)a bundle of parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper rolled and tied in a leek
C)a salad dressing consisting of only oil, vinegar, and seasoning
D)a richly flavored soup stock that has been clarified using egg whites
E)a cream soup traditionally made from shellfish
Q4) Raw egg white is used to clarify the stock for consommé.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Corn is native to the:
A) Americas.
B) Asian continent.
C) Australian continent.
D) European continent.
E) African continent.
Q2) Which country produces the most wheat?
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) Russia
D) United States
Q3) The endosperm makes up about _____ percent of the grain.
A) 68
B) 75
C) 83
D) 92
Q4) When cooking grains in a pan, you should add the grain to cold water to achieve a fluffier product, or to boiling water to achieve a stickier product.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding baked products?
A) The simplest flour mixture is made from flour and water.
B) Optional ingredients include milk, fat, eggs, sugar, salt, flavoring, and leavening agents.
C) The ingredients of a flour mixture may be divided into dry or liquid categories.
D) The types and proportions of ingredients determine the structure and volume of the finished product.
E) all of the above answers are correct
Q2) All-purpose flour is a blend of hard and soft wheat flours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about gluten formation is incorrect?
A) Gluten is formed from the combination of gliadin and glutenin.
B) Gluten is both plastic and elastic.
C) Gliadin is elastic while glutenin exhibits fluidity and stickiness.
D) Gluten forms such a solid structure that it can be physically separated from the flour mixture by kneading dough under cold running water.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
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19
Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces
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Q1) Which of the following factors either decreases the viscosity of a starch paste or delays the gelatinization of a starch paste?
A) adding acid prior to the end of pasting
B) stirring late in the cooking process
C) adding sugar to the starch prior to cooking
D) all of the above decrease or delay gelatinization
E) none of the above decreases or delays gelatinzation
Q2) The main difference between a roux and beurre manié is that
A) in a beurre manié, the butter and flour are not cooked.
B) a beurre manié is mixed in all at once.
C) larger quantities of a beurre manié are needed for the same thickening power.
D) with a beurre manié, extended simmering gets rid of the floury taste.
Q3) Starches that are high in amylose content will gel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucose derived from starch is called
A) dextrose.
B) sucrose.
C) maltose.
D) fructose.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Quick Breads
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Q1) chapatis
A)staple breads of Mexico and Central America made from a grain treated with lime
B)the softer and more pliable of the flat breads made in Mexico
C)the whole-wheat flat bread, made with ghee, typical of Indian cuisine
D)Scandinavian flat breads made without any added leavening
E)unleavened breads that are typical of Jewish cuisine since Biblical times
Q2) Overkneading results in a quick bread that is dense and heavy because of the
A) improper gelatinization of starch.
B) over-development of gluten.
C) under-development of gluten.
D) under-development of the starch.
E) separation of the liquid in the batter.
Q3) Insufficient mixing of _____ in a muffin batter may yield a final baked product with an undesirable shiny, waxy appearance on the outside.
A) flour
B) milk
C) sugar
D) eggs
E) butter
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Yeast Breads
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Q1) The yeasts that ferment bread dough become activated at _____, slow down below _____, and die at temperatures at or above _____.
A) 55 to 85 degrees F, 40 degrees F, 130 degrees F
B) 60 to 90 degrees F, 45 degrees F, 135 degrees F
C) 68 to 100 degrees F, 50 degrees F, 140 degrees F
D) 80 to 120 degrees F, 60 degrees F, 145 degrees F
Q2) straight dough method
A)a method in which all ingredients are placed in a bowl at one time, mixed, and kneaded
B)the method that allows for the fermentation of the yeast, water, and one third of the flour
C)the combining and beating of the ingredients to develop the gluten
D)the method used primarily for bread machines
E)increasing the volume of dough through fermentation
Q3) The purpose of second proofing a loaf of bread is to
A) create a dough that is adequately aerated.
B) alter the shape of the loaf with rising.
C) increase the crumb texture.
D) always at least double the volume.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Sweeteners
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Q1) syrups
A)an equal mixture of glucose and fructose created by hydrolyzing sucrose
B)an alternative sweetening agent providing zero to minimal kcalories
C)sugary solutions that vary widely in viscosity, carbohydrate concentration, flavor, and price
D)a process in which dry sugar, or sugar solution with most of its water evaporated, is heated until it melts and then turns into a smooth, brown mixture
E)the precipitation of crystals from a solution into a solid, geometric network
Q2) Despite the controversies over the safety of nonnutritive sweeteners, they are popular with people who have diabetes or are trying to lose weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) High-fructose corn syrup is _____ percent fructose.
A) 25 to 41
B) 42 to 55
C) 56 to 65
D) 66 to 85
E) 86 to 100
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23
Chapter 22: Fats and Oils
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Q1) The health issue related to cis- and trans-fatty acids is
A) cis-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.
B) trans-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
C) cis-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
D) trans-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.
Q2) Functions of fats in foods include
A) shortening power.
B) plasticity and solubility.
C) satiety and nutrients.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) only b and c are correct
Q3) Which of the following crystalline forms is best for food preparation because it yields fine-textured baked goods and smooth-surfaced hydrogenated vegetable shortenings?
A) alpha ( )
B) beta prime ( ')
C) beta ( )
D) There isn't one best form. They all achieve these characteristics.
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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies
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Q1) Angel food cake pans are usually greased on the bottom and sides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cakes does not rely on foam formation for its structure?
A) angel food
B) chiffon
C) pound
D) sponge
Q3) Cream of tartar is added to angel food cake foams to strengthen the egg white foam.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pound cakes can be made lighter and smoother by
A) adding a chemical leavening agent.
B) adding additional eggs and butter.
C) beating for a longer period of time.
D) grinding the sugar.
Q5) Once a shortened cake is done it should be cooled for one hour in the pans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies
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Q1) Cream pie fillings are usually thickened primarily with flour.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The only function of salt in a pastry is flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Brioche pastries
A) are filled with honey and nuts and create a very sweet, heavy dessert shaped into triangles.
B) are made with potatoes.
C) are sweet and made with semolina flour.
D) are commonly airy buns and loaves.
Q4) It is best to avoid overworking the pie dough during mixing or rolling because
A) it elongates the gluten strands.
B) it makes the crust crumble lightly.
C) it increases chilling/resting time.
D) none of the above answers is correct
E) all of the above answers are correct
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Chapter 25: Candy
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Q1) crystalline candy
A)candies formed from sugar solutions handled so as to yield many fine, small crystals
B)substance added to the sugar solution to prevent the formation of large crystals
C)a coating resembling chocolate that is not subject to bloom
D)a basic mixture of boiled sugar and water
E)candies formed from sugar solutions that did not crystallize
Q2) Which of the following options determines the type of candy produced?
A) type and concentration of ingredients
B) temperature to which the mixture is heated
C) the degree to which the mixture is cooled after heating
D) any stirring or manipulation
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) The smoothness of caramels is due to the inhibition of crystal formation by interfering agents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts
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Q1) Low-fat ice cream used to be called
A) ice milk.
B) mellorine.
C) non-fat ice cream.
D) reduced-fat ice cream.
E) imitation ice cream.
Q2) Super-premium brands of ice cream have up to _____ percent milk fat.
A) five
B) ten
C) fifteen
D) twenty
E) twenty-five
Q3) The increasing demand for frozen yogurt is due in part to
A) its less sweet taste and denser texture as compared to ice cream.
B) its high fat content.
C) its "good for you" image.
D) its high probiotic content.
Q4) Sherbet typically provides about as many kcalories as ice cream.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Beverages
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Q1) The use of the fluid extract of coca (cocaine)in Coca-Cola became illegal in the A) 1890s.
B) 1930s.
C) 1950s.
D) 1980s.
Q2) spring water
A)water that has surfaced on its own from an aquifer
B)water that has been heated to form steam and then re-condensed into a liquid
C)water that must have the same mineral content as that flowing naturally to the surface
D)water pumped from an aquifer, an underground source of water
E)water that has undergone deionization, distillation, reverse osmosis, or any other method that removes minerals, chemicals, and flavor
Q3) Carboxymethylcellulose used in diet soft drinks
A) replaces alternative sweeteners.
B) counters the omission of sugars.
C) alters their mouthfeel.
D) improves nutritive value.
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Chapter 28: Food Preservation
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Q1) The green Radura symbol identifies irradiated food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Canning is a _____-step process.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q3) All of the following food items are highly perishable except
A) fresh fish.
B) shell eggs.
C) fresh milk.
D) watermelon.
E) apples.
Q4) A shipping container used to transport produce that is equipped with mechanical controls to regulate the composition of the air inside is an example of A) ozonation equipment.
B) controlled-atmosphere packaging.
C) pascalization in food preservation.
D) a cold pasteurization method.
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Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations
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Q1) Tofu is considered a major allergen as defined by the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act (FALCPA)passed in 2004.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ was the beginning of the government's involvement in food regulation.
A) Pure Food and Drug Act
B) Federal Meat Inspection Act
C) Federal Trade Commission Act
D) Public Health Services Act
Q3) The current parent or umbrella legislation being used today is the _____ Act.
A) 1906 Pure Food and Drug
B) 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
C) 1944 Public Health Services
D) 1958 Food Additives Amendment to 1938
E) 1990 Nutrition Labeling and Nutrition
Q4) Nutrient labeling is not required for food products today.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) Medical nutrition therapy provides care in clinical settings to manage
A) heart disease.
B) diabetes.
C) renal disease.
D) liver failure.
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Nutrition science looks at
A) how nutrients break down, get absorbed, enter cells, and react within a living system.
B) how nutrients affect health through deficiencies.
C) how nutrients affect health through excesses.
D) how medical nutrition therapy can be used to treat certain diet-related health conditions.
E) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) The food service field deals with three basic areas: management, food preparation, and food safety.
A)True
B)False
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