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Introduction to Financial Management provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices involved in managing financial resources within an organization. The course covers key topics such as financial analysis, planning and budgeting, time value of money, risk and return, capital structure, and investment decision-making. By exploring both theoretical concepts and practical applications, students will develop the analytical skills needed to make informed financial decisions, evaluate corporate performance, and understand the role of financial managers in achieving organizational goals. This course serves as an essential building block for further studies in finance, accounting, and business management.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Financial Management 14th Edition by Eugene F. Brigham
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1838 Verified Questions
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Q1) In order to maximize its shareholders' value,a firm's management must attempt to maximize the stock price on a specific target date.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Charleston Corporation (CC)now operates as a "regular" corporation,but it is considering a switch to S Corporation status.CC is owned by 100 stockholders who each hold 1% of the stock,and each faces a personal tax rate of 35%.The firm earns $2,000,000 per year before taxes,and since it has no need for retained earnings,it pays out all of its earnings as dividends.Assume that the corporate tax rate is 34% and the personal tax rate is 35%.How much more (or less)spendable income would each stockholder have if the firm elected S Corporation status?
A)$ 2,565
B)$ 4,420
C)$ 8,580
D)$11,150
E)$13,000
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A)The NYSE does not exist as a physical location. Rather it represents a loose collection of dealers who trade stock electronically.
B)An example of a primary market transaction would be your uncle transferring 100 shares of Walmart stock to you as a birthday gift.
C)Capital market instruments include both long-term debt and common stocks.
D)If your uncle in New York sold 100 shares of Microsoft through his broker to an investor in Los Angeles, this would be a primary market transaction.
E)While the two frequently perform similar functions, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise large blocks of capital from investors.
Answer: C
Q2) A share of common stock is not a derivative,but an option to buy the stock is a derivative because the value of the option is derived from the value of the stock. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A)The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from operations, but it does not reflect the effects of buying or selling fixed assets.
B)The statement of cash flows shows where the firm's cash is located; indeed, it provides a listing of all banks and brokerage houses where cash is on deposit.
C)The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from continuing operations, but it does not reflect the effects of changes in working capital.
D)The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from operations and from borrowings, but it does not reflect cash obtained by selling new common stock.
E)The statement of cash flows shows how much the firm's cash, the total of currency, bank deposits, and short-term liquid securities (or cash equivalents), increased or decreased during a given year.
Answer: E
Q2) EBITDA stands for earnings before interest,taxes,debt,and assets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The return on invested capital (ROIC)differs from the return on assets (ROA).First,ROIC is based on total invested capital rather than total assets.Second,the numerator of the ROIC is after-tax operating income rather than net income.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Other things held constant,the more debt a firm uses,the lower its profit margin will be.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The more conservative a firm's management is,the higher its total debt to total capital ratio [measured as (Short-term debt + Long-term debt)/(Debt + Preferred stock + Common equity)] is likely to be.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Other things held constant,the more debt a firm uses,the lower its operating margin will be.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose you borrowed $14,000 at a rate of 10.0% and must repay it in 5 equal installments at the end of each of the next 5 years.How much interest would you have to pay in the first year?
A)$1,200.33
B)$1,263.50
C)$1,330.00
D)$1,400.00
E)$1,470.00
Q2) How much would $100,growing at 5% per year,be worth after 75 years?
A)$3,689.11
B)$3,883.27
C)$4,077.43
D)$4,281.30
E)$4,495.37
Q3) The greater the number of compounding periods within a year,then (1)the greater the future value of a lump sum investment at Time 0 and (2)the greater the present value of a given lump sum to be received at some future date.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Keys Corporation's 5-year bonds yield 6.20% and 5-year T-bonds yield 4.40%.The real risk-free rate is r* = 2.5%,the inflation premium for 5-year bonds is IP = 1.50%,the liquidity premium for Keys' bonds is LP = 0.5% versus zero for T-bonds,and the maturity risk premium for all bonds is found with the formula MRP = (t 1)× 0.1%,where t = number of years to maturity.What is the default risk premium (DRP)on Keys' bonds?
A)1.17%
B)1.30%
C)1.43%
D)1.57%
E)1.73%
Q2) Since yield curves are based on a real risk-free rate plus the expected rate of inflation,at any given time there can be only one yield curve,and it applies to both corporate and Treasury securities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because the maturity risk premium is normally positive,the yield curve is normally upward sloping.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A call provision gives bondholders the right to demand,or "call for," repayment of a bond.Typically,companies call bonds if interest rates rise and do not call them if interest rates decline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dyl Inc.'s bonds currently sell for $1,040 and have a par value of $1,000.They pay a $65 annual coupon and have a 15-year maturity,but they can be called in 5 years at $1,100.What is their yield to maturity (YTM)?
A)5.78%
B)6.09%
C)6.39%
D)6.71%
E)7.05%
Q3) A bond that is callable has a chance of being retired earlier than its stated term to maturity.Therefore,if the yield curve is upward sloping,an outstanding callable bond should have a lower yield to maturity than an otherwise identical noncallable bond.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Cooley Company's stock has a beta of 1.40,the risk-free rate is 4.25%,and the market risk premium is 5.50%.What is the firm's required rate of return?
A)11.36%
B)11.65%
C)11.95%
D)12.25%
E)12.55%
Q2) Portfolio A has but one security,while Portfolio B has 100 securities.Because of diversification effects,we would expect Portfolio B to have the lower risk.However,it is possible for Portfolio A to be less risky.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The slope of the SML is determined by the value of beta. A)True
B)False
Q4) If investors become less averse to risk,the slope of the Security Market Line (SML)will increase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Francis Inc.'s stock has a required rate of return of 10.25%,and it sells for $57.50 per share.The dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6.00% per year.What is the expected year-end dividend,D<sub>1</sub>?
A)$2.20
B)$2.44
C)$2.69
D)$2.96
E)$3.25
Q2) The corporate valuation model cannot be used unless a company pays dividends.
A)True B)False
Q3) When a new issue of stock is brought to market,it is the marginal investor who determines the price at which the stock will trade. A)True
B)False
Q4) The corporate valuation model can be used only when a company doesn't pay dividends.
A)True B)False
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Q1) In general,firms should use their weighted average cost of capital (WACC)to evaluate capital budgeting projects because most projects are funded with general corporate funds,which come from a variety of sources.However,if the firm plans to use only debt or only equity to fund a particular project,it should use the after-tax cost of that specific type of capital to evaluate that project.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You were recently hired by Scheuer Media Inc.to estimate its cost of capital.You obtained the following data: D<sub>1</sub> = $1.75; P<sub>0</sub> = $42.50; g = 7.00% (constant); and F = 5.00%.What is the cost of equity raised by selling new common stock?
A)10.77%
B)11.33%
C)11.90%
D)12.50%
E)13.12%
Q3) "Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) McCall Manufacturing has a WACC of 10%.The firm is considering two normal,equally risky,mutually exclusive,but not repeatable projects.The two projects have the same investment costs,but Project A has an IRR of 15%,while Project B has an IRR of 20%.Assuming the projects' NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant,which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A)Each project must have a negative NPV.
B)Since the projects are mutually exclusive, the firm should always select Project B.
C)If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV.
D)Only one project has a positive NPV.
E)If the crossover rate is 8%, Project A will have the higher NPV.
Q2) If you were evaluating two mutually exclusive projects for a firm with a zero cost of capital,the payback method and NPV method would always lead to the same decision on which project to undertake.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a relevant cash flow and thus should NOT be reflected in the analysis of a capital budgeting project?
A)Changes in net operating working capital.
B)Shipping and installation costs for machinery acquired.
C)Cannibalization effects.
D)Opportunity costs.
E)Sunk costs that have been expensed for tax purposes.
Q2) Superior analytical techniques,such as NPV,used in combination with risk-adjusted cost of capital estimates,can overcome the problem of poor cash flow estimation and lead to generally correct accept/reject decisions for capital budgeting projects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A firm that bases its capital budgeting decisions on either NPV or IRR will be more likely to accept a given project if it uses accelerated depreciation than if it uses straight-line depreciation,other things being equal.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 13.1 and to previous problem.Calculate the project's coefficient of variation.(Hint: Use the expected NPV as found in previous problem.)
A)5.87
B)6.52
C)7.25
D)7.97
E)8.77
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a real option?
A)The option to expand production if the product is successful.
B)The option to buy shares of stock if its price is expected to increase.
C)The option to expand into a new geographic region.
D)The option to abandon a project if cash flows turn out to be lower than expected.
E)The option to switch the type of fuel used in an industrial furnace to lower the cost of production.
Q3) It is not possible for abandonment options to decrease a project's risk as measured by the project's coefficient of variation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Different borrowers have different risks of bankruptcy,and if a borrower goes bankrupt,its lenders will probably not get back the full amount of funds that they loaned.Therefore,lenders charge higher rates to borrowers judged to be more likely to go bankrupt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Provided a firm does not use an extreme amount of debt,operating leverage typically affects only EPS,while financial leverage affects both EPS and EBIT.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Southwest U's campus book store sells course packs for $15 each,the variable cost per pack is $9,fixed costs to produce the packs are $200,000,and expected annual sales are 50,000 packs.What are the pre-tax profits from sales of course packs?
A)$ 72,900
B)$ 81,000
C)$ 90,000
D)$100,000
E)$110,000
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Q1) Keys Financial has done extremely well in recent years,and its stock now sells for $175 per share.Management wants to get the price down to a more typical level,which it thinks is $25 per share.What stock split would be required to get to this price,assuming the transaction has no effect on the total market value? Put another way,how many new shares should be given per one old share?
A)6.98
B)7.00
C)7.35
D)7.72
E)8.10
Q2) If a retired individual lives on his or her investment income,then it would make sense for this person to prefer stocks with high payouts so he or she could receive cash without going to the trouble and expense of selling stocks.On the other hand,it would make sense for an individual who would just reinvest any dividends received to prefer a low-payout company because that would save him or her taxes and brokerage costs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The average accounts receivables balance is a function of both the volume of credit sales and the days sales outstanding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three alternative current asset investment policies discussed in the text differ regarding the size of current asset holdings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although short-term interest rates have historically averaged less than long-term rates,the heavy use of short-term debt is considered to be an aggressive current asset financing strategy because of the inherent risks of using short-term financing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The target cash balance is typically (and logically)set so that it does not need to be adjusted for either seasonal patterns or unanticipated random fluctuations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The first,and most critical,step in constructing a set of forecasted financial statements is the sales forecast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a firm's sales grow,its current assets also tend to increase.For instance,as sales increase,the firm's inventories generally increase,and purchases of inventories result in more accounts payable.Thus,spontaneously generated funds arise from transactions brought on by sales increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To determine the amount of additional funds needed (AFN),you may subtract the expected increase in liabilities,which represents a source of funds,from the sum of the expected increases in retained earnings and assets,both of which are uses of funds.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An investor who "writes" a call option against stock held in his or her portfolio is selling a(n)
A)Straddle option.
B)Put option.
C)Out-of-the-money option.
D)Naked option.
E)Covered option.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a derivative security?
A)Futures.
B)Options.
C)Swaps.
D)Forward contracts.
E)Preferred stock.
Q3) Speculative risks are symmetrical in the sense that they offer the chance of a gain as well as a loss,while pure risks are those that can only lead to losses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If a dollar will buy fewer units of a foreign currency in the forward market than in the spot market,then the forward currency is said to be selling at a premium to the spot rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exchange rate risk is the risk that the cash flows from a foreign project,when converted to the parent company's currency,will be worth less than was originally projected because of exchange rate changes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When considering the risk of a foreign investment,a higher risk might arise from exchange rate risk and political risk while lower risk might result from international diversification.
A)True B)False
Q4) A Eurodollar is a U.S.dollar deposited in a bank outside the United States. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Assume that a piece of leased equipment has a relatively high expected residual value.From the lessee's viewpoint,it might be better to own the asset rather than lease it because with a high residual value the lessee will likely face a higher lease rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A lease-versus-purchase analysis should compare the cost of leasing to the cost of owning,assuming that the asset purchased
A)is financed with short-term debt.
B)is financed with long-term debt.
C)is financed with debt whose maturity matches the term of the lease.
D)is financed with a mix of debt and equity based on the firm's target capital structure, i.e., at the WACC.
E)is financed with retained earnings.
Q3) Corporations that invest surplus funds in floating-rate preferred stock benefit from getting a relatively stable price,and they also benefit from the 70% tax exemption on preferred dividends received.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Firms use defensive tactics to fight off undesired mergers.These tactics do NOT include
A)raising antitrust issues.
B)developing poison pills.
C)getting white knights to bid for the firm.
D)repurchasing their own stock.
E)engaging in risk arbitrage.
Q2) Since a manager's central goal is to maximize the firm's stock price,any merger offer that provides stockholders with significant gains over the current stock price will be approved by the current management team.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The distribution of synergistic gains between the stockholders of two merged firms is almost always based strictly on their respective market values before the announcement of the merger.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you receive $15,000 today and can invest it at a 5% annual rate compounded continuously,what will be your ending value after 20 years?
A)$38,735.52
B)$40,774.23
C)$42,812.94
D)$44,953.59
E)$47,201.27
Q2) For a 10-year deposit,what annual rate payable semiannually will produce the same effective rate as 4% compounded continuously?
A)3.46%
B)3.65%
C)3.84%
D)4.04%
E)4.24%
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Q1) Vogril Company issued 20-year,zero coupon bonds with an expected yield to maturity of 9%.The bonds have a par value of $1,000 and were sold for $178.43 each.What is the expected interest expense on these bonds for Year 8?
A)$29.36
B)$30.82
C)$32.36
D)$33.98
E)$35.68
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 7A.1.What is the expected after-tax cost of this debt issue?
A)5.76%
B)6.06%
C)6.38%
D)6.72%
E)7.06%
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Q1) Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?
A)Our bankruptcy laws were enacted in the 1800s, revised in the 1930s, and have remained unaltered since that time.
B)Federal bankruptcy law deals only with corporate bankruptcies. Municipal and personal bankruptcy are governed solely by state laws.
C)All bankruptcy petitions are filed by creditors seeking to protect their claims on firms in financial distress. Thus, all bankruptcy petitions are involuntary as viewed from the perspective of the firm's management.
D)Chapter 11 and 7 are the most important bankruptcy Chapter for financial management purposes. If a reorganization plan cannot be worked out under Chapter 11, then the company will be liquidated as prescribed in Chapter 7 of the Act.
E)"Restructuring" a firm's debt can involve forgiving a certain portion of the debt but does not involve changing the debt's maturity or its contractual interest rate.
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 8A.1.Calculate both stocks' betas.What is the difference between the betas? That is,what is the value of beta<sub>R</sub> beta<sub>S</sub>? (Hint: The graphical method of calculating the rise over run,or (Y<sub>2</sub> Y<sub>1</sub>)divided by (X<sub>2</sub> X<sub>1</sub>)may aid you.)
A)1.3538
B)1.4250
C)1.5000
D)1.5750
E)1.6538
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 8A.1.Set up the SML equation and use it to calculate both stocks' required rates of return,and compare those required returns with the expected returns given above.You should invest in the stock whose expected return exceeds its required return by the widest margin.What is the widest positive margin,or greatest excess return (expected return required return)?
A)1.97%
B)2.19%
C)2.43%
D)2.70%
E)3.00%
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Q1) If the firm is being operated so as to maximize shareholder wealth,and if our basic assumptions concerning the relationship between risk and return are true,then which of the following should be true?
A)If an asset's beta is larger than the firm's beta, then the required return on the asset is less than the required return on the firm.
B)If the beta of the asset is smaller than the firm's beta, then the required return on the asset is greater than the required return on the firm.
C)If the beta of the asset is greater than the firm's beta prior to the addition of that asset, then the firm's beta after the purchase of the asset will be smaller than the original firm's beta.
D)If the beta of an asset is larger than the firm's beta prior to the addition of that asset, then the required return on the firm will be greater after the purchase of that asset than prior to its purchase.
E)None of the statements is true.
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Q1) Which of the following methods involves calculating an average beta for comparable firms and using that beta to determine a project's beta?
A)Risk premium method
B)Pure play method
C)Accounting beta method
D)CAPM method
E)Discounted cash flow model
Q2) Northern Conglomerate has two divisions,Division A and Division B.Northern looks at competing pure-play firms to estimate the betas of each of the two divisions.After this analysis,Northern concludes that Division A has a beta of 0.8 and Division B has a beta of 1.5.The two divisions are the same size.The risk-free rate is 5% and the market risk premium is 6%.Assume that Northern is 100% equity financed.What is the overall composite WACC for Northern Conglomerate?
A)10.74%
B)11.31%
C)11.90%
D)12.50%
E)13.12%
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Q1) A company currently sells 75,000 units annually.At this sales level,its EBIT is $4 million,and its degree of total leverage is 2.0.The firm's debt consists of $15 million in bonds with a 9.5% coupon.The company is considering a new production method which will entail an increase in fixed costs but a decrease in variable costs,and will result in a degree of operating leverage of 1.600.The president,who is concerned about the stand-alone risk of the firm,wants to keep the degree of total leverage at 2.0.If EBIT remains at $4 million,what dollar amount of bonds must be retired to accomplish this?
A)$5,640,625
B)$5,937,500
C)$6,250,000
D)$6,578,947
E)$6,907,895
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