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Introduction to Financial Accounting provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices involved in recording, summarizing, and interpreting financial transactions of businesses. The course covers key topics such as the accounting cycle, preparation and analysis of financial statements, the role of ethics in accounting, and the regulatory environment. Emphasis is placed on the use of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and the importance of accurate financial reporting in decision making for internal and external stakeholders. Through practical exercises and real-world examples, students develop essential skills needed to analyze financial information and understand its impact on business operations.
Recommended Textbook
Financial and Managerial Accounting 10th Edition by Belverd E. Needles
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4130 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following items has no effect on stockholders' equity?
A)Receipt of cash owed to the business (accounts receivable)
B)Sale of a service
C)Payment of an expense
D)Dividend distributions
Answer: A
Q2) Accountants focus on the needs for financial information by both internal and external decision makers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Authorized shares of stock refer to the number of shares currently held by the stockholders.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Stockholders' equity equals assets minus liabilities.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) In accounting,to recognize means to record a transaction or event. A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) One way a company can manage its expenditures is to rely on its creditors to give it time to pay for purchases.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Generally,before Accounts Receivable is debited,it is credited. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A purchase is recognized in the accounting records when A)payment is made for the item purchased.
B)the purchase requisition is sent to the purchasing department.
C)title transfers from the seller to the buyer.
D)the buyer receives the seller's bill.
Answer: C
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Q1) An adjusted trial balance is prepared to
A)test that the ledger is in balance after the accounts have been adjusted.
B)facilitate preparation of the adjusting entries.
C)both test that the ledger is in balance after the accounts have been adjusted and facilitate preparation of the financial statements.
D)facilitate preparation of the financial statements.
Answer: C
Q2) The manipulation of revenues and expenses to achieve a specific outcome is called
A)earnings management.
B)the matching rule.
C)adjusting entries.
D)revenue recognition.
Answer: A
Q3) Net income
A)is accumulated in Retained Earnings.
B)is reported on the income statement.
C)occurs when revenues exceed expenses.
D)All of these choices.
Answer: D
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Q1) The normal operating cycle helps define which of the following balance sheet sections?
A)Stockholders' equity
B)Current liabilities
C)Intangible assets
D)Property,plant,and equipment
Q2) A company with a low asset turnover uses its assets more productively than one with a high asset turnover.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The current ratio for Cane Construction is
A)1.75.
B)0.57.
C)1.4.
D)2.0.
Q4) Which of the following is not a measure of profitability?
A)Current ratio
B)Return on assets
C)Return on equity
D)Debt to equity ratio
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Q1) Interest paid on debt would be entered on the multistep income statement in the category called
A)selling expenses.
B)other revenues and expenses.
C)general and administrative expenses.
D)operating expenses.
Q2) FOB shipping point means that the seller incurs the shipping costs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adding together the ending merchandise inventory and cost of goods sold gives the cost of goods available for sale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Advertising expense appears as a general and administrative expense on the income statement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sales Discounts and Sales Returns and Allowances are contra-revenue accounts.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A periodic inventory system is used;ending inventory is 147 units. What is ending inventory under FIFO?
A)$1,382
B)$1,582
C)$1,282
D)$1,482
Q2) Days' inventory on hand equals 365 divided by A)inventory turnover.
B)cost of goods sold.
C)goods available for sale.
D)average inventory.
Q3) Emily Holmes owns and operates a large antique shop.She uses the specific identification method to account for transactions that affect inventory.Holmes recently completed a physical inventory of the merchandise in her shop as part of her year-end work.Today,her accountant called to inform her that it would be necessary to adjust the inventory figure shown on the balance sheet,which will increase Holme's tax liability.Holmes argued that the inventory had to be correct,because she counted it twice and matched every item to an invoice.Cite reasons why the accountant would find it necessary to adjust the inventory even if Holme's count is accurate.
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Q1) A purchase requisition is a document sent by a company to a vendor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An accountant is responsible for the following activities: (1)receiving all cash; (2)maintaining the general ledger; (3)maintaining the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger that includes the individual records of each customer; (4)maintaining the journals for recording sales,purchases,and cash receipts;and (5)preparing monthly statements to be sent to customers.As a service to customers and employees,the company allows the accountant to cash checks of up to $75 with money from the cash receipts.When deposits are made,the checks are included in place of the cash receipts.What weaknesses in internal control exist in this system?
Q3) Public companies must have their financial statements audited,but are not required to have their internal control systems audited.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cash equivalents are defined as investments that carry terms of 90 days or less.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why do businesses need to keep some currency on hand?
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Q1) Under the allowance method,when a year-end adjustment is made for estimated uncollectible accounts,
A)total assets decrease.
B)liabilities increase.
C)total assets are unchanged.
D)net income is unchanged.
Q2) Under the allowance method,uncollectible accounts must be estimated if the matching rule is to be followed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why should a dishonored note receivable be transferred to an individual account receivable for the debtor?
Q4) Under the allowance method,Uncollectible Accounts Expense is not recorded when an individual customer defaults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts is a contra-asset account.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In 2014,Barnes Enterprises purchased an oil well for $12,000,000.It is estimated that 80,000,000 barrels can be extracted from the well.Depletion expense during 2015,when 2,000,000 barrels were extracted and sold,totaled
A)$30,000.
B)$300,000.
C)$33,333.
D)$3,333,333.
Q2) The cost of equipment would include the cost of test runs to see that the equipment is operating properly.
A)True B)False
Q3) Mineral deposits are subject to a process called depletion.
A)True B)False
Q4) The cost of land should not include accrued property taxes paid by the purchaser. A)True B)False
Q5) What commitments must a company account for in determining its free cash flow?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A company sells merchandise on a deferred payment plan,ultimately receiving $6,000 on the account receivable.On the payment date,the company would
A)credit Accounts Receivable for less than $6,000.
B)debit Interest Income for the imputed amount.
C)credit Sales for less than $6,000.
D)debit the asset account for $6,000.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a commitment?
A)Purchasing agreement
B)Note payable
C)Revenue received in advance
D)Dividend payable
Q3) Potential vacation pay should be accounted for as a commitment.
A)True B)False
Q4) The lower the interest rate,the lower the future value factor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All factors in a present value of a single sum table are less than 1.000.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) A corporation probably does not know who owns its registered bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The call feature of bonds is useful if a company wants to retire a bond issue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An $80,000 bond issue priced at 97 is sold for $77,600.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bond discount is a component of interest cost because it represents the amount in excess of the issue price that a corporation must pay on the maturity date.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Issuing bonds at a discount has the effect of increasing interest expense above the face amount of interest.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When bonds are converted to common stock,what is the basis for recording (valuing)the stock issued?
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Q1) Financing a business with common stock is more risky than financing it with bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cielo Corporation had net income of $740,000 in 20x4 and $830,000 in 20x5.Total stockholders' equity at the end of 20x4 was $1,250,000 and total stockholders' equity at the end of 20x5 was $1,500,000.Cielo's total assets at the end of 20x4 were $2,210,000 and its total assets at the end of 20x5 were $2,860,000.Based on this information,what is Cielo's return on equity for 20x5?
A)32.74%
B)55.33%
C)57.09%
D)60.36%
Q3) Which of the following phrases is not descriptive of the corporate form of business?
A)Professional management
B)Continuous existence
C)Double taxation
D)Unlimited liability
Q4) Define outstanding stock.
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Q1) Investors and creditors would find the statement of cash flows least useful in assessing
A)financial position at a point in time.
B)need for additional financing.
C)ability to pay dividends and liabilities.
D)ability to generate positive future cash flows.
Q2) During 20x5,Oates Company had sales of $500,000,net income of $50,000,average total assets of $700,000,dividend payments of $35,000,net cash flows from operating activities of $90,000,purchases of plant assets of $75,000,and sales of plant assets of $90,000.Free cash flow equals
A)$55,000.
B)$105,000.
C)$40,000.
D)$70,000.
Q3) Purchases and sales of long-term investments for the period should be netted for disclosure in the investing activities section of the statement of cash flows.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which accounts are analyzed to determine cash flows from financing activities?
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Q1) To find the most comprehensive information about a company's performance during the year,one would look to
A)interim financial statements.
B)the annual report sent to the SEC.
C)The Wall Street Journal.
D)the annual report sent to stockholders.
Q2) Days' payable is a measure of A)liquidity.
B)volatility.
C)long-term solvency.
D)profitability.
Q3) Consistency requires
A)that the company use the same accounting procedures from period to period.
B)that the company use the same accounting procedures as other companies in the same industry.
C)that the company explain,in a note to the financial statements,the significant accounting policies used.
D)All of these choices.
Q4) Briefly explain a "big bath" including when it occurs and why it occurs.
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Q1) The beginning finished goods inventory of Ronald Co.was $480,125.Goods completed during the year cost $963,250.The ending finished goods inventory was dangerously low,having been reduced to $135,850.The cost of goods sold for the year for Ronald Co.was
A)$618,975.
B)$1,307,525.
C)$1,579,225.
D)$1,171,675.
Q2) Which of the following is not a product cost?
A)Depreciation on office furniture
B)Manufacturing overhead
C)Direct labor
D)Direct materials
Q3) Non-value-adding costs increase the cost of a product.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both direct and indirect labor costs can be directly traced to finished products.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If applied overhead exceeds actual overhead,cost of goods sold must be increased by the amount of the overapplied overhead in a job order costing system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Companies that produce custom-made products usually use a process costing system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When direct materials are issued from inventory to production under a job order costing system,an increase is recorded in the A)Overhead account.
B)Work in Process Inventory account.
C)Materials Inventory account.
D)Finished Goods Inventory account.
Q4) In a process costing system,product costs are traced to work cells. A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the unit cost information is used by managers in the management process.
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely done by managers,when actual costs of a product exceed expected costs?
A)Increase the selling price of the product
B)Adjust planning and decision-making strategies
C)Increase the sales of the product
D)Change the product costing system used
Q2) The average costing method in process costing disregards the ending inventory assuming that direct material costs and conversion costs are pertaining to the immediate next period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regardless of the product costing system used,when the products are completed,they are transferred from work in process inventory to finished goods inventory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The product unit cost is the sum of the cost elements added in all production department processes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A work cell is an autonomous production line that can perform only one required operation efficiently at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Distinguish between a supply chain and a value chain.How do they relate to each other?
Q3) Backflush costing aims at reducing waste in the
A)accounting system.
B)cost of goods sold.
C)storage of raw materials.
D)production process.
Q4) Activity-based management focuses on identifying product costs as either variable or fixed.
A)True B)False
Q5) Backflush costing eliminates the need to make journal entries during the period to track cost flows through the production process as the product is made.
A)True B)False

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Q1) Cost-volume-profit analysis is not appropriate for service businesses,as they do not have any direct manufacturing costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Neverlate is world famous for its precision pocket watches.The company has estimated that variable manufacturing costs and variable selling costs per watch will be $72 and $43,respectively,for 2014.Also during 2014,the company is expecting fixed manufacturing costs to total $291,600 and fixed general and administrative expenses to amount to $253,175.The anticipated selling price of each watch is $500.Compute (a)the breakeven point in sales units and (b)the breakeven point in sales dollars.
Q3) The breakeven point is
A)where fixed and variable costs reach the upper level of the relevant range.
B)the level of activity where all fixed costs are recovered.
C)the level of activity where total revenue are the same as total fixed costs.
D)the level of activity where the operating profits equal the variable costs.
Q4) Briefly explain the use of statistical methods to separate mixed cost components.
Q5) Explain what cost-volume-profit analysis is and how managers use it.
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Q1) A continuous budget is prepared
A)annually.
B)semi-annually.
C)monthly.
D)quarterly.
Q2) Budgetsare plans of action based on forecasted transactions,activities,and events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Budgets identify potential constraints before they become problems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Budgets identify,gather,summarize,and communicate
A)financial data only.
B)financial and nonfinancial data.
C)nonfinancial data only.
D)None of these answer choice are correct.
Q5) Sales budget is the final product of the budgeting process.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) For residual income figures to be comparable on a companywide basis,all investment centers must have equal access to resources and similar asset investment bases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A performance management and evaluation system is mainly utilized to account for and report on financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A responsibility accounting system ensures that
A)generally accepted accounting principles reporting requirements are met.
B)managers will not be held responsible for items they cannot change.
C)99 percent of businesses utilizing such a system will be profitable.
D)easy correlations between revenues and costs can be drawn.
Q4) Standard costing would most often require which type of performance evaluation?
A)Flexible budgeting
B)Static budgeting
C)Variable costing
D)None of these choices
Q5) Write a brief note on the performance-based pay.
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Q1) Using the above information provided for Good Sleep,the total fixed overhead variance is
A)$4,500 (U).
B)$30,500 (U).
C)$5,000 (U).
D)$45,000 (U).
Q2) The standard overhead cost is the sum of the estimates of variable and fixed overhead costs in the next accounting period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compute the direct labor efficiency variance for Choco Sweet.
A)$8,500 (U)
B)$2,500 (F)
C)$11,000 (F)
D)$1,375 (U)
Q4) The fixed overhead volume variance measures the use of existing facilities and capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mention a few reasons for an unfavorable direct labor cost variance.
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Q1) Why is the book value of equipment irrelevant when considering the replacement of equipment?
Q2) Irrelevant costs
A)do not differ among alternatives.
B)can be avoided by a business.
C)are the same as opportunity costs.
D)are costs that will be incurred in the future.
Q3) Identifying all reasonable courses of action that can solve a problem or meet a need falls under which stage of the management process?
A)Planning
B)Performing
C)Evaluating
D)Communicating
Q4) In a decision to eliminate a segment,remaining segments must have sufficient contribution margin to cover their own direct costs and the common costs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are joint costs relevant to a sell-or-process-further decision? Explain why or why not.
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Q1) The future value of a cash flow is always larger than the present value of that cash flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is the residual value of equipment relevant when considering the replacement of equipment?
Q3) Using the above information for Rodriguez,the project's payback period (rounded to two decimal places)is
A)2.31 years.
B)3.20 years.
C)2.14 years.
D)2.50 years.
Q4) Discounting calculates the __________ value of an amount to be received. A)future
B)compounded
C)present D)book
Q5) The most beneficial projects are the ones with the highest net present value. A)True B)False
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Q1) In gross margin pricing,the markup percentage is based on total production costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Breaking any of the four pricing rules for a long period will force a company into bankruptcy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under microeconomic theory,total revenue will continue to increase,but the rate of increase will diminish as more and more units are sold.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A primary internal factor to be considered in product pricing is the cost of producing the product or service.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The economic approach to pricing is based on macroeconomic theory. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Total quality management (TQM)requires all business functions to work together to ensure product quality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The costs of quality are made up of
A)prevention costs and appraisal costs.
B)internal failure costs and external failure costs.
C)costs of conformance and costs of nonconformance.
D)product design and production performance.
Q3) Service businesses cannot measure the quality of their work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following has the goal of having customers perceive the company's products and services as perfect?
A)Total quality management
B)Kaizen
C)Six Sigma
D)All of these options
Q5) Briefly identify the awards and organizations that promote quality in industry today.
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Q1) When a partner invests assets other than cash into a partnership,those assets should be listed on the balance sheet at
A)their original cost.
B)their carrying (book)value.
C)their fair market value.
D)the value the investing partner assigns to them.
Q2) Describe how a dissolution of a partnership is different from a liquidation of a partnership.
Q3) Juan invests $120,000 for a one-fifth interest in a partnership in which the other partners have capital totaling $240,000 before admitting Juan.After distribution of the bonus,Juan's capital is
A)$120,000
B)$72,000
C)$96,000
D)$48,000
Q4) When a partner invests a noncash asset into the partnership,the partner's Capital account is debited and an asset account is credited.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The cost-adjusted-to-market method of accounting for investments is used when the investment is
A)controlling.
B)influential and noncontrolling.
C)noninfluential and controlling.
D)noninfluential and noncontrolling.
Q2) Held-to-maturity securities are valued on the balance sheet at cost adjusted for the effects of interest.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Investments are valued on the balance sheet at the original purchase price,even if the price has changed since the date of purchase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Available-for-sale securities may only be classified as short-term investments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is the purchase of long-term investments in bonds accounted for when purchased between interest payment dates?
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