Introduction to Environmental Studies Midterm Exam - 3009 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Environmental Studies

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Introduction to Environmental Studies offers a comprehensive overview of the interactions between humans and the natural environment, focusing on the scientific principles, ethical considerations, and social dynamics that shape current environmental issues. Students will explore topics such as ecosystems, biodiversity, pollution, energy resources, and climate change, while examining the impacts of human activity on the planet. The course emphasizes critical thinking and problem-solving skills through the study of environmental policies, sustainable practices, and case studies from around the world, preparing students to engage thoughtfully with contemporary environmental challenges.

Recommended Textbook

Living in the Environment 3rd Canadian Edition by G. Miller

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28 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Environmental Problems, Their Causes, and Sustainability

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a common-property resource?

A)an environmentally depleted resource not available for users

B)a resource owned by a group of private owners that is available for all owners

C)a resource that has a number of different uses and is available for all owners

D)no individuals own the resource, and it is available for all users

Answer: D

Q2) What is globalization?

A)a new term for mass immigration into a country

B)a satellite-based communications system

C)worldwide integration of social, economic, and environmental change

D)the ability of all of society to travel worldwide

Answer: C

Q3) The consequence of volcanic eruptions and burning coal is

Answer: pollution

Q4) Installing runoff curtains in a construction site is an example of

Answer: pollution prevention

Answer: renewable resources Page 3

Q5) Fish, freshwater, wild animals, and fertile soil are examples of

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Page 4

Chapter 2: Environmental History: Learning From the Past

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Q1) What is one characteristic of the agricultural revolution?

A)lack of concern for the natural world

B)fertilizing to improve soil fertility

C)cultivating wild plants

D)decreasing population size

Answer: C

Q2) The agricultural revolution often led to fertile land being turned into desert from overgrazing by livestock.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The agricultural revolution took place some 5000 to 6000 years ago.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) During the industrial-medical revolution there was a shift to burning non-renewable fossil fuels.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Science, Systems, Matter, and Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which question is a scientist most likely to ask?

A)How many times should we run this experiment?

B)What is the meaning of life for humans?

C)What new hypothesis can be drawn to test this experiment?

D)How can these scientific laws be formulated to use the data?

Answer: A

Q2) The so-called light bulb is actually a heat bulb.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Low-throughput economies are more sustainable and are our best bet for solving our environmental problems.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) A(n) ____________________ occurs when ice melts into a liquid.

Answer: physical change

Q5) ____________________ radiation is the energy travelling in the form of a wave from the sun to the Earth.

Answer: Electromagnetic

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Chapter 4: Ecosystems: What Are They and How Do They

Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term refers to a complex feeding pattern for consumers in an ecosystem?

A)trophic level

B)pyramid of energy

C)food chain

D)food web

Q2) Which adjective applies the most to all insects?

A)harmful

B)pests

C)spread diseases

D)adaptable

Q3) Which of the following sequences correctly lists, from beginning to end, the major stages of system analysis?

A)data analysis-system measurement-system simulation-system modeling-system optimization

B)system measurement-data analysis-system simulation-system modeling-system optimization

C)system measurement-data analysis-system modeling-system simulation-system optimization

D)system optimization-data analysis-system modeling-system simulation-system measurement

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Chapter 5: Evolution and Biodiversity

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Q1) If the evolution of the Earth were compressed into a 24-hour time frame, at what time did homo sapiens appear?

A)about 1/4 second before midnight

B)about 1/2 second before midnight

C)about 2 seconds before midnight

D)about 4 seconds before midnight

Q2) What is used to separate a species' realized niche from its fundamental niche?

A)competition for breeding locations amongst individuals within a species

B)competition for food with another species

C)competition for mates amongst individuals within a species

D)competition for food amongst individuals within a species

Q3) Which gas played a critical role in forming the Earth's primitive atmosphere?

A)oxygen (O )

B)methane (CH )

C)carbon dioxide (CO )

D)water vapour (H O)

Q4) Natural selection relies on three truths, one of which is based on genetic mutations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Climate and Terrestrial Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where are succulent plants most likely to be found?

A)at a high altitude

B)in a cold ecosystem

C)in a desert

D)in an aquatic habitat

Q2) Which biome does NOT belong with the others?

A)northern coniferous forest

B)steppe

C)boreal forest

D)taiga

Q3) Although both are considered tropical cyclones, what is the difference between a hurricane and a typhoon?

Q4) What happens during an El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?

A)surface water along the South and North American coasts becomes cooler

B)prevailing easterly winds weaken

C)upwelling's of warm, nutrient-poor water are suppressed

D)upwelling's of cold, nutrient-rich water are suppressed

Q5) A cold front is the leading edge of an advancing mass of cold air.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Aquatic Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which lake zone are large numbers of decomposers found?

A)the littoral zone

B)the limnetic zone

C)the benthic zone

D)the profundal zone

Q2) Identify two ecological and/or economic services that are provided by estuaries, coastal wetlands, and mangrove swamps.

Q3) In which areas of Canada are freshwater inland wetlands at greatest risk of being lost due to human-related activities?

A)the boreal forest

B)the rocky mountains

C)the prairies

D)the high arctic

Q4) Which term refers to lakes that have few minerals and low productivity?

A)eutrophic

B)mesotrophic

C)autotrophic

D)oligotrophic

Q5) You would find crabs and periwinkles in the ____________________ zone.

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Q6) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the photic or epipelagic?

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Chapter 8: Community Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Predation and parasitism are examples of antagonistic ecological interactions in which one species takes advantage of another species.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An ecologist observes that squirrels from an adjacent area have brought pine cones to a stand of dense hemlock, but no pine seedlings have sprouted.Which term describes what the ecologist has observed?

A)primary succession

B)tolerance

C)inhibition

D)tertiary succession

Q3) Scientists are studying the effective ____________________ system of sharks to determine why they rarely get cancer.

Q4) Which statement describes a cockroach's niche?

A)It is an indicator species.

B)It is a keystone species.

C)It is an alien species.

D)It is a generalist species.

Q5) Define Batesian mimicry.

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Chapter 9: Population Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which factor leads to an increase in biotic potential?

A)too much or too little light

B)too many competitors

C)an optimal level of critical nutrients

D)a low reproductive rate

Q2) Which of the following is a density-independent population control?

A)disease in the environment

B)parasitism in the environment

C)predation in the environment

D)unfavourable chemical changes in the environment

Q3) What is the biotic potential of a population?

A)It is the current growth rate of a population.

B)It is an expression of how many offspring survive and are able to reproduce.

C)It is the maximum reproductive rate of a population.

D)It can be determined only by studying an age structure diagram.

Q4) In most cases, the effects of population increase, or of environmental resistance, are not felt instantly.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What happens when a population exceeds its resource supplies?

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Chapter 10: Applying Population Ecology: the Human Population

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which factor leads to women having fewer and healthier children?

A)when women live in societies in which their individual rights are NOT protected

B)when women have access to paying jobs outside the home

C)when women have limited access to birth control

D)when women have limited access to education

Q2) What is the primary cause of the increasing size of the world's population?

A)access to the Internet

B)unlimited immigration quotas in most western countries

C)increased life expectancies

D)higher birth rates

Q3) The most effective form of birth control is ______________________________.

Q4) When generations do nothing more than replace themselves, the _________________________ is columnar, which is a characteristic of a stable population.

Q5) The average crude birth rate in Canada is ____________________ than that of the United States.

Q6) Which letter in the graph corresponds to a major increase in birth rates?

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Q7) According to the diagram, which stage has a high birth rate and a high death rate?

Chapter 11: Sustaining Terrestrial Biodiversity: Managing and Protecting Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the greatest threat to the world's national parks?

A)human activities in nearby areas

B)lack of funding

C)uncontrolled populations of prey because of the decline in predators

D)pollution

Q2) Which food product is NOT commercially grown in tropical rain forests?

A)bananas

B)potatoes

C)sugarcane

D)coffee

Q3) Which statement about clear-cutting is accurate?

A)Clear-cutting increases the average stand rotation time.

B)Clear-cutting requires more roads than the majority of other harvesting systems.

C)Lumber companies prefer clear-cutting because it takes less skill and planning than other methods.

D)Clear-cutting leads to a decrease in the amount of timber produced per hectare.

Q4) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the method that has the maximum economic return in the shortest amount of time?

Page 14

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Chapter 12: Sustaining Biodiversity: the Species Approach

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term is synonymous with illegal hunting for profit?

A)commercial hunting

B)poaching

C)subsistence hunting

D)sport hunting

Q2) Why were passenger pigeons hunted?

A)Their feathers were used to stuff pillows.

B)They were fed to cats.

C)People feared them.

D)They ate too many insects.

Q3) What are alligators called if their population is so depleted that organisms which depend on alligator habitat for their survival are also suffering?

A)locally extinct

B)endangered

C)threatened

D)ecologically extinct

Q4) Speciation or extinction could be the result of habitat fragmentation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the characteristics of a successful invader species?

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Chapter 13: Sustaining Aquatic Biodiversity

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Q1) Which term refers to a fish population that is temporarily reduced due to over-fishing?

A)biologically extinct

B)commercially extinct

C)economically extinct

D)locally extinct

Q2) Which device has saved many thousands of sea turtles from shrimp trawlers?

A)gill nets

B)shrimp rakers

C)sonic devices that scare turtles away

D)turtle exclusion devices

Q3) Prior to 1989, one bycatch of the U.S.shrimp trawling industry was loggerhead turtles.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Where is the Sackville Waterfowl Park located?

A)in New Brunswick

B)in Nova Scotia

C)in Ontario

D)in Prince Edward Island

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Chapter 14: Food and Soil Resources

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Sample Questions

Q1) Canada is the fourth-largest producer of farmed salmon.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is one benefit of aquaculture?

A)It has no environmental impacts.

B)It uses no fuel.

C)It does not affect natural habitats.

D)The yields per unit area are high.

Q3) ___________________________________ integrates three main goals-environmental health, economic profitability, and social and economic equity.

Q4) Canada uses primarily ________________________________________ for food production.

Q5) What is one possible result of salt build-up?

A)agriculturally unproductive land

B)increased crop yields

C)greater need for irrigation

D)increased crop growth

Q6) Although highly efficient, ____________________ destroy mangrove forests, produce large amounts of waste, and demand large inputs of land, feed, and water.

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Chapter 15: Water Resources

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Sample Questions

Q1) Surface runoff from a watershed will become groundwater when it infiltrates the ground.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Where is the world's fourth largest freshwater lake, the size of which has been decreased by almost 75% to provide water for agriculture?

A)Bangladesh

B)China

C)Africa

D)the former Soviet Union

Q3) Canada uses relatively little water for irrigation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Serious water shortages are emerging as the demand for water in many countries simply exceeds the supply, thus forcing people to live in

Q5) Stream channelization decreases erosion rates.

A)True

B)False

Q6) How can Canadians use water wisely and reduce waste?

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Geology and Nonrenewable Mineral Resources

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dredging is used to scrape up underwater mineral deposits.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which statement best describes the Earth's core?

A)The core of the Earth occupies most of the Earth's volume.

B)Extreme pressure makes the interior of the Earth liquid.

C)The most common element in the centre of the Earth's core is iron.

D)The Earth's inner core is liquid, whereas the outer core is solid.

Q3) Which pair of energy sources are among those primarily responsible for Earth's external geological processes?

A)energy from gravity and magnetism

B)energy from the sun and heat from Earth's interior

C)energy from the sun and magnetism

D)energy from the sun and gravity

Q4) Identified resources are deposits of a nonrenewable mineral resource with a known location, quantity, and quality, or whose existence is based on direct geologic evidence and measurements.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the environmental effects of mining exploration and extraction?

Page 19

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Chapter 17: Nonrenewable Energy Resources

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Q1) What is the environmental impact of the fuel cycle of nuclear plants compared to the fuel cycle for coal that is used to produce electricity?

A)The nuclear plant fuel cycle causes more deaths than the coal fuel cycle.

B)The nuclear plant fuel cycle causes more air pollution than the coal fuel cycle.

C)The nuclear plant fuel cycle causes more water pollution than the coal fuel cycle.

D)The nuclear plant fuel cycle causes less land disruption than the coal fuel cycle.

Q2) In how many years will identified coal reserves in the United States most likely be depleted at current usage rates?

A)about 50 years

B)about 100 years

C)about 250 years

D)about 500 years

Q3) The cost of synfuels is presently too high to make them commercially attractive. A)True

B)False

Q4) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the type of coal called peat?

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Chapter 18: Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy

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Q1) Which country produces the greatest proportion of its electricity by hydroelectric plants?

A)Switzerland

B)Norway

C)Italy

D)Austria

Q2) Which statement best describes the use of hydrogen as a fuel source?

A)Experimental cars have been running on hydrogen for years.

B)Metals cannot store and release hydrogen.

C)When burned, hydrogen produces air pollutants.

D)Fuel tanks containing metal-hydrogen compounds would tend to explode in an accident.

Q3) Geothermal energy will produce noise and give off hydrogen sulphide gas.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are some of the advantages of micropower?

Q5) An advantage of a micropower system is that it can be used anywhere.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The higher the R-value of insulation, the ____________________ the heat loss.

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Chapter 19: Risk, Toxicology, and Human Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) What led to a sharp decrease in the spread of malaria?

A)the use of herbicides

B)the spraying of breeding areas with DDT and other pesticides

C)the creation of a vaccine

D)administering a solution of boiled water, salt, and sugar or rice

Q2) What medical problem is caused by carcinogens?

A)birth defects

B)chronic health effects

C)cancer

D)genetic defects

Q3) Which of the following is a viral disease?

A)tuberculosis

B)Lyme disease

C)influenza

D)malaria

Q4) The overwhelming consensus in the scientific community is that the nicotine contained in inhaled tobacco smoke is not addictive for humans.

A)True

B)False

Q5) At which age are females more likely to die from AIDS than males?

Page 22

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Chapter 20: Air Pollution

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Q1) Which area would be unlikely to have a temperature inversion?

A)an area in the central plains

B)an area near the coast

C)the leeward side of a mountain range

D)a valley surrounded by mountains

Q2) Tall smokestacks and smaller industrial plants in urban areas are beneficial because they reduce local and regional air pollution.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the annual human death rate associated with indoor and outdoor air pollution, according to the WHO?

A)30 000

B)1/3 million

C)3 million

D)30 million

Q4) Describe the sources of primary pollutants.

Q5) The province of ____________________ receives high levels of pollutants from nearby U.S.states.

Q6) What are the health hazards of carbon monoxide?

Page 23

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Chapter 21: Climate Change and Ozone Loss

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Q1) What might be a consequence of rapid climate change?

A)premature deaths due to lack of food

B)decreased deaths due to warmer weather

C)increased biodiversity

D)social and economic stability

Q2) In the stratosphere, ambient temperature increases with altitude due to the absorption of UV light by oxygen and ozone.

A)True

B)False

Q3) How much ozone is lost in the upper stratosphere over the Antarctic during the Antarctic springtime?

A)a 70 to 80% loss

B)a 40 to 50% loss

C)a 20 to 25% loss

D)a 5 to 10% loss

Q4) According to the graph, which protocol's implementation is projected to decrease the concentrations of ozone-depleting chemicals most efficiently?

Q5) About 90% of sunlight's melanoma-causing effects may come from exposure to ____________________ rays.

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Chapter 22: Water Pollution

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Q1) What is the only effective way to protect groundwater?

A)treat all water from underground sources

B)use monitoring wells

C)prevent contamination

D)cover all wells carefully

Q2) Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?

A)a livestock feedlot

B)urban land

C)cropland

D)an offshore oil well

Q3) What causes the death of game fish in cultural eutrophication?

A)salt

B)acid deposition

C)suffocation from lack of oxygen

D)toxic substances in the water

Q4) The excess nitrogen associated with a(n) _________________________ can cause extensive fish kills, shellfish contamination, and severe respiratory irritation for humans living nearby.

Q5) How much pollution can the oceans tolerate?

Q6) What are the major sources of water pollution?

Page 25

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Chapter 23: Pest Management

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Q1) Which approach would be the most effective in deterring crop damage due to insects?

A)planting barrier hedges around agricultural fields

B)crop rotation

C)delay planting

D)planting monocultures

Q2) An ideal pesticide would affect only the target organism.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which statement best explains biological magnification?

A)Organisms in the lower trophic levels accumulate lethal doses of toxins.

B)Organisms at higher trophic levels have more concentrated levels of toxic substances.

C)The environment has higher concentrations of toxins than the organisms in the food chain.

D)The animals at the upper end of a food chain receive lower doses of toxins than those below.

Q4) A species that competes with people for food, invades lawns, or is a nuisance, for example, is considered to be a(n) _______________________.

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Chapter 24: Solid and Hazardous Waste

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Q1) Who bears the true cost of dumping hazardous wastes?

A)the people who live in affluent areas

B)the taxpayers who pay to clean up disposal messes

C)the producer of the waste

D)the disposer of the waste

Q2) What is still a major source of lead poisoning in North America?

A)peeling paint in older homes

B)pencils

C)gasoline

D)house insulation

Q3) Plastics are routinely recycled because they are composed of pure resins that can be extracted and used for other plastic products.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the single largest source of solid waste?

A)agriculture

B)municipalities

C)mining

D)industry

Q5) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to rhizofiltration?

Page 27

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Chapter 25: Sustainable Cities

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Q1) The _________________________ of people will be generally be lower in urban areas with poor sanitation and numerous health risks.

Q2) What is one way that the heat island effect can be counteracted?

A)by subsidizing gasoline

B)by mixing light-coloured sand with asphalt

C)by using darker paints and building materials

D)by removing trees

Q3) Megacities have improved significantly over the last decade due to better public water supplies and sanitation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Three-fourths of North Americans live in _________________________, or cities and towns with populations of at least 50 000 people.

Q5) ____________________ pollution can affect various plant and animal species, such as sea turtles.

Q6) According to the diagram, which outputs are not causing problems for people and the environment?

Q7) _________________________ are the world's largest source of air pollutants.

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Chapter 26: Economics, Environment, and Sustainability

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Q1) Which of the following is a component of a pure market system?

A)limited choice

B)the flow of economic goods and money between households and businesses

C)limited competition

D)an obligation to provide jobs and safe workplaces

Q2) _________________________ is the increase in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of good or service.

Q3) What are some disadvantages of tradable environmental permits?

Q4) In which system do buyers and sellers freely interact in markets without governmental interference?

A)traditional system

B)mixed economic system

C)pure free-command system

D)pure free-market system

Q5) Green taxes would replace environmentally harmful subsidies and encourage the termination of unnecessary consumption.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is meant by the optimum level of resource use?

Page 29

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Chapter 27: Politics, Environment, and Sustainability

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Q1) The primary responsibility for environmental management rests with the Department of the ____________________.

Q2) Environmentalists have used ____________________ to block harmful projects or to get the projects modified to reduce their effects.

Q3) Making decisions that involve integrated solutions to environmental and other problems is called the integrative principle.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What principle is taken into account by environmental policy?

A)the postcorporative principle

B)the non-integrative principle

C)the precautionary principle

D)the corporation principle

Q5) What would environmentalists expect anti-environmental forces to do?

A)influence the media and deny that environmental problems exist

B)collect and publish data about environmental issues

C)NOT build up a good environmental image

D)NOT exploit the limitations of science

Q6) What is the purpose of an environmental impact statement (EIS)?

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Chapter 28: Environmental Worldviews, Ethics, and Sustainability

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Q1) ____________________ values refers to forms of life that have value just because they exist, regardless of whether they have any usefulness to humans.

Q2) A sufficiency revolution is a component of the environmental revolution.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Care for life with understanding, love, and compassion: this is part of the planetary management worldview.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which statement is among the basic beliefs of a planetary management worldview?

A)Humans need the Earth, but the Earth does not need humans.

B)Human success does not depend on how well people manage Earth's life-support systems.

C)Humans are in charge of nature.

D)Earth has a limited supply of resources for human use.

Q5) The ____________________ worldview states that humans are Earth's most important species and they have an ethical responsibility to care for the rest of nature.

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Q6) Why is environmental literacy so important in today's society?

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