Introduction to Ecology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Ecology provides a foundational understanding of the interactions between living organisms and their environments. This course explores the principles that govern ecological organization at various levels, including individuals, populations, communities, ecosystems, and the biosphere. Topics covered include energy flow, nutrient cycling, population dynamics, species interactions, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on natural systems. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and real-world examples, students gain insights into the complexity of natural environments and the importance of ecological research in addressing environmental challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 1.7. Antibiotics are routinely given to animals in confinement facilities to avoid the spread of disease through dense populations. The antibiotics get into the surrounding environment (water and soil) and allow antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria to flourish and become the majority strain in the population. When infected by such a strain, an animal or human will not respond to treatment with the antibiotic. Which social trap is in effect here? What should be done about this?
Answer: The sliding reinforce is in effect here. We must be more careful in the application of antibiotics to humans and livestock; what is helpful at first becomes no longer helpful and then deadly over time. Many strains of bacteria exist that are resistant to all of our available antibiotic treatments.
Q2) Which factors make up the triple bottom line?
A) human, natural, and solar factors
B) international, national, and local factors
C) social, economic, and environmental factors
D) agricultural, financial, and environmental factors
E) solar energy, water, and air factors
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) How can the Montréal Protocol be viewed as a model for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and avoiding a global catastrophe due to the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activities such as fossil fuel combustion?
Answer: The scientific consensus is that recent changes in global climate are being driven by human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation. These activities result in increased levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, which then trap more heat (global warming). Scientists recommend that the levels of greenhouse gases (such as CO ) being added to the atmosphere must be reduced by all nations. This is similar to the Montréal Protocol in scope because it is a global environmental crisis and requires agreement across nations.
Q2) In an experimental study, what is TRUE about the independent variable?
A) It shows a response.
B) It is charted on the y-axis (vertical axis).
C) It is what you manipulate.
D) It is what you measure.
E) It is the same for both the control and experimental groups.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail
of
in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Toxicologists are scientists who study ________.
A) patterns of disease in a population
B) the degree of uncertainty in environmental policies
C) the interactions between organisms in their natural environment
D) secondary sources for accuracy as a public service
E) the specific properties of potential toxins
Answer: E
Q2) Why do the results of studies on BPA differ? Some studies showed it to be harmless and were used to set a dose level, yet others showed it to be dangerous.
Answer: The studies showing it to be harmless used high dosages and gradually lowered the dosage in order to set a safe level. However, since it is an endocrine disruptor, it has different effects at lower dosages. The studies that identified this effect had started with low dosages and discovered an array of effects, including early maturation, decreased testosterone, and an increase in embryo deaths. So, it was the dosage started with that caused the discrepancy in results, probably not the experiments themselves.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) The global population in 2012 is approximately _________.
A) 700,000
B) 7 million
C) 7 billion
D) 700 million
E) 70 billion
Q2) Refer to Infographic 4.1. As an emergency food supply in World War II, 20 reindeer were taken to an island in the Pacific, along with troops stationed there. Shortly thereafter, the war ended and the troops returned home, leaving the reindeer behind. After 10 years, the population of reindeer had increased to 6,000. However, with no predators and limited food and space available on the island, the population crashed, with no reindeer remaining after 10 more years. Describe what lessons can be learned from this as it applies to human populations on Earth.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 4.8. Only one region in this graph produces more resources than they use. How is biocapacity related to population?
Q4) How does overconsumption in developed countries, such as the United States, affect countries in other regions, such as Asia?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) What is an obstacle to the eradication of Guinea worm disease?
A) indifference
B) political issues
C) human stubbornness
D) poverty
E) all of the above
Q2) Of the top 10 causes of death in low-income countries in 2012 (Infographic 5.6), how many are likely caused by infectious disease agents like bacteria, viruses, and parasites?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) They are all caused by infectious disease agents.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 5.5. Of the prevention methods mentioned in the graphic, which do you think would have the largest impact on Guinea worm disease (GWD) eradication?
Q4) Why is it difficult to map cause-and-effect relationships of human hazards and disease? Page 7
Q5) Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD) not a zoonotic disease?
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Chapter 6:
Economics and Consumption-
to Wall, Cradle to Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) Including both internal and external costs when setting a price for a good or service is an example of ______ cost.
A) overall
B) valuation
C) total
D) marginal
E) true
Q2) Ecosystem services would be discounted in the _________economic system.
A) environmental
B) ecological
C) triple-bottom line
D) mainstream
E) true cost accounting
Q3) A linear economic model would include which of the following items?
A) recyclable products
B) crude oil as an energy source
C) cow manure
D) reclaimable waste
E) All of the items listed above would fit that description.
Q4) Discuss how the ecosystem service of pollination benefits humans. Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter
Teeming With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) Why is there no such thing as waste in natural, non-human ecosystems?
A) There is not enough consumption to produce waste.
B) The discarded matter of one organism becomes the resources for another.
C) All organisms reuse their own discarded matter.
D) There is one niche in every ecosystem that consumes all waste from the other members of the ecosystem.
E) Waste does exist in natural ecosystems; we just can't see it.
Q2) Consumers can decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste by ___________.
A) refusing to purchase products that contribute to solid waste generation
B) purchasing goods with minimal packaging
C) finding ways to reuse materials instead of purchasing new ones
D) actively recycling materials
E) All of the choices listed above will decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste.
Q3) The four R's to help an individual limit waste production are _______________.
A) reclaim, rename, retake, and recycle
B) recycle, recycle, recycle, and recycle
C) ratify, rectify, remedy, and reframe
D) refuse, reduce, reuse, and recycle
E) revamp, retrofit, reduce, and regulation
Page 11
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 8.1. Use the infographic to describe examples of considerations scientists had to take into account when planning Biosphere 2.
Q2) Describe two abiotic factors that influence the distribution and makeup of biomes and how they do this.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 8.5. Describe ways that scientists attempted to design Biosphere 2 to minimize the effects of limiting factors and help keep organisms within their zone of optimum range.
Q4) Nitrogen-rich compounds found in animal waste or the remains of dead plants and animals are converted to ___________ by decomposer bacteria.
A) ammonium ions
B) protein
C) nitrogen gas
D) nitrate
E) nitrite
Q5) Consider the following scenario: A plant grows in the soil and is eventually eaten by a rabbit. The rabbit is eaten by a hawk. The hawk becomes ill, dies, and falls to the ground. Fungi and bacteria decompose the hawk. How is this scenario an example of both nutrient cycling and energy flow?
Page 12
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?
Q2) What is an example of top-down regulation?
A) availability of sunlight
B) control of a prey population by a predator
C) large amounts of food
D) drought killing young willow trees
E) none of the above
Q3) Numerous towns and cities in the United States have a deer population problem due to the removal of predators. How would you explain that top-down regulation would help with the overpopulation problem? In addition, are there any bottom-up regulation strategies you would suggest to the townspeople?
Q4) When a wolf population goes from high to low as a result of a decrease in moose population, both the moose and wolves experience _____________.
A) boom-and-bust cycles
B) overshoot-and-crash cycles
C) natural population cycles
D) up-and-down cycles
E) None of the above is correct.
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Q5) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator-prey relationship?
Q2) The concept of the trophic pyramid reflects ________________.
A) the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 90%
B) the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 10%
C) the fact that biomass increases as you move up the food web
D) the number of decomposers found in a system
E) none of the above
Q3) The total amount of energy created by producers is known as ________________.
A) net primary productivity
B) gross primary productivity
C) the top trophic level
D) the lowest trophic level
E) none of the above
Page 14
Q4) What is the term given to the amount of primary productivity available for energy transfer up the food web-gross primary productivity or net primary productivity-and how do they differ?
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Page 15
Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing
Birds
of Guam
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Q1) A genetic trait causes double muscling in cattle. Breeders mate together individuals with this trait to increase muscle mass in their herd. This is an example of
A) artificial selection
B) natural selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) core speciation
E) disruptive selection
Q2) What must exist within a population in order for evolution by natural selection to occur, and what are its sources?
Q3) _______ is the complete loss of a species from the Earth.
A) Endangering
B) Threatening
C) Extirpation
D) Endemic
E) Extinction
Q4) The loss of a trait is always a disadvantage to a population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
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Chapter 12: Biodiversity- Palm Planet:
Production of a Common Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
Q2) If islands make up a tiny percentage of the landmass of Earth, why have they accounted for around half of all species extinctions in the last 400 years?
Q3) Take what you know about biodiversity and climate change. Which ecosystem do you think would be more resistant to the effects of climate change (to a point): one with a high level of biodiversity or one with a low level of biodiversity? Explain your answer.
Q4) There are currently around 1.9 million species that have been identified. What is the total number of species predicted to live on Earth?
A) between 1 million and 2 million
B) between 2 million and 3 million
C) between 3 million and 11 million
D) between 11 million and 19 million
E) over 1 billion
Q5) How could the effects of global warming diminish ecosystem services? Use genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity in your answer.
Q6) What are some ways that you can protect biodiversity?
Q7) Compare and contrast habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation. Page 17
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) How much of Earth's total land area is protected to some degree?
A) 7%
B) 13%
C) 28%
D) 48%
E) 62%
Q2) Refer to the graph in Infographic 13.1. Agriculture/aquaculture represents the greatest threat to vertebrate species. Why do you think this is? Frame your answer in terms of the major threats to global biodiversity.
Q3) Consider the following scenario: A captive breeding program employed by several zoos has had tremendous success in increasing the number of Amazon River dolphins in captivity. The eventual goal of this effort is to release these animals back into their natural habitat, which is increasingly becoming more and more polluted. Do you think this conservation effort will save the Amazon River dolphin? Why or why not? If not, what would you do in conjunction with the breeding program?
Q4) The results of DNA fingerprinting can define different populations in a given species. A)True B)False
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Chapter
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Switching to water-saving irrigation methods not only saves water but also
A) limits water loss to evaporation
B) reduces runoff
C) protects surface water
D) prevents soil salinization
E) all of these answers
Q2) Which of the following continents has the greatest water scarcity?
A) North America
B) South America
C) Africa
D) Antarctica
E) Europe
Q3) Which of the following would reduce the amount of infiltration of water into an aquifer?
A) paved roads
B) monoculture lawns
C) cement driveways
D) buildings
E) all of these answers
Page 20
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Chapter 15:
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) Choose three strategies from the Gulf of Mexico Regional Ecosystem Restoration plan in Infographic 15.7. Explain what the goals of those strategies are and, if implemented, how the strategies will help reach those goals.
Q2) A watershed is:
A) a storage facility for groundwater.
B) an area of land over which rain and other sources of water flow to drain into a body of water.
C) the area in which people dig drinking water wells.
D) where a river meets the ocean.
E) the evaporation of river water.
Q3) Which is an example of a point source pollution source?
A) farm water runoff
B) a ruptured sewer pipe
C) acid rain
D) sediment pollution
E) none of the above
Q4) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
Q5) Why is the prevention of soil erosion one of the best management practices to reduce the amount of pollution being delivered to the Mississippi River?
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Q1) Why are some people supportive of low-tech farming methods over industrial agricultural methods?
A) Low-tech farming methods produce more food.
B) Low-tech farming methods are strictly organic.
C) Industrial agriculture methods do not produce actual food crops.
D) Even though low-tech farming methods are more expensive, they do not use GMOs.
E) Low-tech farming methods are typically less harmful to the environment.
Q2) How could governments support efforts to increase a community's food security?
A) repair roads leading to markets
B) support women farmers
C) subsidize crops for local food supplies
D) create a local seed bank
E) all of these answers
Q3) Which of the following choices was NOT introduced with the Green Revolution?
A) chemical pesticides
B) sophisticated irrigation systems
C) synthetic nitrogen fertilizer
D) high-yield variety crops
E) organic farming techniques
Page 23
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Chapter
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which food likely has the smallest carbon footprint?
A) a pineapple shipped from Hawaii
B) a soybean from a local commercial farm
C) an organic banana shipped from Costa Rica
D) an organic strawberry from a local farm
E) Both C and D have equally small footprints.
Q2) Modern industrial agriculture methods __________________.
A) rely on renewable energy sources to power modern farming equipment
B) maintain and enrich ecosystem services
C) focus all resources on a single crop
D) avoid the use of chemical fertilizers
E) are referred to as organic
Q3) In sustainable agriculture _________ is to soil erosion as ____________ is to soil fertility.
A) strip cropping; contour farming
B) terrace farming; crop rotation
C) cover cropping; reduced tillage
D) contour farming; terrace farming
E) crop rotation; windbreaks
Q4) What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control? Page 24
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Chapter 18: Coal- Bringing Down the Mountain: in the
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) What is a common criticism of mountaintop removal mine reclamation?
A) The evidence suggests that the original native species will never recolonize the reclaimed site.
B) The artificial channels do not host the same amount of biodiversity as the natural streams.
C) The Appalachian Mountains are a region of extremely high biodiversity and the reclaimed sites will not recover similar levels of diversity.
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q2) What is the purpose of the transformer in the electrical grid?
A) to cool the water used in steam production
B) to reduce the voltage of the generated electricity
C) to increase the voltage of the generated electricity
D) to transmit electricity
E) none of these answers
Q3) What are the steps in the long process of coal formation over time?
Q4) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?
Q5) Which type of mining, surface or subsurface, has a greater impact on the environment, and why?
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Chapter 19: Oil and Natural Gas- the Bakken Oil Boom: Is
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Fracking is a method to extract ___________ from deep unconventional reserves.
A) coal
B) oil
C) natural gas
D) oil shale
E) both B and C
Q2) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?
Q3) If all sources of oil, unconventional or not, in the United States were equally economically feasible to harvest, which source would be most profitable?
A) conventional oil
B) conventional natural gas
C) fracking natural gas
D) oil sands
E) kerogen shale
Q4) Which of the following choices is NOT a fossil fuel?
A) oil
B) peat
C) natural gas
D) coal
E) none of these answers
Page 27
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) Which of the following would be part of a technological solution to reducing air pollution?
A) providing tax credits for commuters who ride buses that run on compressed natural gas
B) installing a carbon monoxide detector in your home
C) pricing the pollution-generating product or service such that costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are accounted for
D) allowing polluters to sell their excess pollution credits for a profit
E) installing smokestack scrubbers to keep air pollutants from being released
Q2) For most people in developed countries, the greatest exposure to air pollution comes from being indoors where structures tend to trap pollutants, keeping concentrations high. How can exposure to these indoor pollutants be reduced?
Q3) Refer to the pH values of precipitation in the United States map in Infographic 20.4. Why are pH values for precipitation lower (more acidic) in the eastern part of the United States? What has contributed to the improvement in conditions between 1994 and 2009?
Q4) Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant while stratospheric ozone is not? How is it formed?
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following is an anthropogenic forcer?
A) volcanic eruptions
B) fossil fuel combustion
C) sunspot cycles
D) orbital eccentricity
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which of the following facilitate mitigation efforts on a national or global scale?
A) command and control regulations
B) tax breaks
C) carbon taxes
D) cap-and-trade
E) all of these answers
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
A) carbon dioxide
B) methane
C) nitrous oxide
D) halocarbons
E) sulfur oxides
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Q4) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.
Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.
Q2) ___________________ is a nuclear reaction that occurs when a neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more parts.
A) Nuclear fusion
B) Nuclear fission
C) Radioactive decay
D) Cold fusion
E) Cold fission
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of the high expense involved in nuclear power production?
A) It costs about twice as much to build a nuclear power plant than it does to build one that utilizes fossil fuels.
B) Nuclear power plants last about 40 years.
C) Nuclear plants are expensive to decommission.
D) Nuclear fuel is three times as expensive as fossil fuels.
E) Nuclear plants are more expensive to maintain than conventional plants, partly because the disposal of the fuel is costly.
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
Strides
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Q1) What is the relationship between the wind turbines and the automobiles used on Samsø?
A) They only drive electric cars.
B) They only drive cars produced on the island by wind power.
C) The clean energy produced by the turbines offsets the fossil fuels used by the cars.
D) The cars run on wind power.
E) There is no relationship between the cars and the wind turbines.
Q2) Switching from incandescent bulbs to compact fluorescents (CFL) provides a twofold benefit during the summer. Why?
A) CFL bulbs use less energy.
B) Incandescent bulbs produce excess heat.
C) CFL bulbs produce excess heat.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
Q3) Explain why wind and water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.
Q4) Has Samsø completely become independent of fossil fuels, and if not, what is the country doing to accomplish this goal?
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Chapter 24: Urbanization- the Ghetto Goes Green: in the Bronx, Building a Better Backyard
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Q1) What solutions have been proposed for fixing the flawed Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) that resulted in refrigerant companies in China and India profiting more from HFC offset credits than from selling the coolant itself?
Q2) The era of modern environmental policy had begun by:
A) 1849.
B) 1880.
C) 1923.
D) 1969.
E) 1996.
Q3) The _______________ was the first international effort to set reduction targets for greenhouse gas emissions by developed countries.
A) 1997 Kyoto Protocol
B) 1992 UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
C) 2007 Bali Road Map (UNFCCC)
D) 2010 Cancun Agreements (UNFCCC)
E) 2009 Copenhagen Accord (UNFCCC)
Q4) What is an environmental policy? Why are many environmental problems considered "wicked problems"?
Q5) Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) All of the following statements are true about the movement of the world's population EXCEPT _________________.
A) more people live in urban areas than in rural areas
B) the rate of population growth has increased since the end of the twentieth century
C) urbanization is occurring in developed, developing, and non-developed countries
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q2) Environmental justice is becoming more relevant as more people move to and live in cities. This migration has created imbalances among communities concerning their environmental burdens and benefits. Globally, more than ________________ people live in slums near large cities.
A) 500,000
B) 3 million
C) 85 million
D) 1 billion
E) 13 billion
Q3) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling:
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Q1) Which of the following is a nonmetallic mineral?
A) quartz
B) gold
C) zinc
D) lead
E) none of these answer
Q2) Gold and silver are commonly found in which of the following products?
A) electronics
B) paints
C) jewelry
D) A, B, and C
E) A and C
Q3) Which step(s) in rare earth mining generate(s) waste?
A) digging out ore
B) purification using chemical and physical separation techniques
C) smelting
D) crushing and grinding rock to a fine powder
E) all of these answers
Q4) From Infographic 26.4, list and explain which mining technique would be considered most dangerous to the miner.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) One of the advantages of using land for grazing is __________________.
A) it takes less land per animal than feeding grain to livestock
B) we are turning material we cannot eat into food that we can eat
C) that plants are eaten faster than they can grow
D) that the soil becomes compacted, making it harder for seeds to germinate
E) All of these answers are advantages for using land for grazing.
Q2) The majority of domesticated animals being grazed on grasslands are___________.
A) cattle
B) chickens
C) pigs
D) turkeys
E) horses
Q3) As desertification of grasslands continues, smaller amounts of food will be available to feed humanity. What might be some of the consequences of the desertification of grasslands?
A) increased starvation
B) movement of people from one area to another
C) social unrest
D) physical conflict between people of different cultures
E) all of these answers
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) The net loss of trees in a region is known as __________________.
A) deforestation
B) industrialization
C) clear-cutting
D) fire suppression
E) charcoal
Q2) Which act of Congress mandates that national forests be managed in a way that balances a variety of uses?
A) Clean Air Act
B) Clean Water Act
C) Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act
D) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability (Superfund) Act
E) none of these answers
Q3) The dependence on charcoal as an energy source in Haiti is referred to as a "vicious cycle" with regard to environmental degradation. Why?
Q4) What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service's new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?
Q5) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) When a solution becomes acidic it contains a greater amount of which of the following?
A) H O
B) OH-
C) CH
D) H
E) O
Q2) Refer to Infographic 29.1. Carbon dioxide emissions have reduced the ocean's pH by about 0.1. Why is this acidification of the ocean a problem?
Q3) Refer to the graph depicting ocean acidification over time in Infographic 29.1. As the atmospheric concentration of CO increases, the amount of CO absorbed by the oceans (pCO ) also increases. This type of relationship is _________.
A) directly proportional
B) inversely proportional
C) negative feedback
D) positive feedback
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q4) Describe the complex relationship that coral have with zooxanthellae ("zooks").
Q5) Why do ecologists consider coral reefs a keystone species?
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Chapter
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Q1) According to Infographic 30.6, food safety and the environment are most important to which economic development status group?
A) low development, many smallholders
B) slow industrialization
C) rapid industrialization
D) postindustrial nations?E. This cannot be determined from the infographic.
Q2) On a(n) _________ farm, chickens follow cows onto a pasture to consume fly larvae on manure, so the flies do not hatch and bother the cows.
A) monoculture
B) polyculture
C) feed-lot
D) industrial
E) CAFO
Q3) How would bacterial contamination of steak differ from that of ground beef? How does the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend ground meat be cooked?
Q4) What was the rationale for the original U.S. Farm Bill? What was it designed to do?
Q5) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
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Q1) In 1992, the United States banned the practice of _______ to catch fish.
A) long-line fishing
B) pole fishing
C) bottom trawling
D) drift netting
E) dynamite
Q2) A fishery with populations well below historic levels that has reduced reproductive capacity is called ___________.
A) overexploited
B) depleted
C) exhausted
D) finite
E) shrunken
Q3) Which of the following statements about the Atlantic cod is FALSE?
A) The cod fishery was the economic backbone of colonial New England and Canada.
B) Twenty years after the moratorium on cod fishing, 40,000 people are still out of work and reliant on government support.
C) Cod became the source of New England's early wealth.
D) By 1992, the annual catch had dropped to just 2% of its historic high.
E) None-all of these statements are true.
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
Grasslands May Be a Surprising One
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Q1) What has recently become an attractive alternative to using grains (corn) or sugarcane to make bioethanol? Briefly describe what sources are used and why its production efficiency is currently an issue.
Q2) Biofuels currently provide about _______ of the energy used in the United States, more than any other type of renewable resource.
A) 0.4%
B) 7%
C) 14%
D) 40%
E) 80%
Q3) Use Infographic 32.5 to describe the production of grain ethanol and cellulosic ethanol. Why is it more challenging to produce ethanol from plants with high cellulose content compared with producing it from grain?
Q4) Which of the following is a way to improve energy efficiency of vehicles?
A) construction with lighter materials
B) more aerodynamic shapes
C) incorporation of hybrid technologies
D) more energy-efficient engines
E) all of these answers
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