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Introduction to Earth Systems Science provides a comprehensive overview of the Earth's major interacting systems the atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and geosphere and their dynamic processes. Students will explore the physical, chemical, and biological principles that govern these systems, examine their impacts on global and regional environments, and analyze how human activities influence Earths stability and sustainability. The course emphasizes the connections and feedback mechanisms within and among the Earth systems, using case studies and current issues such as climate change, resource management, and environmental challenges to highlight the importance of an integrated scientific approach.
Recommended Textbook
Earth Portrait of a Planet 5th Edition by Stephen Marshak
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Q1) The change in wavelength (and,therefore,frequency)of waves that happens if the source of the waves is moving is explained by the ________.
A)Big Bang theory
B)nebular theory
C)expanding Universe theory
D)Doppler effect
Answer: D
Q2) According to the Big Bang theory,________.
A)Earth is much older than the rest of the Universe
B)the Universe is much older than Earth
C)Earth and the Universe formed at about the same time
D)there is no way of knowing how old the Universe might be
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a possible stage in a star's life and collapse?
A)protostar
B)supernova
C)gas giant
D)black hole
Answer: C
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Q1) The distinction between the crust and the mantle is primarily on the basis of a difference in ________;the distinction between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere is primarily on the basis of a difference in ________.
A)composition;the ability to flow without breaking
B)color;composition
C)the ability to flow without breaking;composition
D)composition;composition as well
Answer: A
Q2) Where can icy bodies left over from the protoplanetary disk that formed our Solar System long after the Big Bang be found?
A)heliosphere
B)Oort cloud
C)Kuiper belt
D)interplanetary space
Answer: C
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Q1) Earth's magnetic reversals are likely due to ________.
A)meteorite impacts
B)lightning strikes
C)tectonic plates shifting
D)changes in circulation patterns in the inner core
Answer: C
Q2) In Wegener's evidence for continental drift,continents were proposed to fit together,such as the east coast of South America with the ________.
A)west coast of Europe
B)east coast of Africa
C)west coast of Greenland
D)lower west coast of Africa
Answer: D
Q3) The thickness of clay and planktonic microskeletons is greatest ________.
A)along mid-ocean ridges
B)along fracture zones
C)at the edges of ocean basins
D)in the center of abyssal plains
Answer: C
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Q1) A volcanic island arc forms when ________.
A)oceanic lithosphere subducts beneath continental lithosphere
B)oceanic lithosphere subducts beneath another oceanic lithospheric plate
C)continental lithosphere subducts beneath oceanic lithosphere
D)two plates of continental lithosphere collide
Q2) The distribution of ________ across the globe provides the primary indicator of boundaries between all tectonic plates.
A)mountain ranges
B)volcanoes
C)mid-ocean ridges
D)earthquakes
Q3) Deep-oceanic trenches are features of ________ plate boundaries.
A)divergent
B)convergent
C)transvergent
D)transform
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Q1) Which of the following minerals is more commonly known as table salt?
A)gypsum
B)feldspar
C)halite
D)quartz
Q2) When two different minerals have the same chemical formula but different crystal structures,they are said to be ________.
A)polymorphs
B)polyliths
C)monoliths
D)This is not possible.Two minerals cannot have the same chemical formula.
Q3) Synthetically made glass and natural quartz crystals both exhibit a fracture pattern termed ________.
A)glassy fracture
B)conchoidal fracture
C)one-directional cleavage
D)obtuse fracture
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Q1) In Bowen's discontinuous reaction series,the first mineral to crystallize from a mafic melt is ________.
A)olivine
B)plagioclase
C)pyroxene
D)quartz
Q2) Injecting hot fudge into ice cream and causing the ice cream to melt is an appropriate analogy for which cause of magma melt?
A)melting due to a decrease in pressure
B)melting due to an addition of volatiles
C)melting due to heat transfer from rising magma
D)flux melting
Q3) Volatiles refer to substances that ________.
A)crystallize most rapidly out of a melt
B)melt immediately upon contact with a hot body of magma
C)are highly flammable
D)have a tendency to evaporate into gases
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Q1) Sea level rises locally,and marine sediments are deposited on top of terrestrial sediments during events termed ________.
A)transgressions
B)regressions
C)turbidity currents
D)cross bedding
Q2) It is unusual for ________ to carry grains larger than sand.
A)ice in glaciers
B)water in rivers
C)wind
D)water at a seaside beach
Q3) If water is the transport mechanism of sediment,the grain size of sedimentary deposits most closely indicates the ________.
A)geographic extent of the weathering source rock at outcrop
B)average velocity of the water from the time of erosion until deposition
C)velocity of the water at the moment the sediment settled to the bottom
D)climate conditions at the time of deposition
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Q1) The rapid,deep burial of sediments in an accretionary prism leads to the formation of a metamorphic rock termed ________.
A)blueschist
B)greenschist
C)migmatite
D)gneiss
Q2) Which of the following processes CANNOT occur in the formation of metamorphic rock?
A)the realignment of minerals so that they develop a preferred orientation
B)the segregation of minerals into layers of different compositions
C)the solid-state rearrangement of atoms or ions to create a new assemblage of minerals
D)complete remelting of the rock,followed by solidification to form a new rock
Q3) Differential stress will cause crystals to align in a preferred orientation unless the crystals are ________.
A)primarily mica
B)platy
C)equant
D)elongate
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Q1) What properties of the source magma lead to the formation of a shield volcano?
A)low viscosity and mafic composition
B)high viscosity and felsic composition
C)any magma composition so long as it contains a large portion of dissolved volatiles
D)an intermediate composition magma that encounters seawater in the magma chamber
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning the 1980 eruption of Mt.St.Helens?
A)The eruption was a complete surprise to geologists and provided no forewarning.
B)The eruption produced the largest basalt flow of the 20th century anywhere on Earth.
C)The eruption began with a lateral blast of debris that was ejected at the speed of sound.
D)No lahars were produced because the eruption occurred in the winter.
Q3) Gases that are abundantly emitted by volcanoes include ________.
A)water vapor,carbon dioxide,and sulfur dioxide
B)oxygen,ozone,and water vapor
C)oxygen,hydrogen,and argon
D)carbon dioxide,carbon monoxide,and oxygen
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Q1) The point on Earth's surface directly above the point where an earthquake occurs is termed the ________.
A)hypocenter (focus)
B)epicenter
C)eye of the fault
D)vertex
Q2) If an earthquake's magnitude is measured based on the Richter scale,how is this abbreviated?
A)ML
B)MS
C)mb
D)MR
Q3) Faulting and earthquakes are examples of ________ and generally occur when rocks are relatively ________.
A)brittle deformation;cold
B)ductile deformation;cold
C)brittle deformation;hot
D)ductile deformation;hot
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Q1) Movement along faults often produces a rock formed from sharply angled rock fragments termed ________.
A)fault gouge
B)rock flour
C)fault breccia
D)slickenside
Q2) The balance between the weight of a mountain range and the buoyancy provided by the underlying mantle is termed ________.
A)punctuated equilibrium
B)homeostatic equilibrium
C)isostatic equilibrium
D)osmotic equilibrium
Q3) How is tectonic foliation,such as elongation of quartz grains,oriented relative to the original bedding plane of a body of rock?
A)Foliation is parallel to original bedding.
B)Foliation is at about 45° to original bedding.
C)Foliation is perpendicular to original bedding.
D)Foliation can be at a variety of angles to original bedding.
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Q1) Within the world's sedimentary rocks,fossils ________.
A)are rarely,if ever,found
B)are randomly distributed
C)occur in an ordered sequence
D)are found only in igneous rocks
Q2) Which statement best summarizes the development of the geologic time scale?
A)Numerical ages for rocks were known before the relative sequence of sedimentary layers was established.
B)Relative ages for sedimentary strata were known before accurate numerical dates for these rocks were measured.
C)Names of relative ages (such as Silurian)and accurate numerical dates for these ages became known at about the same time.
D)Numerical ages for fossils were known before the relative sequence of sedimentary layers was established.
Q3) The closure temperature represents the point when ________.
A)a magma cools to the point where minerals begin to crystallize
B)radioactive isotopes begin to decay
C)isotopes are no longer free to move out of a crystal lattice
D)the last remaining magma crystallizes
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Q1) A fold-thrust belt is ________.
A)a low-lying region where Precambrian rocks crop out
B)a low-lying region where Precambrian rocks are covered by Phanerozoic sedimentary strata
C)a region of compressed rock located behind a volcanic arc at a convergent continental margin
D)synonymous with "craton"
Q2) Archean greenstones are formed from ________.
A)basalts produced at hot spots
B)sand and clay eroded from volcanic areas
C)the precipitation of silica in the deep sea
D)metamorphosed relicts of ocean crust
Q3) Convergence along the western margin of North America during the Cenozoic gave way to rifting forces that created the characteristic topography of the ________.
A)Coast Ranges
B)Basin and Range Province
C)Colorado Plateau
D)Columbia Plateau
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Sun's energy can be harnessed?
A)photosynthesis
B)solar panels
C)tidal movements
D)wind
Q2) Which organic substance is produced by black organic shales at temperatures below the oil window?
A)natural gas
B)coal
C)kerogen
D)keratin
Q3) Hydrocarbons consisting of short carbon chains are ________.
A)more volatile than hydrocarbons with longer chains
B)more viscous than hydrocarbons with longer chains
C)typically stable in a solid state at room temperatures
D)more prone to tangling and bonding with each other
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Q1) Which of the following nonmetallic resources has an igneous origin?
A)salt
B)granite
C)limestone
D)gypsum
Q2) The metal ores that are found in veins within plutons typically occur ________.
A)by themselves as pure mineral assemblages
B)together with other ores but no other minerals
C)alongside abundant calcite
D)alongside abundant quartz
Q3) In what types of rocks are ore minerals found?
A)only in igneous rocks
B)only in igneous and sedimentary rocks
C)only in igneous and metamorphic rocks
D)in igneous,sedimentary,and metamorphic rocks
Q4) Alloys are useful because they ________.
A)can substitute for rare earth minerals
B)are easier to smelt
C)are the cheapest metals to produce
D)are stronger than either of their constituent metals alone
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Q1) Which of the following types of mass movement often travels down a curved surface?
A)slump
B)creep
C)rock slide
D)mudflow
Q2) A rock slide into a reservoir triggered catastrophic flooding of the landscape below which dam?
A)Vaiont (Italy)
B)Aswan (Egypt)
C)Hoover (Nevada)
D)Glen Canyon (Arizona)
Q3) A ________ may form at the head of a slump.
A)toe
B)failure surface
C)scarp
D)mass
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Q1) Pirate streams ________.
A)consist of a series of intertwined channels that are overloaded with sediment
B)have flowing water either episodically or during only a portion of the year
C)have a channel that is highly sinuous (curvy)
D)form when headward erosion causes one stream to intersect another
Q2) In a region with prominent orthogonal sets of joints,a ________ drainage network is expected.
A)dendritic
B)radial
C)rectangular
D)trellis
Q3) All else being equal,water will flow faster in a stream that has a ________,which is typically found near the river's ________.
A)steep stream gradient;source
B)steep stream gradient;mouth
C)gentle stream gradient;source
D)gentle stream gradient;mouth
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Q1) The entire state of Florida is composed of fossiliferous limestone,what does this imply about Florida during the recent past?
A)It was covered with caves.
B)It was a submergent coast.
C)It was an emergent coast.
D)It was in the mountains.
Q2) Which portion of the seafloor is most steeply sloped?
A)abyssal plains
B)continental shelves
C)continental slopes
D)continental rises
Q3) Thermohaline circulation carries ________ water from the poles to the equator,where the water becomes ________.
A)warm;cold
B)cold;warm
C)low density;more dense
D)low density;more salty
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Q1) Topography dominated by depressions formed by the collapse of caves is termed a
A)valley and ridge province
B)karst landscape
C)horst and graben landscape
D)speleothem formation
Q2) For several generations,your family has lived on a farm with a water well.There has never been a problem with the water supply in the past;however,your well has now gone dry.There are several small farms nearby and a large and growing city 50 miles to the north.What can you conclude is the most likely reason for your well to become dry?
A)The farmers nearby have suddenly started using much more water than they used to.
B)The growth of minerals in pore spaces in the aquifer rock has decreased its permeability.
C)As the city grew larger,more wells were drilled and water was overpumped,thus lowering the water table.
D)The water has stopped infiltrating into the ground because of the overuse of pesticides.
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Q1) Because of the Coriolis effect,air that is spread northward from the equator is deflected ________.
A)directly back to the equator
B)to the east
C)to the west
D)upward,to the tropopause
Q2) As an air mass rises,it generally experiences ________.
A)an increase in pressure
B)a decrease in pressure
C)no change in pressure
D)either an increase or a decrease in pressure,depending on temperature
Q3) Where air sinks,as in the subtropical horse latitudes,the air usually ________.
A)cools as it sinks
B)creates high pressure locally
C)creates low pressure locally
D)increases in relative humidity as it sinks
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Q1) A(n)________ consists of sand and gravel deposited by ephemeral distributary channels that occur where a gully or a canyon discharges from its mouth.
A)alluvial fan
B)ventifact
C)wadi
D)yardang
Q2) A rock that has been significantly reshaped on multiple surfaces by windborne particles and sometimes has a sharp edge is a(n)________.
A)inselberg
B)ventifact
C)wadi
D)yardang
Q3) The saltation of sand involves ________.
A)spherical grains rolling along the surface of dunes
B)grains traveling short distances (approximately 1 m)in the air
C)grains traveling long distances (approximately 1-100 km)in the air by strong winds
D)the mixing of mineral sand and salt to form a weakly cemented soil
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Q1) The Carboniferous Period was a time when swamps and forests dominated Earth.What was the climate like during this period?
A)humid and hot
B)humid and cold
C)dry and hot
D)dry and cold
Q2) If you wander around Central Park in New York City,you will eventually encounter random,large boulders that are made of a type of rock not found in the area.How did these large boulders get to Central Park?
A)The Parks and Recreation Department placed them there for kids to play on.
B)They were carried by rivers and deposited in point bars.
C)They were carried by glaciers and dropped to form glacial erratics.
D)They were placed there by a giant tsunami millions of years ago.
Q3) An intermediate product in the transformation of snow to glacial ice is ________.
A)firn
B)deposition
C)ablation
D)terminus
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Q1) Increasing ratios of oxygen-18 to oxygen-16 in glacial ice indicate ________.
A)advancing ice sheets
B)warming temperatures
C)increased volcanic emissions
D)uplift of land surfaces
Q2) Which of the following processes releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
A)photosynthesis
B)the weathering of silicate rocks
C)volcanism
D)the burial of organic matter
Q3) The amount of solar energy reflected by a surface is known as ________.
A)albedo
B)radiation
C)the reflection coefficient
D)the absorption coefficient
Q4) During most of the Mesozoic Era,Earth was ________.
A)about as warm as present
B)cooler than present
C)warmer than present
D)experiencing wild temperature fluctuations
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Q1) Composition describes the ________.
A)degree of compaction and cementation in a rock
B)arrangement of minerals in a rock
C)presence of layers of minerals in a rock
D)chemical makeup of a rock
Q2) How would you tell if a rock is crystalline?
A)It contains crystals that have been cemented together.
B)It does not contain crystals at all.
C)It contains interlocking crystals.
D)It contains all one type of crystal.
Q3) Where would you expect to find metamorphic rocks forming?
A)deep inside a mountain range
B)inside a lava flow on Hawaii
C)under the water at the mid-ocean ridge
D)at the bottom of the Mediterranean Sea
Q4) Why do geologists classify rocks?
A)to determine the chemical makeup of the Earth
B)because rocks are the key to determining how the Earth formed
C)because it makes it easier to tell them apart
D)so that they can tell how old the rock is
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Q1) Dissolution occurs when ________.
A)minerals are dissolved into water
B)minerals are turned into rust
C)minerals absorb water and expand
D)minerals are removed by frost
Q2) Hydration occurs when ________.
A)minerals are dissolved into water
B)minerals are turned into rust
C)minerals absorb water and expand
D)minerals are removed by frost
Q3) What type of weathering are you likely to find occurring in areas with cold climates?
A)hydrolysis
B)frost wedging
C)salt wedging
D)dissolution
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Q1) What type of rock is formed from deep burial?
A)sedimentary
B)igneous
C)metamorphic
D)chemical
Q2) Identify the correct steps in the transformation of an igneous rock to a metamorphic rock.
A)rock melted and cooled rock eroded away and deposited
B)rock melted and cooled rock subjected to high heat and pressure
C)rock eroded away and deposited rock buried and subjected to high heat and pressure
D)rock buried and subject to high heat and pressure rock eroded away and deposited
Q3) What process transforms a metamorphic rock into an igneous rock?
A)melting
B)burial
C)erosion
D)deposition
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Q1) What causes the velocity of a P-wave to speed up when it enters the inner core?
A)The inner core is a much more dense material than the outer core.
B)The inner core is a much less dense material than the outer core.
C)The inner core is liquid,and thus the wave speeds up.
D)The P-wave no longer has to compete with the S-wave for energy.
Q2) Earth's magnetic field is produced in the ________.
A)crust
B)mantle
C)outer core
D)inner core
Q3) Which layer of the Earth has the highest density?
A)outer core
B)inner core
C)mantle
D)crust
Q4) A mountain range made of granite would produce a(n)________ gravity anomaly.
A)positive
B)negative
C)isostatic
D)magnetized
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the fossil record is FALSE?
A)Not every minute of Earth's history is recorded in the rock record.
B)The fossil record does not contain any fossil remains of plants,only animals.
C)Not all organisms have a high preservation potential.
D)Paleontologists have not yet found all the fossils that are in the rocks.
Q2) In which of the following rocks might you find fossils?
A)gneiss
B)limestone
C)granite
D)basalt
Q3) Which of the following circumstances is likely to preserve a fossil?
A)Leaves from an ancient oak tree fall to the ground in a forest.
B)A mammoth dies from starvation in the middle of a vast dry plain.
C)A ground sloth walks along the edge of a river in the wet mud.
D)Bacteria living in the ocean die near the shoreline and sink to the bottom.
Q4) What type of fossil is composed of footprints or burrows?
A)mold or cast
B)chemical fossil
C)trace fossil
D)body fossil

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Q1) What type of landforms might you expect to find if the climate in an area is very warm and wet?
A)valleys
B)glacial hills
C)mesas
D)sand dunes
Q2) Which progression best describes how water goes from the ocean to a river?
A)evaporation à precipitation à infiltration into the ground
B)evaporation à precipitation à runoff
C)evaporation à precipitation à evapotranspiration
D)evapotranspiration à runoff à precipitation
Q3) Which of the following does NOT affect landscape development?
A)distance from mountains
B)climate in the area
C)amount of time
D)amount of erosion
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