Introduction to Earth Science
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Earth Science provides an overview of the fundamental principles that govern the planet Earth, exploring topics such as geology, meteorology, oceanography, and astronomy. Students will examine the processes that shape the Earth's surface, the structure and composition of its interior, and the dynamic interactions within its atmosphere and hydrosphere. The course emphasizes scientific observation and analysis, enabling students to understand natural phenomena such as earthquakes, weather patterns, and the rock cycle, as well as humankind's impact on Earth's systems. This foundational knowledge prepares students for further study in environmental and earth sciences.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Chapter 1: Earth Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's crust is part of the:
A) hydrosphere.
B) biosphere.
C) geosphere.
D) atmosphere.
Answer: C
Q2) The atmosphere consists mainly of __________.
A) nitrogen and argon
B) nitrogen and oxygen
C) oxygen and carbon dioxide
D) carbon dioxide and argon
Answer: B
Q3) The Earth's outer, cool, rigid shell is broken into several segments called __________ __________.
Answer: tectonic plates
Q4) At its center, Earth's temperature is about __________.
Answer: 6000°C
Q5) __________ is a principle that states that occasional huge catastrophes alter the course of Earth history.
Answer: Catastrophism
3
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Chapter 2: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the Mohs hardness scale, diamond has the value __________.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 100 Answer: C
Q2) A/an __________ is a mineral that is prized for its rarity and beauty. Answer: gem
Q3) Which of the following is not a rock-forming mineral?
A) pyroxene
B) feldspar
C) galena
D) quartz
Answer: C
Q4) Gold and silver are examples of native elements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Ninety-two percent of the Earth's crust is composed of __________ minerals. Answer: silicate
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Igneous rocks that solidify within the Earth's crust are __________.
Answer: plutonic or intrusive
Q2) Igneous rocks that have a composition between __________ and __________ are termed intermediate.
A) basalt, granite
B) granite, rhyolite
C) basalt, gabbro
D) basalt, peridotite
Answer: A
Q3) A large river carrying massive amounts of sediment to the ocean every year and accumulates on the delta produces __________ metamorphism.
A) regional dynamothermal
B) hydrothermal
C) contact
D) burial
Answer: D
Q4) Quartzite is metamorphosed quartz sandstone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Geologic Time: a Story in the Rocks
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Q1) Volcanic eruptions eject __________ __________ into the atmosphere, a greenhouse gas that can cause warming.
Q2) Humans evolved during the __________ Era/Eon.
A) Cenozoic
B) Proterozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Mesozoic
Q3) __________ __________ come from organisms that are abundantly preserved in rocks and are useful for dating.
Q4) The __________ encompasses approximately the first 4 billion years of Earth's history.
Q5) The longer the time span that a species existed, the more precisely an index fossil can be used to determine the age of a rock.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Dinosaurs evolved during the __________ Era.
Q7) In order to determine the absolute ages of rocks, __________ __________ relies on measuring the relative amounts of parent and daughter isotopes.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Geologic Resources
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Q1) Mineral reserves remain constant over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Evaporite deposits form by _______________.
A) sedimentary sorting
B) hydrothermal solutions
C) precipitation from water
D) magma solidification
Q3) Bauxite is an example of a __________ __________ deposit.
Q4) __________ __________ are the known amount of ore in the ground.
Q5) Solar and wind energy are examples of:
A) fossil fuels.
B) nonrenewable energy resources.
C) source rocks.
D) renewable energy resources.
Q6) Energy sources, such as sunlight and wind, are _______________.
A) renewable.
B) nonrenewable.
C) limited
D) usually more polluting than nuclear fuels
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Active Earth: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) Where two plates move horizontally toward each other, they form a __________ boundary.
A) convergent
B) rift
C) divergent
D) transform
Q2) When a plate carrying continental crust converges with a plate carrying oceanic crust:
A) the oceanic plate floats above the continental plate.
B) the continental plate sinks into the mantle.
C) a divergent boundary forms.
D) the oceanic plate sinks beneath the continental plate and dives into the mantle.
Q3) A/an __________ __________ is a long narrow trough in the sea floor formed where a portion of an oceanic plate sinks into the mantle.
Q4) Alfred Wegener proposed in his __________ __________ theory that Earth's continents were once joined together and later split and moved apart.
Q5) The San Andreas Fault is an example of a/an __________ plate boundary.
Q6) Alfred Wegener named his supercontinent __________.
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Chapter 7: Earthquakes and the Earths Structure
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Q1) The Mohorovicic discontinuity is the boundary between __________ and __________.
A) crust, mantle
B) mantle, outer core
C) outer core, inner core
D) continental crust, oceanic crust
Q2) The Mercalli scale measures:
A) numbers of earthquake waves generated.
B) the intensity of an earthquake based on its destructive power.
C) the amount of energy released during an earthquake based on the largest recorded body wave.
D) the amount of energy released during an earthquake based on the amount of movement and fault area.
Q3) P and S waves travel through all types of material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where two tectonic plates move past one another, rock near the plate boundary can stretch or compress elastically for decades, and then fracture suddenly and create an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Volcanoes and Plutons
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Q1) Magma with a high water content has a greater tendency to __________ in the crust, compared with magma with a lower water content.
A) solidify
B) remain liquid
C) metamorphose
D) spread out
Q2) Oceanic crust is typically of __________ composition.
A) basaltic
B) granitic
C) peridotitic
D) magnetic
Q3) Increased temperature is the most important factor in magma production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Granitic magma contains __________ water than basaltic magma.
Q5) Granitic magma has a __________ melting temperature compared to basaltic magma.
A) lower
B) higher
C) equal
D) much higher
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Mountains
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Q1) A circular or elliptical synclinal structure is called a/an __________.
Q2) Sea floor sediment and oceanic crust pieces are scraped off a subducting plate and accumulate in the __________ complex.
A) forearc
B) subduction
C) island arc
D) orogeny
Q3) A wedge-shaped block of rock that drops downward between a pair of normal faults is a/an:
A) horst.
B) anticline.
C) graben.
D) syncline.
Q4) A sedimentary basin between a trench and an island arc is called a __________.
A) forearc basin
B) backarc basin
C) middle-arc basin
D) double-trench
Q5) A/an __________ __________ forms where two plates carrying oceanic crust converge.
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Chapter 10: Weathering, Soil, and Erosion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The least soluble major mineral in granite is:
A) calcite.
B) feldspar.
C) quartz.
D) mica.
Q2) __________ is the orientation of a slope with respect to the Sun.
Q3) Soils with B horizons rich in accumulated aluminum, iron, and silicon are called
Q4) Typically, soil creep occurs at a rate of about:
A) 1 centimeter per day.
B) 1 meter per year.
C) 1 centimeter per year.
D) 1 kilometer per year.
Q5) Sand can maintain an angle of repose up to 45°.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Erosion involves little or no movement of the decomposed rocks and minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Frost wedging is an example of __________ weathering.
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Chapter 11: Fresh Water: Streams, Lakes, Ground Water, and Wetlands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Turnovers in lakes situated in temperate climates typically occur in __________.
A) spring only
B) summer only
C) spring and fall
D) summer and winter
Q2) A/an __________ lake formed when melting glaciers left huge blocks of ice in glacial sediment.
A) oxbow
B) fault
C) kettle
D) bowl
Q3) The water table does not fluctuate with the seasons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Flood plains, marshes, and swamps are all __________.
A) springs
B) geysers
C) wetlands
D) aquifers
Q5) __________ is the steepness of a stream.
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Chapter 12: Water Resources
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Q1) Current demands on the Colorado River exceed the total discharge of the river.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wastes from nuclear power plants are __________.
A) biodegradable
B) radioactive
C) harmless
D) anaerobic
Q3) The largest use of water in the United States is for:
A) cooling of electric plants.
B) industrial processes.
C) domestic use.
D) agriculture.
Q4) Dams and reservoirs result in a net gain of surface water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Aquifer depletion is uncommon in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Fertilizer runoff from fields is an example of __________ __________ pollution.
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Chapter 13: Glaciers and Ice Ages
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Q1) A/an __________ is a sharp, narrow ridge between two glacial valleys.
A) tarn
B) horn
C) arête
D) fjord
Q2) Glaciers are now shrinking in more places and at more rapid rates than at any time since scientists began keeping records.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A glacier that forms in mountainous terrain is a/an __________ glacier.
A) alpine
B) continental
C) marine
D) erratic
Q4) Alpine glaciers occur:
A) on flatlands in continental interiors.
B) on mountains in Antarctica only.
C) only close to the equator at very high elevations.
D) near mountain tops (at high elevations) on all continents.
Q5) __________ is a lithified glacial deposit.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Deserts and Wind
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Q1) The largest loess deposits in the world are found in __________.
A) New York
B) the North American Great Plains
C) central China
D) the Atacama Desert in Peru
Q2) Desert pavement forms because:
A) playa lake beds bake rock-hard in the hot summer sun.
B) wind selectively removes sand and silt and leaves large particles behind.
C) caliche deposits cement desert soil.
D) clay is easily removed.
Q3) __________ __________ __________ form on the leeward sides of a mountain range.
Q4) Many of the world's deserts lie at 30° south and north latitude because:
A) falling air is compressed and becomes cooler, which enables it to hold more water vapor.
B) sinking air absorbs water, the ground surface is dry, and rainfall is infrequent.
C) rising air is heated and the moisture condenses.
D) rising air absorbs water, the ground surface is dry, and rainfall is infrequent.
Q5) __________ dunes are common in moist semiarid regions and along the seacoast.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Ocean Basins
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Q1) __________ __________ is a mixture of clay carried from continents and the remains of tiny plants and animals that live in the surface waters of the oceans.
Q2) Pillow basalt comprises most of layer 2 of oceanic crust.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Submarine canyons on continental shelves and slopes are cut by __________.
A) longshore currents
B) turbidity currents
C) deep-sea currents
D) sharks
Q4) The Mid-Oceanic Ridge rises high above the surrounding sea floor because new lithosphere forming at the ridge axis is __________ and of relatively __________ density.
A) hot, low
B) hot, high
C) cool, high
D) cool, low
Q5) A/an __________ __________ is a deep trough in the crest of many mid-ocean ridges.
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Chapter 16: Oceans and Coastlines
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Q1) The Sea of Cortez lies in a subtropical region between the Baja Peninsula and the west coast of Mexico. Most of the surrounding land is desert, and the one large river, the Colorado, empties only a small amount of water into the sea. In contrast, the Strait of Georgia lies off the temperate coast of British Columbia and is fed by melting glaciers and many streams. Which of the following comparisons of the salinities of these regions is correct?
A) The Sea of Cortez is saltier because freshwater input is low and evaporation is high.
B) The Strait of Georgia is saltier because cool temperatures promote salt crystallization.
C) The Strait of Georgia is saltier because the numerous rivers transport salt water into the sea.
D) Both regions have the same salinity because all of the oceans are interconnected and the salt is evenly dispersed.
Q2) Eustatic sea-level change occurs because of:
A) the growth or melting of glaciers.
B) changes in the volume of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
C) changes in water temperature.
D) all of the above
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Q1) An aerosol is any small piece of solid material that pollutes air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the __________ __________ __________ __________, about 2.4 billion years ago, oxygen concentration in the atmosphere increased to appreciable quantities.
Q3) The ozone in the upper atmosphere protects life on Earth by absorbing much of the high-energy radiation before it reaches Earth's surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A/an __________ is used to measure air pressure.
A) anemometer
B) thermometer
C) compass
D) barometer
Q5) The major legislation that dictates federal air pollution policy is the __________
Q6) __________ in the stratosphere absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
Q7) __________ are particles that are suspended in air.
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Chapter 18: Energy Balance in the Atmosphere
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Q1) On __________, every place on Earth receives 12 hours of sunlight and 12 hours of darkness.
A) the equinox
B) the solstice
C) the 4<sup>th</sup> of July
D) Thanksgiving Day
Q2) Frequency means __________ per __________.
A) number of wave cycles, meter
B) wavelength, meter
C) number of wave cycles, second
D) wavelength, minute
Q3) About __________ percent of the incoming solar radiation reaches Earth's surface.
A) 1
B) 95
C) 50
D) 10
Q4) __________ is a composite of weather patterns from season to season, averaged over many years.
Q5) __________ is the transport of heat by collisions between atoms and molecules.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Moisture, Clouds, and Weather
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Q1) Water becomes __________ when it has cooled below its freezing point but remains liquid.
Q2) When relative humidity reaches 100 percent, the air is:
A) saturated.
B) unsaturated.
C) extremely dry.
D) supersaturated.
Q3) Points of equal air pressure connected by weather map lines are called __________.
Q4) A/an __________ is a broad, circular storm with intense low pressure that forms over warm oceans.
A) tornado
B) tropical cyclone
C) surge
D) El Niño
Q5) El Niño is a weather pattern caused by:
A) increased upwelling at the west coast of South America.
B) the slackening of the trade winds in the Pacific Ocean.
C) orographic lifting.
D) frontal wedging.
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Chapter 20: Climate
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Q1) The fact that the center of Washington, D.C., is more than 3° warmer than outlying areas demonstrates the __________ __________ __________ effect.
Q2) The polar jet stream forms:
A) between the trade winds and the westerlies and is always at the same location.
B) between the trade winds and the westerlies and moves with the seasons.
C) along the polar front and is always at the same location.
D) along the polar front and moves with the seasons.
Q3) A tropical monsoon climate has less total precipitation and more monthly variation than a tropical savanna climate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The boundaries between the three convection cells in each hemisphere migrate with the seasons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ biome consists of conifers that can survive extremely cold winters.
Q6) The __________ biome is characteristic of Arctic and high alpine regions.
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Chapter 21: Climate Change
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Q1) Climate change does not follow linear relationships; instead, many __________ and __________ mechanisms are important
Q2) Greenhouse gases:
A) block infrared radiation and prevent heat from entering our atmosphere.
B) prevent infrared radiation.
C) reflect infrared radiation back into space.
D) absorb infrared radiation and trap heat in our atmosphere.
Q3) Rapid plate movement and sea-floor spreading cause global __________ because the Mid-Oceanic Ridge becomes __________.
A) sea-level fall, wider
B) sea-level fall, thinner
C) sea-level rise, wider
D) sea-level rise, thinner
Q4) Snow and ice have __________ albedos and __________ Earth by reflecting sunlight.
A) low, warm
B) low, cool
C) high, warm
D) high, cool
Q5) The Sun produces energy by __________ __________.
23
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Chapter 22: Motions in the Heavens
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Q1) An eclipse of the Moon occurs:
A) when the Moon lies directly between the Sun and Earth.
B) when the Earth's shadow is cast on the Moon.
C) when the Moon's shadow is cast on the Earth.
D) during the new moon.
Q2) Right after full moon, the Moon goes into the __________ phase.
A) waning crescent
B) waxing crescent
C) waning gibbous
D) waxing gibbous
Q3) Normally, the Moon lies out of the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Copernicus proposed the geocentric Universe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ first proposed the heliocentric Universe.
Q6) Aristotle proposed a __________ Universe.
Q7) In the __________, only a portion of the Sun is eclipsed.
Q8) As the Earth rotates on its axis, it wobbles in a motion called __________.
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Chapter 23: Planets and Their Moons
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Q1) The Sun never rises or sets on the poles of Mercury.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Asteroids may change their orbits frequently and erratically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Saturn would float on water if there were a basin large enough to hold it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Earth's atmosphere is thinner than that on Mars.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The chemical composition of Jupiter is most similar to that of __________.
A) the Sun.
B) the Earth.
C) the Moon.
D) Io.
Q6) Spacecraft have photographed volcanic eruptions on __________, one of Jupiter's moons.
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Q7) Venus is much hotter than Earth because of a runaway __________
Chapter 24: Stars, Space, and Galaxies
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Q1) A graph that plots absolute magnitudes versus temperatures is called a/an __________ diagram.
Q2) A quasar:
A) releases about as much energy as a normal galaxy even though it is much smaller.
B) releases approximately 100 times as much energy as a large star.
C) releases 10 to 100 times more energy than an entire galaxy.
D) is much smaller than our Sun.
Q3) The diameter of the Milky Way galaxy is about __________.
A) 100,000,000 kilometers
B) 10 light-years
C) 200,000 light-years
D) 10 billion light-years
Q4) Our Sun is __________ as a main-sequence star.
A) halfway through its mature phase
B) just starting its time
C) almost finished with its time
D) in the very young phase
Q5) The __________ __________ of a star is its brightness as seen 10 parsec away from Earth.
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