Introduction to Earth Science
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Earth Science offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental processes and systems that shape our planet. This course explores the four main spheres of Earth: the geosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere, and biosphere, examining how they interact to influence the environment and life on Earth. Topics include the structure of the Earth, plate tectonics, the rock and water cycles, weather and climate patterns, and natural hazards such as earthquakes and volcanoes. Through interactive discussions and hands-on activities, students gain an appreciation for the complexity and interconnectedness of Earth's systems, laying the foundation for further studies in geology, meteorology, oceanography, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Earth Science 1st Edition by Stephen Marshak
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Chapter 1: The Earth in Context
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Q1) Draw a cross-section of Earth showing its layers. Label the layers and list the average composition of the layers.
Answer: 11ea5217_bcc2_cd96_b9bb_337eb22ed2db_TB4836_00
Q2) Molten rock beneath Earth's surface is termed A)lava. B)magma.
C)volatiles
D)mantle.
Answer: B
Q3) The best estimate of when the universe formed is A)13.7 Ma.
B)13.8 Ga.
C) 4.57 Ma.
D) 4.57 Ga.
Answer: B
Q4) How is soil different from sediment?
Answer: Sediment is an accumulation of loose mineral grains. Sediments can evolve into soils by reacting with water, air, and life at the surface of the Earth.
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Chapter 2: The Way the Earth Works: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) The primary difference between lithospheric and asthenospheric mantle that gives rise to numerous different patterns of physical behavior is
A)physical state: the lithosphere is solid; the asthenosphere is liquid.
B)chemical composition: the lithosphere is mafic; the asthenosphere is felsic.
C)temperature: the lithosphere is cooler than the asthenosphere.
D)chemical composition: the lithosphere is felsic; the asthenosphere is mafic.
Answer: C
Q2) In the geologic past, the polarity of Earth's magnetic field is
A)unknown, but it is assumed to have been identical to today's.
B)known to have stayed constant through geologic time, as shown by remnant magnetization of iron-rich minerals in rocks.
C)known to have experienced numerous reversals, as shown by remnant magnetization of iron-rich minerals in rocks.
D)known to have stayed constant through time, based on theoretical calculations.
Answer: C
Q3) Are ocean floors uniformly flat? Explain why or why not.
Answer: The ocean floors are not uniformly flat. The ocean floor contains features including mid-ocean ridges, abyssal plains, and seamounts.
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Chapter 3: Patterns in Nature: Minerals
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way for minerals to crystallize?
A)solidification of a melt (lava or magma)
B)bonding carbon to oxygen atoms to form organic compounds
C)solid-state diffusion
D)Biomineralization
Answer: B
Q2) The __________ class of minerals contains the anion S .
A)oxides
B)halides
C)sulfides
D)sulfates
Answer: C
Q3) The diamonds typically seen in engagement rings today do not display their natural crystal faces but rather __________, which are made by grinding the gem on a spinning lap.
A)striations
B)facets
C)cleavage planes
D)facades
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Up From the Inferno: Magma and Igneous Rocks
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Q1) Rhyolite and granite are both felsic igneous rocks, although they have different cooling histories and, consequently, different textures. Explain the difference between the two rock types from a cooling perspective and be specific about which igneous texture can be applied to which rock.
Q2) The mantle is composed entirely of __________ .
A)felsic rock
B)ultramafic rock
C)mafic rock
D)intermediate rock
Q3) Which of the following processes is unlikely to result in magma formation within the Earth?
A)decompression (a drop in pressure)
B)addition of volatiles
C)transfer of heat from adjacent magma or very hot rocks
D)loss of volatiles to the atmosphere
Q4) What are the three main types of volcanoes? How is the shape of a volcano related to its eruptive style?
Q5) Compare and contrast a dike and a sill. How are they similar? How are they different?
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Chapter 5: A Surface Veneer: Sediments and Sedimentary
Rocks
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Q1) Shorelines migrate _________ during a transgression and _________ during a regression.
A)seaward; inland
B)inland; seaward
C)parallel to the shore; perpendicular to the shore
D)perpendicular to the shore; parallel to the shore
Q2) Which of the following does NOT reflect transport distance?
A)angularity
B)type of cement
C)rounding
D)mineral content
Q3) Which of the following processes involves the creation of ions in solution?
A)deposition
B)transportation
C)erosion
D)weathering
Q4) Limestone can be either a biochemical or a chemical sedimentary rock. Explain how both types of limestone are formed. Make sure to describe the environments in which they were formed.
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Q5) How are a marine transgression and regression different?
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Chapter 6: A Process of Change: Metamorphism and the Rock Cycle
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Q1) Metamorphism is specific to processes that occur in conditions between _________ and __________.
A)diagenesis; lithification
B)diagenesis; melting
C)magmatism; sedimentation
D)melting; pressure solution
Q2) Hornfels forms as a result of ____________ metamorphism.
A)dynamothermal
B)hydrothermal
C)dynamic
D)thermal
Q3) Clay minerals within a slate are changed into mica minerals as a result of the application of heat to a rock. This is an example of A)pressure solution.
B)recrystallization.
C)plastic deformation.
D)phase change.
Q4) Metamorphism includes a solid-state change in a rock caused by heat, pressure, and/or hydrothermal fluids. Explain what is meant by solid-state change.
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Chapter 7: Crags, Cracks, and Crumples: Crustal
Deformation and Mountain Building
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Q1) Metamorphic rocks found in cratons are exposed during orogenesis by A)faulting.
B)folding.
C)shields.
D)erosion.
Q2) Which of the following is the process whereby rocks from depth are exposed at the surface during mountain building?
A) subsidence
B) uplift
C)jointing
D)foliation
Q3) Regions of continents that have NOT been subjected to mountain-building events during the past 1 billion years are termed
A)exotic terranes.
B)accreted terranes.
C)cratons.
D)cratonic platforms.
Q4) What are joints? What might the presence of joints in a rock indicate?
Q6) What is the ultimate fate of all mountains on Earth? Page 9
Q5) How were the mountains in the Basin and Range Province formed?
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Chapter 8: A Violent Pulse: Earthquakes
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Q1) What kind of waves travel with a compressional motion?
A)Love waves
B)Rayleigh waves
C)P-waves
D)S-waves
Q2) How is the Mercalli intensity scale used to determine the magnitude of an earthquake? What errors might be associated with this technique?
Q3) Evidence of a past earthquake may be found by looking for offset beds or A)liquefaction.
B)sand volcanoes.
C)stress fractures.
D)foliation.
Q4) What phases of matter can a P-wave travel through? An S-wave? How has this helped us to have a better understanding of the layers of our Earth?
Q5) Which type of seismic wave has the fastest velocity?
A)L-wave
B)P-wave
C)R-wave
D)S-wave
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Chapter 9: Deep Time: How Old Is Old
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Q1) A layer of shale that contains a distinctive fossil could be used as a
A)geologic contact.
B)marker bed.
C)stratigraphic sequence
D)depositional contact.
Q2) Several geologic principles are used to determine __________ ages.
A)relative
B)numerical
C)absolute
D)isotopic
Q3) In the 1800s, Lord Kelvin estimated the age of Earth, utilizing a number of assumptions. Which wrong assumption was the primary reason why his estimate (approximately 20 million years) was so wildly inaccurate?
A)Earth was once hotter than it presently is today.
B)Earth may have been molten when first formed.
C)No new heat has been added to Earth since its initial formation.
D)Earth would lose heat over time through radiation into outer space.
Q4) Discuss what the numerical age represents when radiometrically dating a basalt, a gneiss, and a quartz sandstone.
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Chapter 10: A Biography of Earth
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Q1) The supercontinent Rodinia assembled during the __________ , and the supercontinent Pangaea assembled during the __________ .
A) Hadean Eon; Archean Eon
B) Archean Eon; Proterozoic Eon
C)Proterozoic Eon; Paleozoic Era
D)Paleozoic Era; Mesozoic Era
Q2) The late Proterozoic Grenville orogeny is an event related to A)uplift of the modern Rocky Mountains.
B)uplift of the ancestral Rocky Mountains.
C)assembly of the supercontinent Pangaea.
D)assembly of the supercontinent Rodinia.
Q3) Which of the following would be considered evidence for an orogeny?
A) folded strata
B) normal faulting
C)disconformities
D)continental rifting
Q4) How do gradual change and catastrophic change impact the Earth system? Provide an example of each.
Q5) How were mammals able to take over as the dominant class of organisms on Earth?
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Q6) Why have some researchers suggested the use of the term Anthropocene?
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Chapter 11: Riches in Rock: Energy and Mineral Resources
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when a neutron strikes a radioactive parent atom?
A)fusion
B)fission
C)enrichment
D)atomic splicing
Q2) Which of the following would make the best reservoir rock in a conventional hydrocarbon system?
A)poorly-cemented shale
B)hydrofractured shale
C)poorly-cemented sandstone
D)well-cemented sandstone
Q3) Most energy for human consumption in the industrial world comes from A)fossil fuels.
B)wind.
C)nuclear power.
D)water.
Q4) Explain how sources of energy for society have changed over time.
Q5) Describe how oil is formed. Make sure to address what organisms must accumulate, in what environment they must be deposited, and how the oil window effects the formation.
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Q1) For dry, fine-grained sediments, the angle of repose is typically between ___________ and ___________ degrees.
A)10; 17
B)15; 22
C)20; 27
D)30; 45
Q2) Which area would be most likely to host a slope failure?
A)the coast of Florida
B)a desert in central California
C)a desert in Arizona
D)the coast of southern California
Q3) The principal difference between a debris flow and a debris slide is
A)the shape of the path taken by the moving mass.
B)the grain size of the moving mass.
C)that a debris flow contains abundant water, whereas a debris slide is dry.
D)that a debris flow contains pyroclastic debris from a volcanic eruption.
Q4) What is a landform and how is it linked to the landscape?
Q5) Describe the similarities and differences between a debris flow and a debris slide.
Q6) How can water play a role in slope stability and slope failure?
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Chapter 13: Freshwater: Streams, Lakes, and Groundwater
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Q1) If a large airport, complete with paved runways, parking lots, and many new structures, is built next to a river, what might the effect be?
A)The fish population will decrease.
B)The nutrient supply for fish will be diminished.
C)There will be an increased likelihood of flooding.
D) Overuse of water will dry out the river.
Q2) Pumping vast quantities of water locally
A)raises the local water table.
B)lowers the local water table, forming a cone-shaped depression.
C)lowers the local water table, forming a cylindrical depression.
D)does not affect the water table.
Q3) Extra sediment can be released into rivers by ____________ , whereas ___________ cause(s) a decrease in the sediment supply downriver.
A)dams; urbanization
B)farms; urbanization
C)dams; farms
D)farms; dams
Q4) Explain how caves are formed, making sure to include the name of the acid involved and how it forms.
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Chapter 14: Extreme Realms: Desert and Glacial Landscapes
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Q1) Most of the erosion in desert environments is caused by A)wind.
B)surface water.
C)groundwater.
D)salt wedging.
Q2) Why do deserts form in polar regions?
A)Increased albedo prevents evaporation.
B)There is no vegetation to release CO2.
C)There are no sources of water to evaporate.
D)Cold air does not hold much moisture.
Q3) What type of deserts form on the leeward (dry) side of mountain ranges?
A)tropical
B)rain-shadow
C)coastal
D)subtropical
Q4) Sea level __________ during glaciation and __________ during interglaciation.
A)decreases; increases
B)increases; decreases
C)remains constant; decreases D)decreases; remains constant
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Chapter 15: Ocean Waters: the Blue of the Blue Marble
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Q1) By the beginning of the 17th century, ocean voyages had helped map the basic layout of the A)orogeny.
B)bathymetry.
C)topography
D)shorelines.
Q2) The sea surface salinity is __________ at the mouth of the Amazon River and _________ in the Great Salt Lake, Utah.
A)low; low
B)high; low
C)low; high
D)high; high
Q3) Which of the following accounts for the largest amount of biomass in our oceans?
A)plankton
B)nekton
C)dinoflagellates
D)mammals
Q4) What is thermohaline circulation and how does it work?
Q5) Outline the impacts of our ocean dead zones, and discuss where they are forming.
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Q6) Define the flow of the Ekman transport and explain its process.
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Chapter 16: Marine Geology: the Study of Ocean Basins and Coasts
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Q1) The width of the intertidal zone depends on the tidal A)reach.
B)bore.
C)reach and the slope of the seafloor surface.
D)bore and the slope of the seafloor surface.
Q2) Compare and contrast an active continental margin and a passive continental margin.
Q3) A coral reef would MOST likely be found
A)in an expansive, warm-water tropical tidal flat.
B)in clear, shallow waters at high latitudes.
C)in the shallow waters surrounding a volcanic tropical island. D)along the coasts of active margins.
Q4) Building a dam across a river can lead to __________ because sediment becomes trapped behind the dam.
A)pollution
B)beach nourishment
C)reef bleaching
D)beach erosion
Q5) What are estuaries and how do they form?
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Q6) How is an erosional coast different from an accretionary coast?
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Chapter 17: The Air We Breathe: Introducing Earths
Atmosphere
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Q1) A phase change happens when water in one state converts to another. When a __________ changes into a __________, the phase change is called
A)solid; liquid; melting
B)solid, liquid; sublimation
C)liquid; solid; evaporation
D)solid; gas; deposition
Q2) To best convey a sense of how damp the air can feel relative to humans, meteorologists characterize the air's moisture content by specifying its A)saturation vapor pressure.
B)elevation.
C)relative humidity.
D)Meteorologists don't yet have a way to convey how damp the air feels to humans.
Q3) List the three laws that govern the behavior of blackbody radiation.
Q4) Hypothesize why someone would feel hotter on a steamy, humid day in Mississippi than on a hot, bone-dry day in the Mojave Desert.
Q5) Define the word mirage. What are the similarities and differences between an inferior mirage and a superior mirage?
Page 21
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Chapter 18: Winds of the World: the Earths Major Weather Systems
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Q1) Which type of storm is most likely found along the comma head of the mid-latitude cyclone?
A)hail
B)snow
C)typhoon
D)dry front
Q2) A ______________ is any seasonal change in air circulation.
A)hurricane
B)monsoon
C)typhoon
D)jet stream
Q3) The weakest winds in a hurricane can be found in the A)spiraling winds.
B)rainbands.
C)eye wall.
D)eye.
Q4) What are at least three fundamental differences between tropical and mid-latitude cyclones?
Q6) What are the causes of the formation of a monsoon? Page 22
Q5) Describe the four important properties of the Coriolis force.
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Chapter 19: Thunderstorms, Tornadoes, and Local Weather Systems
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Q1) Tornadoes are most likely to form
A)in mountainous regions.
B)in flat regions.
C)in coastal regions.
D)over the ocean.
Q2) Squall-line thunderstorms are most likely to be accompanied by A)tornados.
B)straight-line winds.
C)tremendous amounts of rain.
D)supercell thunderstorms.
Q3) Which of the following best describes what is implied when a tornado watch is issued?
A)Weather conditions favor tornado formation.
B)A tornado has been visually spotted by an observer.
C)A tornado has been detected on the radar.
D)A tornado is actively posing a local hazard.
Q4) What is adiabatic expansion? What determines whether or not this will result in thunderstorm formation?
Q6) Compare and contrast stable and unstable atmospheric conditions. Page 24
Q5) What is implied by a tornado watch? How is this different from a warning?
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Chapter 20: Climate and Climate Change
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely outcome of global climate change?
A)falling sea levels
B)more heat waves
C)changed precipitation patterns
D)glacial retreat
Q2) The angle of incidence, the angle between incoming beams of sunlight and the Earth's surface, varies with A)distance from the sun.
B)abundance of carbon dioxide.
C)latitude.
D)longitude.
Q3) The degree of reflectivity of a surface is also known as its A)reflective index.
B)refractive index.
C)paradox.
D)albedo.
Q4) Provide an example of a positive feedback process as it relates to global climate change.
Q5) Discuss three lines of evidence that global climate change is currently taking place.
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Chapter 21: Our Solar System and Beyond
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Q1) An image produced by a spectroscope will
A)not show any light from a celestial object.
B)show the light from a celestial object does not contain all possible wavelengths, but rather displays distinct spectral lines, which are bright or dark bands at specific wavelengths.
C)show that the light from a celestial object contains all possible wavelengths.
D)show the chemical composition from a celestial object and several spectral lines, which are bright or dark bands at multiple wavelengths.
Q2) Planets will sometimes follow a loop that takes the path of the planet a short distance backward from west to east across the sky relative to the stars. This movement is called _________ motion.
A)prograde
B)retrograde
C)ecliptic
D)orbital
Q3) Why do cell phones and weather radar systems transmit signals in the radio and microwave regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, rather than the infrared or ultraviolet regions?
Q4) What is a simple, everyday example of the Doppler effect?
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Chapter 22: Our Neighborhood in Space
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Q1) Planets beyond our solar system
A)do not exist.
B)are thought to exist but have not yet been discovered. C)are called exoplanets.
D)are called planetsimals.
Q2) Olympus Mons, the largest volcano in the solar system, is found on A)Earth. B)Mars.
C)Jupiter.
D)Venus.
Q3) A(n) ___________ is a streak of light and an atmospheric phenomenon, also known as a shooting star.
A)comet
B)asteroid
C)meteor
D)meteorite
Q4) Contrast meteoroids, meteors, and meteorites.
Q5) What is a moon? Do all planets have moons?
Q6) What are the ice giants? How do they differ from the gas giants?
Q7) Is or was there water on Mars? How do we know?
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Chapter 23: The Sun, Stars, and Deep Space
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Q1) Astronomers can distinguish galaxy types based on A)shape and size.
B)shape and the nature of the energy they emit.
C)shape and absorption spectrum.
D)temperature and the nature of the energy they absorb.
Q2) Our Sun currently falls on the main sequence of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram. When it ends its life as a visible star, our Sun will become a A)red giant.
B)black hole.
C)supergiant.
D)black dwarf.
Q3) When a bright eruption of plasma shoots out of the Sun's surface, it releases a huge number of particles as well as energy in the form of x-rays and UV rays. This explosion of energy at the Sun's surface is called a A)sunspot.
B)solar cycle.
C)solar flare.
D)solar prominence.
Q4) How does energy move through the Sun's layers?
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Chapter 24: Prelude: Welcome to Earth Science
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Q1) The movement of materials among different components of a given realm, or among different realms, over time is known as a(n)
A)cycle.
B)system.
C)method.
D)hypothesis.
Q2) How might Earth Science help you decide where to live?
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to whether we can continue to maintain or improve our standard of living without running out of natural resources?
A)renewability
B)sustainability
C)nonrenewability
D)anthropocene
Q4) What is the systematic study of natural phenomena based on observation, experimentation, and calculation?
A)philosophy
B)astrology
C)calculus
D)science
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