Introduction to Disease Processes Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Disease Processes provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental mechanisms underlying human diseases. The course explores the causes, development, and effects of various pathological conditions, emphasizing the cellular and molecular changes that disrupt normal body function. Students will learn about inflammation, infection, genetic disorders, neoplasia, and immune system dysfunction, as well as the role of environmental and lifestyle factors in disease development. Through case studies and foundational theory, the course equips students with the critical knowledge necessary to understand how diseases originate and progress, serving as a basis for further study in health sciences and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by Kathryn
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L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is "osmolality" preferred over "osmolarity" as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals?
A)Because plasma contains sodium and chloride, which influence the volume of solution
B)Because the volume affects perfusion more than the weight of solutes
C)Because more of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes, such as protein and glucose, rather than by water
D)Because osmotic activity depends on the concentration of solutes present in plasma, such as proteins and glucose
Answer: C
Q2) What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
A)Lipids
B)Proteolytic cascade
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Q1) How do free radicals cause cell damage?
A)By stealing the cell's oxygen to stabilize the electron, thus causing hypoxia
B)By stimulating the release of lysosomal enzymes that digest the cell membranes
C)By transferring one of its charged, stabilized atoms to the cell membrane causing lysis
D)By giving up an electron, causing injury to the chemical bonds of the cell membrane
Answer: D
Q2) In hypoxic injury, why does sodium enter the cell and cause swelling?
A)Because the cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia
B)Because there is insufficient ATP to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell
C)Because the lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium within the cell
D)Because sodium cannot be transported in the cytosol to the cell membrane during hypoxia
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?
A)By an increase in the antidiuretic hormone secreted into the plasma
B)By an increase in aldosterone secreted into the plasma
C)By an increase in the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma
D)By an increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma
Answer: D
Q2) Retention of sodium and water is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
A)Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
C)Capillary oncotic pressure
D)Interstitial oncotic pressure
Answer: A
Q3) Which are causes of hypocalcemia?
A)Repeated blood administration or pancreatitis
B)Kidney stones and immobility
C)Decreased resorption of calcium and phosphate from bone
D)Hyperparathyroidism and bone metastasis
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most cases of recessive disease, both parents of affected individuals are heterozygous carriers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A zygote has one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene
A)Down syndrome
B)Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)Cri du chat
Q3) Consanguinity refers to the mating of:
A)two unrelated individuals.
B)persons when one has an autosomal dominant disorder.
C)persons having common family relations.
D)persons when one has a chromosomal abnormality.
Q4) DNA directs the synthesis of all of the body's proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Q1) The _____ risk of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population.
A)attributable
B)contingency
C)causal
D)relative
Q2) Traits caused by the combined effects of multiple genes
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenic
F)Empiric risk
G)Relative risk
Q3) The body weight of adopted children correlates significantly with the body weights of their adopted parents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Q1) A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response?
A)Epithelialization
B)Contraction
C)Collagen matrix assembly
D)Maturation
Q2) Which cytokines are produced and released from virally infected host cells?
A)IL-1
B)IL-10
C)TNF-
D)IFN- and IFN-
Q3) One purpose of the inflammatory process is to:
A)provide specific responses toward antigens.
B)lyse cell membranes of microorganisms.
C)prevent infection of the injured tissue.
D)create immunity against subsequent tissue injury.
Q4) A role of NK cells is to:
A)initiate the complement cascade.
B)eliminate malignant cells.
C)bind tightly to antigens.
D)proliferate after immunization with antigen.
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function?
A)Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens
B)Decreased number of circulating T cells
C)Decreased production of autoantibodies
D)Increased production of helper T cells
Q2) What are characteristics of Th1 cells?
A)They are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
B)They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
C)They produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13.
D)They assist in the development of humoral immunity.
Q3) Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated, but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person?
A)Poliomyelitis
B)Measles
C)Tetanus
D)Gonorrhea
Q4) Crosses the placenta
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Q1) In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?
A)Bruton disease
B)DiGeorge syndrome
C)Reticular dysgenesis
D)Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Q2) When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, _____ disease is a result.
A)allergic
B)alloimmune
C)fetal immune
D)autoimmune
Q3) What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?
A)Hemolytic anemia
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D)Myasthenia gravis
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10
Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first stage in the infectious process?
A)Invasion
B)Colonization
C)Spread
D)Multiplication
Q2) One person with HIV cannot transmit the virus to others until HIV antibodies are detected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vaccines against viruses are made from:
A)killed organisms or extracts of antigens.
B)live organisms weakened to produce antigens, which limits controllable infection.
C)purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified without loss of immunogenicity.
D)recombinant pathogenic protein.
Q4) Immunoglobulins are important in controlling fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Q1) During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by:
A)norepinephrine.
B)epinephrine.
C)cortisol.
D)ACTH.
Q2) Increases gastric secretions
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q3) During a stress response, which hormone decreases lymphocytes, eosinophils, and macrophages and prostaglandin?
A)ACTH
B)Cortisol
C)Prolactin
D)Growth hormone
Q4) Stress and negative emotions have not been associated with the production of increased levels of proinflammatory cytokines.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
A)By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
B)By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations
C)By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
D)By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
Q2) Chemotherapy
A)Cancer cell growth
B)Used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Agents that take advantage of specific vulnerabilities in target cancer cells
E)Provides a framework to determine treatment
Q3) What are tumor cell markers?
A)Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells
B)Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
C)Cytokines produced against cancer cells
D)Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Q1) An increased number of sexual partners have been shown to be related to the incidence of cervical cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important risk factors associated with the development of skin melanoma include:
A)light-colored hair.
B)blue eyes.
C)fair skin.
D)freckles.
E)history of acne.
Q3) Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
A)Alcohol
B)Steroids
C)Antihistamines
D)Antidepressants
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A)epithelium.
B)mesodermal germ layer.
C)embryologic ectodermal layer.
D)viscera.
Q2) What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A)40%
B)50%
C)60%
D)70%
Q3) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A)Down syndrome
B)Wilms tumor
C)Retinoblastoma
D)Neuroblastoma
Q4) Mutations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes have been identified with pediatric lymphoma and leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Q1) The blood-brain barrier is composed of the three meninges covering the brain cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parasympathetic nervous system functions to conserve and restore energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Receives sensory input from the body
A)Frontal lobe
B)Parietal lobe
C)Temporal lobe
D)Occipital lobe
Q4) The brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output.
A)80
B)40
C)20
D)10
Q5) Chemical synapses between neurons can send messages in both directions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During heat stroke, sweat production on the face is maintained even during dehydration, to cool blood in the cerebral arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where in the central nervous system does pain perception occur?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Frontal lobe
C)Thalamus
D)Limbic system
Q3) All endorphins act by attaching to opiate receptors on the plasma membranes of afferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nociceptors are at the ends of the large myelinated efferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Early treatment of fever is important because fever has no therapeutic benefit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Q1) Which of the following is the most critical index of nervous system dysfunction?
A)Size and reactivity of pupils
B)Pattern of breathing
C)Motor response
D)Level of consciousness
Q2) Cognitive operations cannot occur without the _____ functioning.
A)pons
B)medulla oblongata
C)reticular activating system
D)cingulate gyrus
Q3) The existence of regular, deep, and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to the:
A)lower midbrain.
B)pontine area.
C)supratentorial.
D)cerebral area.
Q4) In 66% of cases, the etiology of epilepsy is not identified.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Q1) A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield.A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.
A)frontal
B)temporal
C)parietal
D)occipital
Q2) About half of all people with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) have neurologic complications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What complication is occurring for a person who has a spinal cord injury above T6 and is experiencing paroxysmal hypertension as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
A)Craniosacral dysreflexia
B)Parasympathetic dysreflexia
C)Autonomic hyperreflexia
D)Healing of the spinal cord lesion
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A)Blunted affect
B)Auditory hallucinations
C)Poverty of speech
D)Lack of social interaction
Q2) What is a notable complication in panic disorder?
A)Avolition
B)Anhedonia
C)Alogia
D)Agoraphobia
Q3) Intensive autonomic arousal including lightheadedness, dyspnea, generalized sweating, and racing heart
A)Schizophrenia
B)Mania
C)Depression
D)Panic disorder
E)Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q4) Mania is the most common mood disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Q1) Children with Tay-Sachs disease usually die between ages 2 and 5 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The occurrence of Reye syndrome has decreased as public awareness of the association between the ingestion of aspirin during illness and the subsequent development of Reye syndrome has increased.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the: A)brain and skull.
B)spinal cord.
C)vertebrae.
D)peripheral nerves.
Q4) Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical in the prevention of: A)infection.
B)paternal abandonment.
C)mental retardation.
D)additional nervous system damage.
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result.This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
A)pharmacologic
B)permissive
C)synergistic
D)direct
Q2) The thyroid gland produces 90% T and 10% T , but T has the greater metabolic effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?
A)Thyroxine (T4)
B)Aldosterone
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)Insulin
Q4) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Giantism only occurs in children and adolescents because their:
A)growth hormones are still diminished.
B)epiphyseal plates have not yet closed.
C)skeletal muscles are not yet fully developed.
D)metabolic rates are higher than in adulthood.
Q3) Post-thyroidectomy, a person develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm.The most likely cause of these findings is:
A)calcium deficit due to reduced parathyroid hormone (PTH).
B)overuse of radioactive iodine given preoperatively.
C)a history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine.
D)an increase in serum phosphorus caused by reduced calcitonin.
Q4) Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
A)high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins.
B)high levels of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).
C)diminished levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
D)diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Q1) The equivalent to the ovaries in women is the _____ in men.
A)epididymis
B)spermatic cord
C)vas deferens
D)testes
Q2) Production of sperm begins during fetal life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which hormone is linked to obesity and early puberty?
A)Inhibin
B)Leptin
C)Activin
D)Follistatin
Q4) The function of Bartholin glands is to secrete mucus in order to:
A)lubricate inner labial surfaces and enhance motility of sperm.
B)lubricate the urinary meatus and vestibule.
C)maintain the acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria.
D)lubricate the cervix and enhance movement of the penis during intercourse.
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are a result of:
A)infection of the prostate.
B)obstruction of the urethra.
C)ischemia of the urethra.
D)compression of the urethra.
Q2) The most common cause of cycle irregularities is a result of:
A)disorders within the endometrium.
B)obstruction of the fallopian tubes.
C)pregnancy.
D)failure to ovulate.
Q3) Prostate cancer
A)Seen with HPV infection
B)Advanced at the time of diagnosis
C)Most curable cancer
D)Vasectomy increases risk
Q4) Which cancer is a germ cell tumor arising from the male gamete?
A)Penile
B)Testicular
C)Prostate
D)Epididymal
25
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) There have been no recent sexually transmitted disease epidemics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common local complication of a gonococcal infection in females is:
A)acute salpingitis.
B)cystitis.
C)vaginitis.
D)cervicitis.
Q3) A major concern in the treatment of gonococci infections is:
A)development of antibiotic resistance.
B)changes in virulence.
C)changes in pathogenicity.
D)mutations into different strains.
Q4) The most common clinical manifestations of chlamydial infections in newborns are conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Trichomoniasis is caused by a parasite.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Polycythemia at birth may indicate:
A)hypoxia in utero.
B)dysfunctional bone marrow.
C)congenitally absent spleen.
D)dehydration in utero.
Q2) Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by:
A)transferrin.
B)hemosiderin.
C)apoferritin.
D)erythropoietin.
Q3) The role of nitric oxide (NO) in hemostasis is to:
A)stimulate the release of fibrinogen to maintain the platelet plug.
B)stimulate the release of clotting factors V and VII.
C)cause vasoconstriction and stimulate platelet aggregation.
D)cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet adhesion and aggregation.
Q4) Erythrocytes:
A)contain a nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes.
B)synthesize proteins.
C)change shape to squeeze through microcirculation.
D)are stimulated by erythrocyte colony-stimulating factor (E-CSF).
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) Pernicious anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q2) The paresthesia that occurs in vitamin B deficiency anemia is a result of a(n):
A)reduction in acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic nerves.
B)myelin degeneration in the spinal cord.
C)destruction of myelin in peripheral nerves.
D)altered function of neurons in the parietal lobe.
Q3) The major physiologic manifestation of anemia is:
A)hypotension.
B)hyperesthesia.
C)hypoxia.
D)ischemia.
Q4) Which statement about folic acid is false?
A)Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
B)Folic acid is stored in the liver.
C)Folic acid is essential for RNA and DNA synthesis within erythrocytes.
D)Folic acid is absorbed in the upper small intestine.
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Philadelphia chromosome is present in lymph nodes of an individual with Hodgkin disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In DIC, what are indications of microvascular thrombosis?
A)Reduced amplitude in peripheral pulses
B)Symmetric cyanosis of fingers and toes
C)Numbness and tingling in fingers and toes
D)Pallor and edema of fingers and toes bilaterally
Q3) Acute idiopathic thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
A)Thrombi composed of platelets with minimal fibrin and erythrocytes that occlude arterioles and capillaries
B)Causes ischemic signs and symptoms in the central nervous system
C)Caused by an alteration of multipotent stem cells, resulting in an excess production of platelets
D)Antibody-coated platelets removed from circulation by mononuclear phagocytes in the spleen
Q4) In the leukemias, a single progenitor cell undergoes malignant transformation.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Q1) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is inherited as an _____ disorder.
A)X-linked dominant
B)X-linked recessive
C)autosomal dominant
D)autosomal recessive
Q2) HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caused by clotting factor VIII deficiency and an X-linked recessive trait
A)Hemophilia A
B)Hemophilia B
C)Hemophilia C
D)von Willebrand disease
Q4) Characteristics of beta-thalassemia major include:
A)a heterozygous form of thalassemia.
B)a defect in the uncoupling of - and -chain synthesis.
C)a fatal condition in which all four beta-forming genes are defective.
D)the development of Hb H when three genes are defective.
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) During the cardiac cycle, the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles contract because the:
A)papillary muscles relax, which allows the valves to close.
B)chordae tendineae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
C)reduced pressure in the ventricles creates a negative pressure, which pulls the valves closed.
D)blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves.
Q2) The _____ complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations.
A)PRS
B)QRS
C)QT interval
D)P
Q3) What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
A)Arterial stiffening
B)Decreased left ventricular wall tension
C)Decreased aortic wall thickness
D)Arteriosclerosis
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32193
Sample Questions
Q1) Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
A)The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF- ), interferon-gamma (IFN- ), and interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B)The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
C)The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
D)The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon-beta (IFN- ), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32194
Sample Questions
Q1) Common clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure in infants include unexplained weight gain and periorbital edema.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?
A)One month before birth
B)During the beginning stage of labor
C)One hour after birth
D)Once the placenta is removed from circulation
Q3) Fetal heart contractions begin by approximately the twenty-eighth day of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kawasaki disease is a self-limiting systemic vasculitis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diagnosis of primary hypertension in children is difficult because the early stages are often asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32195
Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilation exceeds perfusion in the bases of the lungs, whereas perfusion exceeds ventilation in the apices of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pressure in the pleural space is:
A)atmospheric.
B)below atmospheric.
C)above atmospheric.
D)variable.
Q3) Initiates cough reflex
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
Q4) The lungs contain only superficial lymphatic capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchiolitis
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Lung tissue collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q2) Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of:
A)chronic bronchitis.
B)emphysema.
C)pneumonia.
D)asthma.
Q3) Which bacteria become embedded in the airway secretions in chronic bronchitis?
A)Legionella pneumophila and Chlamydia pneumoniae
B)Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pneumocystis jiroveci
C)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Pneumoconiosis is a pneumonia caused by pneumococci.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chest wall compliance in infants is __________ in adults.
A)lower than
B)higher than
C)the same as
D)unlike that
Q2) Which T lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
A)CD4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
B)CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
C)CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D)Memory T lymphocytes
Q3) Pharyngeal problems
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or central wheeze
E)Expiratory wheezes
Q4) Paradoxical breathing is an ominous sign in premature infants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32198
Sample Questions
Q1) How high does the serum glucose have to be for the threshold for glucose to be achieved?
A)126 mg/dl
B)150 mg/dl
C)180 mg/dl
D)200 mg/dl
Q2) Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:
A)vagus nerve.
B)sympathetic nervous system.
C)somatic nervous system.
D)parasympathetic nervous system.
Q3) Renal blood vessels are innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The action of urodilatin is that it:
A)causes vasodilation of afferent arterioles.
B)causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
C)inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion.
D)inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection in an 85 year old may include:
A)confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort.
B)dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain.
C)hematuria and flank pain.
D)pyuria, urgency, and frequency.
Q2) Hypovolemia
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
Q3) Prostatic hypertrophy
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
Q4) A neurogenic bladder is a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smoky, brown-colored urine in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is a result of the:
A)presence of red blood cells.
B)presence of urobilinogen.
C)slough from the collecting tubules.
D)protein that is in the urine.
Q2) The adult takes in and excretes 2000 ml/day (representing approximately 5% of the total body fluid), whereas the infant takes in and excretes 700 ml/day (representing ____% of the total body fluid).
A)10
B)90
C)190
D)290
Q3) Urine formation and excretion do not begin until the eighth month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number of nephrons in the kidneys increases from birth until puberty.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chief cells of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen, which breaks down carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the characteristics of vitamin B ?
A)Normally the liver can store vitamin B for years.
B)Vitamin B attaches to the carrier protein transcobalamin and is transported into tissue.
C)Vitamin B is necessary for platelet maturation.
D)Vitamin B binds to intrinsic factor and is absorbed in the terminal ileum.
Q3) Hydrolase cleaves fatty acids from phospholipids and phospholipase breaks cholesterol esters into fatty acids and cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Food enters the stomach via the _____ orifice.
A)cardiac
B)esophageal
C)gastric
D)fundal
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alterations in immunoglobulin G production have been found in individuals with this disorder.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q2) Frank bleeding of the rectum is called:
A)melena.
B)hematochezia.
C)occult bleeding.
D)hematemesis.
Q3) Hepatitis A is transmitted through infected blood and other body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic alkalosis by causing the:
A)gain of bicarbonate from pancreatic secretions that cannot be absorbed.
B)excessive loss of hydrogen ions normally absorbed from gastric juice.
C)excessive loss of potassium promoting atony of the intestinal wall.
D)loss of bile acid secretions that cannot be absorbed.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most cases, cleft lip and cleft palate are caused by multiple factors-genetic and environmental-including maternal use of alcohol and tobacco.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?
A)Wilson disease
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)
D)Galactosemia
Q3) Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.
A)cecum
B)ileus
C)obstruction
D)vivax
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42
Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A functional muscle contraction in which the muscle contracts but the limb does not move is referred to as being:
A)isotonic.
B)isometric.
C)eccentric.
D)concentric.
Q2) In adults, hematopoiesis takes place exclusively in the long bones of the extremities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Articular cartilage has no blood vessels, lymph vessels, or nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which bone cells are responsive to parathyroid hormone, produce osteocalcin when stimulated by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, and synthesize osteoid?
A)Osteoclasts
B)Osteocytes
C)Fibrocytes
D)Osteoblasts
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) include:
A)collection of crystals in subcutaneous tissue of extremities.
B)fatigue, fever, and weakness.
C)pain in one or more weight-bearing joints.
D)edema of the wrists and distal joints of the fingers.
Q2) Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is due to:
A)formation of immune complexes at the site of infection.
B)localized ischemia.
C)TNF-a and IL-1.
D)impaired nerve innervation at the site of infection.
Q3) Bone is unique among body tissue because after a fracture that destroys bone, a new bone is formed, but there is no scar tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People with gout are at high risk for:
A)renal calculi.
B)joint trauma.
C)anemia.
D)hearing loss.
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common skeletal defect of the upper extremity is: A)vestigial tabs.
B)Paget disease.
C)rickets. D)syndactyly.
Q2) An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children. A)C
B)B<sub>12</sub>
C)B<sub>6</sub>
D)D
Q3) The most common malignant bone tumor during childhood is: A)chondrosarcoma. B)fibrosarcoma.
C)Ewing sarcoma. D)osteosarcoma.
Q4) The appendicular skeleton grows faster than the axial skeleton during childhood. A)True B)False
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin originating from keratinocytes, the cells of the skin that synthesize the pigment melanin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.
A)elastin
B)collagen
C)stroma
D)reticular fibers
Q3) Which of the following medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis?
A)Antibiotics
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D)Antilipidemics
Q4) Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin condition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrush may be defined as:
A)the presence of Candida in the mucous membranes of the mouths of infants.
B)the presence of bacteria in the nasal mucous membranes of infants.
C)any viral infection of the mucous membranes of the mouths of infants.
D)an acute immune response to oral medication, located in the mucosal lining of the mouths of infants.
Q2) Which contagious disease has clinical manifestations of burrows several millimeters to 1 cm long, papules, and vesicular lesions with severe itching that worsens at night?
A)Pediculosis
B)Tinea capitis
C)Scabies
D)Rubeola
Q3) Koplik spots are characteristic of rubella.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Impetigo is a common viral skin infection in infants and children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most reliable criterion of adequate fluid resuscitation following a major burn injury is:
A)blood pressure.
B)pulse rate.
C)respiratory rate.
D)urine output.
Q2) The fluid most often used in fluid resuscitation following a major burn injury is:
A)saline.
B)albumin.
C)lactated Ringer.
D)dextrose in water.
Q3) The clinical manifestations of failure of individual organs in MODS are caused only by inflammatory mediator damage, tissue hypoxia, and hypermetabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When proteins are broken down anaerobically, ammonia and urea are produced. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shock is present in children when there are signs of poor systemic perfusion with normal, low, or high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses, fungi, or rickettsial microorganisms cause about 40% of nosocomial infections in children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caused by hot grease
A)Scald burns
B)Contact burns
C)Flame burns
D)Electrical burns
E)Chemical burns
Q4) Hypotension is a late sign of shock in children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Scar tissue is metabolically inactive and avascular.
A)True
B)False
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