Introduction to Dietetics Solved Exam Questions
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Dietetics provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices of dietetics as a profession. The course explores the science of nutrition, food service systems, and the social, cultural, and behavioral factors that influence dietary choices. Students will learn about the roles and responsibilities of registered dietitians in healthcare, community, and food industry settings, gain insight into current nutritional guidelines, and examine ethical and legal considerations in the field. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, effective communication, and the promotion of healthy eating across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a protein-rich food?
A) green beans
B) almonds
C) bread
D) banana
E) spinach
Answer: B
Q2) One of the first nutrition surveys, taken before World War II, suggested _____.
A) at least 90% of the population had adequate nutritional intakes
B) 75% of the population needed to change their eating habits
C) less than 5% of the population were eating appropriately
D) up to one-third of the population might be eating poorly
E) one in two pregnant women did not have adequate nutritional intakes
Answer: D
Q3) The Nutrition Facts panel on a package of prunes indicates that the product contains 12% of the Daily Value for dietary fiber; therefore, this product can legally make the claim that it is a good source of fiber.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Refer to the "Ice Cream" box above. How many alternative sweeteners are contained in this product?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Q2) Fructose occurs naturally in _____.
A) bread
B) milk
C) meats
D) fruits
E) fiber
Answer: D
Q3) Carbohydrate-rich foods are equal in the degree to which they elevate both blood glucose and insulin concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the current dietary guidelines regarding fat intake?
A) Total fat intake can exceed 35% of kcalories.
B) Saturated fats should contribute more than 10% of kcalories.
C) The upper limit of daily cholesterol consumption is100 milligrams.
D) The upper limit of daily cholesterol consumption is 300 milligrams.
E) Polyunsaturated fats should provide at least 10% of kcalories.
Answer: D
Q2) It is possible to consume too little fat.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which food is not a source of omega-3 fatty acids?
A) human milk
B) walnuts
C) oysters
D) poultry fat
E) clams
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins that travel to target cells and act as chemical messengers are known as
A) collagens
B) hormones
C) opsins
D) antigens
E) enzymes
Q2) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q3) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
Q4) The protein RDA for adults is ____ grams per kilogram of body weight.
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.8
D) 1.0
E) 1.2
Q5) Under special circumstances, a nonessential amino acid can become essential.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
Q7) How is the protein RDA calculated?
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) After digestion, lipids are packaged for transport as lipoproteins known as ____.
A) HDL
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) chylomicrons
E) triglycerides
Q2) Two organs that secrete digestive juices into the small intestine are the ____ and the ____.
A) gallbladder; pancreas
B) pancreas; liver
C) gallbladder; liver
D) duodenum; pancreas
E) appendix; prostate
Q3) Which nutrient takes the longest to digest?
A) fat
B) sugar
C) vitamin C
D) iron
E) magnesium
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Q1) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.
Q2) In the first few days of fasting, body protein is used primarily to _____.
A) rebuild tissue
B) replace worn out cells
C) provide glucose
D) stabilize fluid balance
E) provide glycerol
Q3) Which criterion is not required for a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?
A) refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimal normal weight for age and height
B) intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight
C) undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation
D) recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain
E) distorted body image that overestimates body fatness
Q4) People can change their voluntary actions to spend more or less energy in a day, but they cannot change their basal metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average U.S. diet delivers an estimated _____ kcalories a day from sweetened beverages.
A) 50-75
B) 75-150
C) 160-185
D) 190-225
E) 230-250
Q2) Jill has asked to be placed on a weight-loss diet that will allow her to lose two pounds per week. You tell Jill that she must cut about _____ kcalories/day in order to achieve this goal.
A) 500
B) 700
C) 1000
D) 1500
E) 2000
Q3) On a sensible weight-control program, meals and snacks should include whole-grain foods and fiber-rich vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first signs of vitamin C deficiency appear in the _____.
A) blood vessels
B) bones
C) hair
D) fingernails
E) irises
Q2) The fact that one microgram of retinol and 12 micrograms of dietary beta-carotene are both equal to one retinol activity equivalent indicates that _____.
A) retinol has greater activity than beta-carotene
B) beta-carotene is not a significant dietary source of vitamin A
C) toxicity is more likely to occur with beta-carotene than retinol
D) beta-carotene is absorbed and converted less efficiently than retinoids
E) most individuals would benefit from retinol supplements
Q3) The main function of vitamin D in bone growth is to _____.
A) synthesize 7-dehydrocholesterol
B) assist in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus
C) mobilize calcium from the bone
D) secrete calcitonin
E) assist in the absorption of vitamin A
Q4) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thirst and satiety are the two factors that govern water intake in healthy people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When selecting a vitamin-mineral supplement, choose one in which the nutrient levels are _____.
A) at or very close to the RDA
B) all the same
C) at least 200 percent of the RDA
D) at least 300 percent of the RDA
E) at least 500 percent of the RDA
Q3) Identify four groups of individuals in the U.S. who are at risk for developing zinc deficiency and briefly describe the rationale for including each group.
Q4) Osteoporosis is more prevalent in women because _____.
A) women consume more calcium
B) women's bodies don't utilize calcium as readily
C) women have larger bodies
D) women have lower bone mass
E) bone loss begins later in women versus men
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) Iron-deficiency anemia hinders exercise performance by limiting the amount of _____ available to muscles.
A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) glycogen
D) hemoglobin
E) carbon dioxide
Q2) Why is it important to "refuel" as soon after physical activity as possible?
Q3) Resistance training has long been recognized as a means to build and maintain muscle mass, strength, power, and endurance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which food should be avoided prior to competition?
A) ice cream
B) grape juice
C) banana
D) graham crackers
E) pasta
Q5) How does iron deficiency impair physical performance and how can this be remedied?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) If you were to counsel a pregnant woman suffering from "morning" sickness, you might suggest they _____.
A) limit the amount of fat in her diet
B) take iron supplements on an empty stomach
C) limit meals to three a day
D) eat the foods she wants when she feels like eating
E) only eat a large lunch, because breakfast will likely make her nauseous
Q2) Nora, who is pregnant, awakens at 2:00 a.m. craving pickles and chocolate sauce. The craving probably indicates that she _____.
a.m. craving pickles and chocolate sauce. The craving probably indicates that she
A) drank too much coffee last night
B) drank too much alcohol last night
C) needs some nutrients that are found in pickles and chocolate sauce
D) is experiencing hormone-induced changes in taste
Q3) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
Q4) Describe the functions of the placenta in supporting fetal growth.
Q5) A lactating mother should avoid all types of oral contraceptives.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) Nancy consumes fewer kcalories at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is _____.
A) ill and needs medical attention
B) not as physically active now as when she was 11 months old
C) in a less rapid stage of growth now
D) becoming malnourished
E) too picky and probably needs to be forced to eat more
Q2) A child with any of several nutrient deficiencies may display behaviors that cause them to be labeled as _____.
A) excessively happy
B) likable
C) unloved
D) hyperactive
E) unclean
Q3) Discuss the role of genetics in obesity and diabetes development.
Q4) Children's food aversions may be the result of nature's efforts to protect them from allergic or other adverse reactions.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
Q2) Vision problems in older adults may be due to _____.
A) being underweight
B) low intake of vitamins D and E
C) being overweight
D) low intake of vitamins C and E
E) high intake of vitamins D and E
Q3) The best choice for older adults with small energy allowances is to _____.
A) take vitamin-mineral supplements
B) select nutrient-dense foods
C) consume less food
D) moderate alcohol consumption
E) cut back on water intake
Q4) The protein needs of older adults appear to be about the same as those of younger people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe why energy needs decline with advancing age.
Q6) Describe factors in many older people's lives that increase the likelihood of iron deficiency.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Q1) The transcription factor that enhances the gene expression of enzymes required for cholesterol synthesis enters the nucleus only when the cellular cholesterol content is low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The levels of ____ reflect PEM, illness, and iron status.
A) albumin
B) prealbumin
C) retinol-binding protein
D) transferrin
E) clotting time
Q3) Which aspect of a patient's appearance is an indicator of good nutritional status?
A) shiny hair
B) smooth tongue
C) lack of fat under the skin
D) rough skin
E) dry skin
Q4) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
Q5) What are the major components of the 24-hour dietary recall?
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) Valerian
A)used to treat erectile dysfunction
B)used to treat enlarged prostate
C)relieves menopausal symptoms
D)relieves insomnia with little side-effects
E)used to treat cancer and arthritis; may cause hepatitis and liver failure
F)used for wound healing; can cause liver damage
G)used to improve memory
H)treatment of anxiety, stress, insomnia
I)treatment of digestive system disorders; has possible interactions with diuretics, causing excessive potassium loss
J)used to reduce blood pressure and blood cholesterol; side effects include breath and body odor
Q2) People taking MAO inhibitors should restrict their intake of _____.
A) tomato sauce
B) cheddar cheese
C) cottage cheese
D) white wine
E) red wine
Q3) How should Mr. Hare be counseled regarding his vitamin K intake?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) The protein content of most standard formulas ranges from _____ of total kcalories.
A) 5-10%
B) 12-20%
C) 25-30%
D) 35-40%
E) 45-50%
Q2) Differentiate between the characteristics and uses of standard formulas and elemental formulas.
Q3) The advantages of a closed feeding system include _____.
A) less likelihood of contamination
B) lower initial cost
C) increased nurse contact with the patient
D) increased patient tolerance
E) less stress on the patient's digestive system
Q4) What type of nutrition support is appropriate for Ms. Johnson at this time? Why?
Q5) Cyclic feedings are conducted over periods of 8 to 16 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe characteristics of patients who are candidates for PPN.
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) Xerostomia is a side effect of many medications and can make speaking and swallowing more difficult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the primary treatment of ulcers?
A) surgery
B) relaxation therapy
C) drug therapy
D) diet
E) lifestyle changes
Q3) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) often develops as a consequence of _____.
A) aging
B) drugs
C) feeding tubes
D) pregnancy
E) gender
Q4) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q5) What types of medications might Kelly's doctor prescribe and why?
Q6) Describe the typical scenario that accompanies dumping syndrome. Page 19
Q7) What types of medications are used to treat GERD?
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) laxatives
A)surgical passage through the abdominal wall into the colon
B)bacteria that normally reside in a person's body
C)indigestible substances in foods that stimulate the growth of nonpathogenic bacteria within the large intestine
D)site of vitamin B12 absorption
E)increase stool volume and reduce transit time in the large intestine
F)fat malabsorption associated with Crohn's disease
G)an inflammation of the surgical pouch created in some patients who have had an ileostomy or colostomy
H)live microorganisms provided in foods and dietary supplements for the purpose of preventing or treating disease
I)movement of bacteria across the intestinal mucosa, allowing access to body tissues
J)function by increasing stool weight, increasing the water content of stool, or stimulating peristaltic contractions
Q2) Describe potential problems associated with probiotic use.
Q3) Should Mr. Fruge develop diverticulitis in the future, how would the dietary recommendations change?
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Patients with celiac disease often cannot tolerate _____.
A) vitamin B
B) lactose
C) fat
D) glucose
E) sucrose
Q2) Anemia caused by an illness rather than a nutrient deficiency is known as _____.
A) a peripheral blood smear
B) anemia of chronic disease
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) leukemia
E) malabsorption
Q3) Iron is absorbed primarily in the _____.
A) lungs
B) duodenum
C) stomach
D) ileum
E) liver
Q4) Describe dietary concerns for someone who is lactose intolerant.
Q5) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) Which method for treating gallstones relies on medications to dissolve gallstones?
A) cholecystectomy
B) administration of ursodiol
C) a sodium-controlled diet
D) shock-wave lithotripsy
E) laparoscopic procedures
Q2) The most common cause of chronic liver disease in the U.S. is _____.
A) vitamin B deficiency
B) alcoholism
C) hepatitis C infection
D) protein deficiency
E) HIV
Q3) Albumin is not always a good indicator of nutrition status in patients with liver disease because _____.
A) the damaged liver cannot synthesize adequate plasma proteins
B) it is degraded by elevated liver enzymes
C) liver disease causes elevated levels of albumin
D) ammonia levels affect albumin levels
E) albumin is removed by ascites
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) resistin
A)hormone produced by adipose cells that improves insulin sensitivity
B)liver protein that promotes blood clot formation
C)a hormone produced by adipose cells that promotes insulin resistance
D)the type of diabetes that accounts for 5 to 10% of diabetes cases and is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
E)the type of diabetes that accounts for 90 to 95% of diabetes cases and is a result of insulin resistance coupled with insufficient insulin secretion
F)transported in very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
G)known as insulin resistance syndrome or syndrome X
H)protein that promotes blood clotting by inhibiting blood clot degradation within blood vessels
I)hyperglycemia that results from the release of counter regulatory hormones following nighttime hypoglycemia; also called the Somogyi effect
J)signaling proteins produced by the body's cells, including immune cells
Q2) What is the "honeymoon period"?
Q3) Describe the primary criteria used to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes.
Q4) Describe hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome of type 2 diabetes.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) To follow the DASH diet, patients should _____.
A) choose fruit and unsalted pretzels as snacks
B) use bouillon cubes and soy sauce to flavor foods
C) avoid nuts and seeds
D) reduce the amount of fiber consumed
E) use red meat and poultry as primary protein source
Q2) The formation of plaque is _____.
A) unrelated to high blood pressure
B) an inflammatory response
C) an autoimmune disorder
D) limited to smaller blood vessels
E) limited to the heart
Q3) What lifestyle changes can Mr. Daniels make to reduce his risk of another, possibly more severe stroke?
Q4) The four classic risk factors for CHD are _____.
A) smoking, high LDL, high blood pressure, and diabetes
B) age, gender, family history, and diet
C) smoking, high HDL, high blood pressure, and diabetes
D) age, smoking, diet, and diabetes
E) age, gender, smoking, and diet
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) All of these side effects are characteristic of immunosuppressive drug therapy except _____.
A) glucose intolerance
B) fluid retention
C) malabsorption of nutrients
D) foodborne infection
E) altered blood lipids
Q2) Once dialysis is initiated in a patient with chronic kidney disease, the recommended protein intake _____.
A) is less restrictive
B) is more restrictive
C) remains the same
D) emphasizes the addition of nonessential amino acid sources
E) emphasizes the addition of phosphorus and calcium
Q3) The ideal renal diet provides enough protein to _____.
A) give the patient an adequate kcaloric intake
B) keep blood ammonia levels stable
C) decrease liver hyperactivity
D) meet the patient's needs and prevent wasting
E) maintain normal urea production
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q2) Patients with burns and tissue injuries may require increased_____ due to tissue losses.
A) glucose
B) trace minerals
C) vitamin C
D) fats
E) proteins
Q3) Which method is used to measure the energy requirements for intensive care patients?
A) Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
B) indirect calorimetry
C) Penn State equation
D) estimate needs using 15-20 kcalories/kg body weight
E) lung function tests
Q4) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
Q5) Describe the causes of the four classic signs of inflammation.
Q6) What kind of medications might be prescribed for Caroline? Why?
Q7) Why are intestinal tube feedings preferred over gastric feedings for patients with acute respiratory failure? Page 27
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) A _____ is a request by a patient or surrogate indicating that cardiopulmonary resuscitation should be withheld.
A) legal will
B) DNR order
C) power of attorney
D) disclosure document
E) living trust
Q2) chemotherapy
A)the accumulation of fatty tissue at the base of the neck
B)the process of cancer development
C)a fungal infection of the mouth and throat
D)to spread from one part of the body to another E)substances that can cause cancer
F)a wasting syndrome, associated with cancer, that is characterized by anorexia, muscle wasting, weight loss, and fatigue
G)the use of drugs to arrest or destroy cancer cells
H)benign tumor composed of fatty tissue
I)a common virus that can cause blister-like lesions on the lips and in the mouth
J)transplantation of the stem cells that produce red and white blood cells
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