Introduction to Diagnostic Medical Sonography Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an overview of the field of diagnostic medical sonography, emphasizing fundamental principles, instrumentation, and the role of the sonographer in healthcare. Students will learn about the history and evolution of sonography, basic physics of ultrasound, anatomy and physiology as visualized with ultrasound, and common sonographic procedures. Ethical considerations, patient care techniques, and safety protocols are also discussed, preparing students for further study and clinical experiences in diagnostic imaging.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lower right quadrant pain ____
Answer: CH
Right lower quadrant pain is a clinical symptom and part of the patient's clinical history.
Q2) A person can become infected with HBV or HIV by touching __________________ ___________________ and transferring contaminants to the _______________, ________________, and/or _____________.
Answer: contaminated surfaces; eyes, nose, and/or mouth
Touching contaminated surfaces and transferring the infectious material to the mouth, nose, or eyes is a more indirect means of transmission.
Q3) The sonographer should always review the ultrasound request form. _____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Chronic pancreatitis ____
Answer: IR
An interpretive report (final report) includes a detailed description of the ultrasound findings and a diagnosis (or diagnoses) derived from them.
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3
Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alphanumeric keyboard is used to
A) enter new patient information.
B) perform the initial configuration at installation of the ultrasound unit.
C) indicate which patient will be examined next.
D) house the sonologist workstation.
Answer: A
Q2) Compare and contrast the functions of the keyboard controls: primary imaging controls, calculation controls, and additional controls.
Answer: Primary imaging controls (i.e., transducer selection, imaging preset, frequency, depth, TCG, TCG curve, focal zone position, focal zone number, dual image, image direction, freeze, cine loop, print/store, and trackball) are essential for producing and recording images of diagnostic quality. Calculation controls include the calculations package activated upon imaging preset and measurement functions (i.e., distance, trace, measure, and off). Additional important controls include body pattern and Doppler, color, power Doppler, pulsed wave, and M-mode controls, as well as monitor controls for brightness and contrast.
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Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an ultrasound examination, it is acceptable for a sonographer to
A) show the patient any abnormal findings.
B) discuss his or her opinion of the ultrasound findings.
C) provide a diagnosis.
D) briefly point out one or more structures.
Answer: D
Q2) Before a patient gets onto or off of the examination table or stretcher, the sonographer must make sure it is _____________________________________.
Answer: stationary and the brakes have been set
Before a patient gets onto or off of the examination table or stretcher, the sonographer must make sure the table or stretcher is stationary and the brakes have been set.
Q3) When helping a patient out of a wheelchair or before seating the person in the chair, the sonographer should make sure __________________________________.
Answer: both brakes are locked, and the leg and foot rests have been pushed out of the way
When helping a patient into or out of a wheelchair, the sonographer must make sure both brakes are locked and the foot rests have been pushed out of the way.
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Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coronal planes divide the body into unequal ________ and ________ sections.
Q2) An accumulation of serous fluid in the abdominopelvic cavity is called __________.
Q3) If a patient asks a sonographer questions about the results of the study, the sonographer should
A) provide the person with a copy of the sonographer's technical observation.
B) confine his or her remarks to either "normal" or "abnormal."
C) give an opinion on the results.
D) explain that the patient must contact his or her physician for the diagnosis.
Q4) The _______ and _______ planes are parallel to the long axis of the body
Q5) With regard to echo texture characteristics, a disease can be described as _________ or __________.
Q6) Sonographically, the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract
A) resembles a "bull's eye."
B) has an appearance that depends on the lumen's contents.
C) is hypoechoic relative to its walls.
D) is highly reflective.
Q7) "A circumscribed disease process" describes a __________.
Q9) Longitudinal views show a structure's depth and ___________. Page 6
Q8) The normal echo texture appearance of soft tissues is characterized as ________.
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venous flow in the lower extremities is accomplished primarily by means of A) subatmospheric pressure.
B) cardiac systolic contractions. C) skeletal muscle contractions.
D) cardiac diastolic contractions.
Q2) Homeostasis is defined as _____________________________________________________.
Q3) The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system with muscles, glands, and sensory organs. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _______________ system monitors and controls almost every organ in the body.
Q5) The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system responds to stress or impending danger; it is known as the "fight or flight" system. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by a muscular partition called the visceral pleura. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scanning planes used in sonography are the same as anatomic body planes, but their interpretations depend on the
A) size of the transducer.
B) shape of the transducer and how it is held.
C) body habitus.
D) location of the transducer and sound wave approach.
Q2) The single difference between structures seen on an ultrasound image section and a cadaver section is
A) size.
B) sonographic appearance.
C) adjacent relationships.
D) shape.
Q3) The quadratus lumborum muscle is a bilateral muscle tissue that is ________ to the psoas major muscle.
A) medial
B) lateral
C) anterior
D) posterior
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9
Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anal canal opens at
A) 12 weeks.
B) 11 weeks.
C) 7 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
Q2) The gastrointestinal tract begins to form at 4 weeks of embryologic age. ____
A)True B)False
Q3) The vitelline veins carry oxygenated blood from the embryo to the placenta. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) After birth, fetal RBC formation ceases and the reticuloendothelial function begins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The kidneys lie initially in the pelvis and then move up into the abdomen. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median sacral artery is superior to the A) renal arteries.
B) adrenal arteries.
C) gonadal arteries.
D) common iliac arteries.
Q2) The inferoposterior pancreatic duodenal artery feeds the pancreatic head and duodenal area and is a branch of the
A) celiac artery.
B) superior mesenteric artery.
C) pancreatic artery.
D) suprarenal arteries.
Q3) Which aortic wall layer(s) is/are responsible for contraction and recoil?
A) Tunica media
B) Tunica intima
C) Tunica adventitia
D) Tunica intima and adventitia
Q4) The gonadal arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pylorus of the stomach ____
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inferior phrenic veins are located
A) at the same level as the hepatic veins.
B) superior to the hepatic veins.
C) inferior to the hepatic veins.
D) inferior to the middle hepatic vein only.
Q2) In a transverse scanning plane image, the left renal vein can be seen as a(n)
A) straight structure posterior to the SMA.
B) axial structure near the left kidney.
C) longitudinal, curvilinear structure anterior to the aorta.
D) oval structure that empties into the medial IVC.
Q3) The lumbar veins are easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The walls of the hepatic veins are brightly echogenic. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Aorta ____
Q6) Body of the liver ____
Q7) Intestines ____
Q8) Right kidney ____
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a transverse scanning plane, the main portal vein initially appears in an axial section as an oval, anechoic structure. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Superior mesenteric vein lumen ____
Q3) Tributaries of the portal vein include which vessels?
A) Right and left gastric veins and pancreaticoduodenal veins
B) Splenic and superior and inferior mesenteric veins
C) Gastroepiploic and right and left gastric veins
D) All of the above
Q4) Hepatic artery lumen ____
Q5) Portal venous walls ____
Q6) The bifurcation of the left portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane. ____
A)True
B)False
Q7) Inferior vena cava lumen ____
Q8) Superior mesenteric vein walls ____
Q9) Hepatic artery walls ____
Q10) Normal liver ____
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow in the right, middle, and left hepatic veins is characterized by
A) four phases of flow: two away from the heart and two toward the heart.
B) three phases of flow: two toward the heart and a phase of systolic flow reversal.
C) three phases of flow: one toward the heart and then two away from the heart.
D) four phases of flow: two toward the heart followed by two away from the heart.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the portal vein?
A) It supplies approximately 70% of the oxygenated blood flow to the liver.
B) It is an intraabdominal vein.
C) It is formed by the confluence of the umbilical, splenic, and superior mesenteric veins.
D) Blood flow in the portal vein normally is hepatopetal in direction.
Q3) Normally, flow patterns in the portal vein and its branches are characterized by
A) continuous, minimally phasic, disordered flow with high mean velocities.
B) pulsatile, biphasic, disordered flow with low mean velocities.
C) continuous or minimally phasic disordered flow with low peak and mean velocities.
D) phasic flow with low peak and mean velocities.
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14
Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prominent pulsatility of the Doppler waveform in the portal vein is A) normal.
B) abnormal.
Q2) The ____________ surface of the liver normally rests on the abdominal organs.
A) superior
B) inferior
C) anterior
D) posterior
Q3) The three main tributaries to the portal confluence are the inferior mesenteric vein, the superior mesenteric vein, and the A) left gastric vein.
B) splenic vein.
C) portal vein.
D) gastroduodenal vein.
Q4) The right and left lobes of the liver are related to the _______ of the diaphragm. A) anterior surface
B) superior surface
C) posterior surface
D) undersurface
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Length of the cystic duct ____
A)0.5 to 2.5 cm
B)3 to 5 cm
C)1 to 7 mm
D)8 to 11.5 cm
E)3 mm
F)1 to 3.5 cm
Q2) CCK is a peptide hormone that increases hepatic production of bile. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hepatic artery is found slightly medial and anterior to the main portal vein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the A) celiac artery.
B) proper hepatic artery.
C) splenic artery.
D) common hepatic artery.
Q5) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____
Page 16
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exocrine function of the pancreas is carried out by the beta cells. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sagittal views of the pancreas show the gland in transverse sections. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The portal vein is formed
A) posterior to the neck of the pancreas.
B) anterior to the neck of the pancreas.
C) posterior to the head of the pancreas.
D) anterior to the head of the pancreas.
Q4) The pancreas is mostly an endocrine gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pancreatic juice reaches the duodenum via the common bile duct. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) A water-filled stomach makes the pancreas more difficult to visualize. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medullary pyramids are separated from each other by bands of cortical tissue called ____________ .
Q2) The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is ADH produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q4) The structures anterior to the right kidney are the:
Q5) The renal pyramid is one component of the renal lobe. Two other components are the ________ and the ________.
Q6) The apex of the medullary pyramid sits within a __________.
Q7) List and explain the laboratory values that help measure renal function.
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen is posterolateral to the pancreatic tail and part of the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hilar area of the spleen is not covered by peritoneum. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Left renal cortex ____
Q4) The spleen is highly vascular. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spleen has a hilar area, similar to the liver and the kidneys. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The average volume of the adult spleen is about
A) 50 ml.
B) 200 ml.
C) 400 ml.
D) 600 ml.
Q7) Splenic artery lumen ____
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duodenum receives the common bile duct via the ampulla of Vater in which of these segments?
A) Second (descending) segment
B) Fourth (ascending) segment
C) Third (transverse) segment
D) First (superior) segment
Q2) The layers of the bowel wall create a characteristic sonographic appearance called a "gut signature." Up to _____ layers usually can be visualized.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
Q3) On transverse scans of the thyroid gland, the esophagus normally is visualized as A) a hypoechoic density with posterior acoustic enhancement, medial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) a high echogenic mass proximal to the superior parathyroid gland on the left.
C) a target lesion inferior to the lower pole of the right lobe.
D) posterior to the gland on the left, with a bull's eye appearance.
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prostate is supported by
A) Denonvilliers' fascia.
B) the seminal vesicles and ejaculatory ducts.
C) the symphysis pubis.
D) the obturator internus and levator ani muscles.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the seminal vesicles?
A) They are paired glands.
B) They are posterior to the urinary bladder and inferior to the prostate.
C) Each gland empties into the distal ductus (vas) deferens.
D) They help form the ejaculatory duct.
Q3) In a scan of the prostate and seminal vesicles, the prostate appears
A) hypoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
B) isoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
C) hyperechoic to the seminal vesicles.
D) anechoic to the seminal vesicles.
Q4) The periurethral tissues can easily be differentiated from the anterior fibromuscular stroma. ______
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vagina can be identified in the _____ portion of the pelvis between the _____ (anteriorly) and the _____ (posteriorly).
A) posterior; urinary bladder; rectum
B) anterior; anterior cul de sac; urinary bladder
C) inferior; urinary bladder; rectum
D) superior; urinary bladder; posterior cul de sac
Q2) The peritoneal cavity space posterior to the broad ligaments is the ________.
Q3) The region of the uterus where the fallopian tube passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine cavity is called the A) corpus.
B) cornua.
C) fundus.
D) infundibulum.
Q4) The fibrous tissue mass that remains in the ovarian cortex after ovulation and regression of the corpus luteum is called the A) corpus albicans.
B) graafian follicle.
C) linea alba.
D) granulosa luteal cells.
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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the developing:
A) ovary.
B) oviduct.
C) zygote.
D) placenta.
Q2) What is the corpus luteum?
A) The outermost tissues of the developing embryo
B) The part of early development that surrounds the amniotic cavity
C) The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst
D) What remains of the ovarian follicle after ovulation
Q3) The double bleb sign
A) describes the early blastocyst.
B) is the sonographic appearance of the embryo disk lying between the secondary yolk sac and developing amniotic cavity.
C) distinguishes a pseudo sac from a gestational sac.
D) is eventually obliterated by the amniotic cavity.
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23
Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The umbilical cord has A) one vessel.
B) two vessels.
C) three vessels.
D) four vessels.
Q2) Anechoic, tubular structures on the uterine surface of the placenta are called A) lacunae.
B) maternal marginal veins.
C) fetal marginal veins.
D) venous lakes.
Q3) Collapsed, the fetal colon typically
A) appears hyperechoic compared with adjacent structures.
B) presents with anechoic, thick walls and a hyperechoic lumen.
C) appears hypoechoic compared with adjacent structures.
D) indicates a gastrointestinal abnormality.
Q4) What vessels comprise the umbilical cord?
A) Portal vein and umbilical artery
B) Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
C) One umbilical artery and two umbilical veins
D) Umbilical artery and right and left portal veins
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a variable observed during a biophysical profile examination?
A) Fetal breathing
B) Fetal heart rate
C) Fetal urination
D) Amniotic fluid volume
Q2) If division occurs in the embryonic disk more than 13 days after fertilization, the result is
A) the demise of one twin.
B) a dichorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
C) conjoined twins.
D) a dichorionic-diamniotic gestation.
Q3) Fetal intravascular transfusion is recommended in fetuses with A) severe hydrops.
B) polyhydramnios.
C) oligohydramnios.
D) chromosomal abnormalities.
Q4) When certain defects are found during a pregnancy, high concentrations of _____________________ are found in amniotic fluid samples.
Q5) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is
A) 3.5 to 5 MHz.
B) 5 MHz only.
C) 4.5 MHz.
D) 7.5 to 15 MHz.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland?
A) It is more echogenic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures.
B) It is uniformly echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the liver and testes.
C) Anechoic, 1- to 2-mm tubular structures represent the thyroid arteries and veins.
D) It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures.
Q3) The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
A) echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.
B) heterogeneous with medium to high level echoes.
C) hyperechoic with high level echoes.
D) hypoechoic with medium level echoes.
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26
Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Q1) Elastography is a technique that improves sonographic visualization of tissues in fibrous breasts. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Estrogen
A) aids in breast development.
B) stimulates the breast's secretory system after childbirth.
C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.
D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.
Q3) Mammography is preferred to sonography for examining dense breast tissue. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glandular breast tissue actually is found in the lobules. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the sonographic appearance of breast fat?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Bright linear echoes
C) Low to medium level echoes
D) Anechoic tubular structures
27
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Q1) Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is
A) homogeneous.
B) heterogeneous.
C) anechoic.
D) mixed solid appearance.
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the septum penis?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.
Q4) What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) They cannot be identified on ultrasound.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Anechoic
C) Echogenic
D) Low level echoes
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) The lateral fissure, or sylvian fissure, separates the
A) temporal lobes from the parietal lobes.
B) temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.
C) parietal lobes from the occipital lobes.
D) cerebrum from the cerebellum.
29
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) In fetal development, if the bulboventricular looping is to the right, the result is dextrocardia. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The heart functions to
A) distribute medications throughout the body.
B) move antibodies and white blood cells to areas of infection.
C) dispose of waste products.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The best view to image the coronary artery ostia is the
A) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level (base)
B) Apical 4-chamber
C) Parasternal Long axis view
D) Parasternal Short axis view papillary muscle level
Q4) Which of the following is the best view for PW or CW Doppler of the aortic valve?
A) Apical Long Axis view
B) Apical Two Chamber view
C) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level
D) Parasternal Long Axis view
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suspected aortic root dissection may be diagnosed with confidence with A) TTE.
B) a chest radiograph.
C) a fast CT scan.
D) TEE.
Q2) The thickest layer of the heart is the myocardium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers cannot function as pacemakers. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The apical four-chamber view displays the ventricles at the top of the screen and the atria at the bottom of the 2D sector image. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The SA node is the "pacemaker" of the heart. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect vascular laboratory evaluations are best defined as
A) B-mode imaging combined with Doppler velocity spectral analysis.
B) physiologic test procedures that demonstrate pressure and/or volume changes in vessels distal to the location of the disease.
C) tests that examine blood vessels at the site of the disease.
D) duplex evaluations that examine the velocity spectral patterns distal to the location of the disease.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an element of the Doppler equation?
A) Carrier Doppler frequency
B) Angle of insonation with respect to the path of blood flow
C) Constant for the speed of sound in blood
D) Velocity of red cell movement
Q3) Which vessel is NOT part of the cerebrovascular system?
A) Common carotid artery
B) Vertebral artery
C) Internal carotid artery
D) Internal iliac artery
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SonoVCAD and SonoAVC are volumetric advances that can identify the A) nongravid uterus and early pregnancy.
B) fetal heart outflow tract and ovarian follicles.
C) neonatal brain in three orthogonal views.
D) adult and pediatric urinary system.
Q2) Rendering algorithms include
A) surface and orthogonal modes.
B) minimum and surface modes.
C) both of the above
D) none of the above
Q3) Spatiotemporal image correlation (STIC) is most useful for evaluating the A) neonatal brain.
B) gravid uterus.
C) prostate.
D) fetal heart.
Q4) The 4 in 4D ultrasound refers to A) a special algorithm.
B) space.
C) time.
D) velocity.
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) During intraoperative ultrasound procedures, sterile gel is A) not used.
B) used as a scanning couplant.
C) used as a couplant between the transducer and the probe cover.
D) used in place of sterile sheaths.
Q2) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) amniocentesis.
D) tissue sampling.
Q3) Chorionic villus sampling is
A) a percutaneous biopsy.
B) collected during amniocentesis.
C) limited to intraoperative surgical procedures.
D) collected during a nephrostomy.
Q4) A biopsy site is scanned before the biopsy to determine the best __________ with the shortest __________ and the __________ angle.
Q5) With ultrasound-guided aspiration, the examiner can __________ any change in shape or size of a fluid-filled structure.
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