Introduction to Dental Radiography Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Dental Radiography provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills in the use of radiographic imaging within dentistry. The course covers the principles of radiation physics, radiation biology, and the safe operation of radiographic equipment. Emphasis is placed on learning various intraoral and extraoral radiographic techniques, understanding image production and interpretation, and adhering to safety protocols to minimize patient and operator exposure. Students will gain hands-on experience in taking and analyzing dental radiographs, and will develop the competence needed to support accurate diagnosis and treatment planning in a clinical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) Collimator cutoff (cone cutting)is caused by:
A)improper horizontal angulation
B)over filtration
C)improper beam film alignment
D)improper vertical angulation
Answer: C
Q2) The determination of the size and shape of the x-ray beam is called ________.
Answer: collimation
Q3) The thickness of aluminum that will reduce the intensity of the x-ray beam by 50% is termed:
A)half value layer
B)filtration
C)collimation
D)penetrating power
Answer: A
Q4) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting. Answer: milliamperage
Q5) The amount of heat produced in the x-ray tube is ________ than the amount of radiation produced.
Answer: greater
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) Penumbra can be described as:
A)definition
B)detail
C)blurring
D)sharpness
Answer: C
Q2) Identify the correct position of the PID when intraoral radiographs are taken:
A)completely flat against the patient's face
B)almost touching the patient's face
C)within 1 to 2 inches of the patient's face
D)within 3 to 4 inches of the patient's face
Answer: B
Q3) A radiographic image produced with a kVp setting of approximately 65 will appear as an:
A)image with high-contrast
B)image with short-scale contrast
C)image with mostly black and white areas
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) The advantage of double-emulsion intraoral films over the old single emulsion films is:
A)more flexibility
B)faster developing time
C)less radiation exposure for the patient
D)increased darkroom illumination
Q2) The lead foil backing is included in the intraoral film packet:
A)to absorb back-scattered radiation
B)to help keep the film packet light-tight
C)to hold the film in place
D)to protect the film from saliva
Q3) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q4) Rare earth intensifying screens differ from calcium tungstate screens in:
A)the cost
B)the amount of light photons generated in the cassette
C)their flexibility
D)the image definition
Q5) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q6) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q7) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
Q2) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q3) Identify this type of interaction with matter: an x-ray photon has its path altered by the atom, but no change to the atom occurs;a photon of scatter radiation is produced.
A)no interaction
B)Thompson scatter
C)photoelectric effect
D)Compton effect
Q4) Radiation damage to somatic cells is ________ passed on to succeeding generations.
Q5) Radiation caries is most often seen on teeth:
A)interproximally
B)on occlusal surfaces
C)at the cervical area circumferentially
D)on the incisal edges
E)around crowns
Q6) A tissue that is near the primary beam and receives a lot of secondary radiation is the _________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) An area in which a secretary sits constantly that is adjacent to a dental operatory where radiographs are taken is said to have an occupancy factor of:
A)8 hours
B)1
C)1/4
D)1/16
E)5 days
Q2) Which of the following results in the greatest reduction of radiation to the patient?
A)low kVp
B)rectangular collimation
C)short developing time
D)high mA
Q3) Radiographs taken to confirm that procedures have been completed are called __________.
Q4) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
Q5) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
Q6) Presently the maximum permissible dose (MPD)for dental workers with ionizing radiation is _______________.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
Q2) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q3) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) If the silver halide crystals in the film emulsion are energized, more silver precipitates to give a _______ appearance on an image.
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)clear
D)light
Q2) Cell phones should not be used in the darkroom because:
A)the illumination from the phone could cause film fog or expose the film
B)talking on the phone while processing radiographs is confusing
C)the phone could be dropped into the processing solutions
D)the operator may inadvertently open the darkroom door while processing
Q3) All of the following components are important for a darkroom EXCEPT:
A)it should be light-tight
B)it should have safe-light and overhead white light sources
C)it should be connected to a dental laboratory space
D)it should have room for processing tanks
Q4) If the developing time is 5 minutes, then the fixing time should be approximately ______________.
Q5) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
Q6) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) Barrier pack films:
A)need higher kVp
B)need more mAs
C)should only be used for the bisecting method
D)none of the above
Q2) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Q3) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q4) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q5) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
Q6) Anything one touches after working in the patient's mouth is considered to be
Q7) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Identify the error seen when an operator lets his or her finger off the exposure button prematurely while exposing radiographs:
A)images that are totally black
B)images that are dark
C)images that are light
D)no images on the processed film
Q2) In a full-mouth survey:
A)periapical films of edentulous areas are not taken
B)bitewing films of edentulous areas are taken
C)periapical films of edentulous areas are taken
D)opposing teeth for bitewings are not necessary
Q3) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
Q4) Identify the film that shows the teeth in occlusion with only the crowns visible:
A)bitewing
B)periapical
C)occlusal
D)cephalometric
Q5) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Q1) ____________________ exposure times can be used for the bisecting technique because of the shorter FFD.
Q2) In the bisecting technique the tooth-film distance is:
A)maximal
B)minimal
C)not important
D)none of the above
Q3) When compared with periapical films, topographic occlusal films have a
Q4) Identify a possible patient scenario in which the bisecting angle technique would be used:
A)an adult with a small mouth
B)a child
C)a person with a low palatal vault
D)all of the above
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
Q6) A -5 degree vertical angulation for the lower incisors will produce a (an)________ image.
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Q7) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) Static electricity artifacts appear as:
A)multiple black linear streaks
B)multiple clear linear streaks
C)fogged areas on the film
D)yellow-brown artifacts on the film
Q2) All of the following are advantages of panoramic radiography EXCEPT:
A)patient cooperation
B)image quality
C)time of exposure
D)simplistic procedure
Q3) Panoramic films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q4) The main disadvantage of panoramic films is:
A)increased patient exposure
B)loss of definition and detail
C)lack of contrast
D)possible patient movement
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) The best extraoral projection to detect a fracture of the zygomatic arch is the
Q2) Identify the projection used to view the maxillary sinus and middle third of the face:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q3) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
Q4) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
Q5) Extraoral films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q6) Cassettes with intensifying screens are used in extraoral radiography to ________.
Q7) If there is no cassette available, in an emergency a (an)___________ can be used to make a lateral oblique projection of the mandible.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) A conventional panoramic projection will show both the right and left joints in the:
A)lateral plane
B)axial plane
C)cross-sectional plane
D)frontal plane
Q2) Four views of the TMJ can be seen by:
A)MRI
B)CT
C)arthrography
D)the transcranial technique
Q3) For the transcranial technique, the central ray is aimed _____ inches above and _____ inch in front of the external auditory meatus.
Q4) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Q5) Complications may occur with:
A)arthrography
B)MRI
C)CT
D)a panoramic radiograph
Q6) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q2) A digital image is composed of structurally ordered areas called:
A)phosphors
B)signals
C)pixels
D)sensors
Q3) Identify the most critical part of a digital radiography system:
A)x-ray machine
B)digital sensor
C)laptop computer
D)monitor
Q4) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
Q5) In a digital image, you could expect to have:
A)256 shades of gray
B)100 shades of gray
C)32 shades of gray
D)10 shades of gray
Q6) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q7) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q8) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) The wavelengths used in MRI are:
A)long
B)cannot cause ionization
C)do not produce a radiation dose to the patient
D)all of the above
Q2) The CT number for air is:
A)-1000
B)1000
C)0
D)500
Q3) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q4) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Q5) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
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Q6) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) Fresh, full-strength fixer clears films in:
A)30 seconds
B)1 minute
C)2 to 3 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q2) Processing solutions should be changed _________, depending on the workload.
Q3) Guidelines for storage of unprocessed and unexposed films include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)storage in a warm, humid location
B)stored at temperatures between 50° F and 70° F
C)stored in a ventilated area
D)used before the expiration date on the package
Q4) To maintain high levels of chairside competence, a successful QA program will employ:
A)self-evaluation programs
B)continuing education courses
C)peer review with other professionals in the office
D)all of the above
Q5) ______________ is a plan of action to ensure that the radiographs produced have maximum diagnostic yield with minimal patient exposure.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) The main disadvantage of a metal rubber dam holder in endodontics is:
A)it is bendable
B)it is easier to use
C)it is easier to remove
D)its image will be superimposed on the film
Q2) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q3) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q4) All of the following are positive suggestions for dealing with a gag reflex EXCEPT:
A)instruct the patient to breathe through the nose
B)start in the anterior region and move to the posterior
C)ask the patient before beginning the procedure if he or she has ever gagged in the past
D)have the tubehead in the area in which you are working before placing the film
Q5) It is __________ for a caregiver or parent to be in the operatory (with careful safety precautions taken)when radiographs are taken of a patient with a disability.
Q6) Marking grids should not be confused with grids used to __________.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) The radiopaque area seen on the lower distal portion of maxillary molar radiographs is the:
A)maxillary tuberosity
B)styloid process
C)coronoid process
D)hamular process
Q2) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of _________.
Q3) The V-shaped structure seen in the mandibular incisor area is the:
A)mylohyoid ridge
B)internal oblique ridge
C)external oblique ridge
D)mental ridge
Q4) Identify the information that should appear on a radiographic film mount:
A)patient name
B)date of radiographic exam
C)patient date of birth
D)both a and b
Q5) Two soft tissue shadows often seen on periapical radiographs are the _______ and the ________.
Q6) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
Q2) If a lesion is not seen in three planes:
A)the operator should dismiss the patient
B)no advanced imaging is needed
C)the operator should reschedule the patient's appointment
D)further imaging is needed
Q3) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
Q4) In determining a differential diagnosis, identify the radiographs that should be initially considered:
A)full mouth series
B)panoramic radiograph
C)CT scan
D)MRI
Q5) In addition to radiographic findings, identify a symptom(s)that may be part of a diagnosis:
A)medical history
B)clinical examination
C)vitality testing
D)all of the above
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) The normal level of interproximal bone is:
A)at the cervical line
B)about 1 to 1.5 mm above or below the cementoenamel junction
C)about 3 mm above the cementoenamel junction
D)none of the above
Q2) All of the following periodontal changes do not appear on radiographs EXCEPT:
A)moderate bone loss
B)inflammation
C)hypertrophy
D)recession
Q3) Resorption that occurs in a plane parallel to the cementoenamel junctions on adjoining teeth describes:
A)vertical bone loss
B)horizontal bone loss
C)infrabony pocket
D)all of the above
Q4) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q5) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
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Q6) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Q2) Identify the radiographic sign of pulpitis in the pulp chamber:
A)the presence of additional pulp denticles
B)widened lamina dura
C)no radiographic changes are seen
D)changes in alveolar bone
Q3) The first detectable radiographic sign of periapical pathology is:
A)hypercementosis
B)loss of the lamina dura
C)disruption of the lamina dura
D)thickening of the periodontal ligament
Q4) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q5) How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
A)they may appear identical
B)a cyst is always larger
C)a cyst is always smaller
D)none of the above
Q6) Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia is a three-stage lesion that is _________ and self-limiting, and for which no treatment is indicated.
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Teeth that exhibit dilaceration may be a problem if what type of treatment is needed?
A)endodontic therapy
B)extraction
C)amalgam restoration
D)a and b
Q2) The joining of two or more teeth by cementum is termed:
A)germination
B)fusion
C)concrescence
D)taurodontism
Q3) In amelogenesis imperfecta, the tooth tissue(s)that are affected include:
A)enamel
B)dentin
C)pulp
D)all of the above are affected
Q4) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present.
Q6) The teeth in the area of fissural cysts usually test __________. Page 24
Q5) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q2) A cyst, demonstrating a decrease in density, would appear:
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)mixed lesion
D)none of the above
Q3) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Q4) A malignant lesion will usually have an ____________ border.
Q5) The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
A)mandibular molar periapical projection
B)lateral oblique projection
C)posterior anterior projection
D)right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
Q6) One way to differentiate a retained root tip radiographically is by the appearance of a
26
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important item in defending a malpractice action?
A)records
B)dentist's recollection
C)hygienist's recollection
D)office manager's recollection
Q2) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
Q3) Violations of the inspections of x-ray machines and radiation code may result in:
A)a warning given to the dentist
B)closing the dental practice for one month
C)suspension of a dentist's radiation permit
D)suspension of a dentist's license to practice
Q4) In the defense of a malpractice action, poor or nondiagnostic radiographs are:
A)admissible
B)useless
C)necessary
D)optional
Q5) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q6) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
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