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Introduction to Dental Materials provides students with a foundational understanding of the various materials used in dental practice, including their properties, manipulation, biological compatibility, and clinical applications. The course covers key categories such as metals, ceramics, polymers, and composites, examining how each is selected for specific dental prostheses, restorations, and preventive treatments. Emphasis is placed on the physical, chemical, and mechanical behavior of these materials as well as their limitations and the latest advancements in dental material science. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experiences, students learn how to handle materials safely and effectively, ensuring optimal patient care and successful restorative outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Materials 3rd Edition by W.
Stephan Eakle DDS FADM
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first acceptable amalgam formula was developed by _____ in 1895.
A) G.V.Black
B) Pierre Fuchard
C) Dr.Frederick McKay
D) Dr.William Taggart
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following restorative techniques was first introduced in 1955?
A) Cast gold inlays
B) Cohesive gold foil
C) Acid-etch technique
D) Synthetic resins for denture bases
Answer: C
Q3) Since 2005,the American Dental Association (ADA)Seal of Acceptance is awarded to _____ products.
A) both professional and consumer
B) professional but not consumer
C) consumer but not professional
D) neither professional nor consumer
Answer: C
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Q1) Contact between two dissimilar metals in the mouth may result in what reaction?
A) Galvanic shock
B) Metallic taste
C) Electrical current
D) All of the above are possible.
Answer: D
Q2) Percolation
A)Electrical current between two dissimilar metals
B)Discoloration due to oxidation of the metal's surface
C)Deterioration of the metal due to moisture and acid present in the oral
D)The rate at which heat flows through a material
E)Opening and closing of a gap between the restoration and the tooth surface
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following materials has the highest ultimate compressive strength (lbs/in²)?
A) Acrylic
B) Porcelain
C) Amalgam
D) Composite resins
Answer: C
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Q1) The stability of a solid is evaluated by noting:
A) its atomic mass and number.
B) whether or not it is a compound.
C) how hard the material is when set.
D) whether the molecules are arranged uniformly.
Answer: D
Q2) If the molecules of a solid are arranged in a random form with no regular pattern,the solid is called:
A) thixotropic.
B) amorphous.
C) malleable.
D) ductile.
Answer: B
Q3) Dental plaster begins with _____ components.
A) water and powder
B) liquid and powder
C) paste and liquid
D) paste and paste
Answer: A
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Q1) What does SDS stand for?
A) Safety Data Sheet
B) Serving Dental Systems
C) System of Dental Services
D) Serving Dental Structures
Q2) The chemical training program for employees must include which of the following?
1)The use of hazardous chemicals
2)Methods of production of chemicals
3)All safety practices,including all warnings
4)Required personal protection devices
5)Safe handling and disposal methods
A) 1,2,3,4,5
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,3,4,5
D) 1,3,4
Q3) How are large splatter particulates classified?
A) Smaller than 30 microns
B) Smaller than 50 microns
C) Larger than 30 microns
D) Larger than 50 microns

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Q1) The clinical technique of post cementation involves thoroughly rinsing off the phosphoric acid used to etch the canal and removing excess water with a:
A) paper point.
B) cotton pellet.
C) composite application brush.
D) 3-cc syringe with a blunt-end cannula.
Q2) What is the wavelength of the curing light?
A) Blue
B) Ultraviolet
C) Incandescent
D) Fluorescent
Q3) When are posts placed within the roots of endodontically treated teeth to retain dental materials used to build up the teeth?
A) When the root needs strengthening
B) When the crown-to-root ratio is poor
C) When a multi-rooted tooth is involved
D) When coronal tooth structure is inadequate for restoration with a crown
Q4) What are the three modes of curing for resin bonding agents?
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Q1) Which statement is correct about flowable composite resins?
A) They are useful for class I but not class V restorations.
B) They are useful as liners in large cavity preparations because they adapt to the preparation better than more viscous materials such as hybrid and packable composites.
C) They are high-viscosity,light-cured resins that may be lightly filled (about 40%)or more heavily filled (up to 70%).
D) They have a high elastic modulus,which allows them to cushion stresses created by polymerization shrinkage or heavy occlusal loads.
Q2) What is the recommended curing time for the proximal box of a class II composite restoration?
A) 10 to 30 seconds
B) 20 to 40 seconds
C) 40 to 60 seconds
D) 60 to 80 seconds
Q3) Which of the following materials is fluoride releasing?
A) Porcelain
B) Glass ionomer
C) Composite resin
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Q1) Self-applied topical gel that may cause some staining of the surfaces of the teeth and that delivers less fluoride ion to the teeth
A)Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF)
B)Neutral sodium fluoride (NaF)
C)1.1% Neutral sodium fluoride 5000 ppm restorations made of porcelain,composite fluoride
D)0.4% Stannous fluoride 900 ppm fluoride
E)Fluoride varnish 5.0% sodium fluoride than the other choice of self-applied topical gel
Q2) Which of the following would not be considered a topical fluoride application?
A) Daily mouth rinse
B) Vitamin with fluoride
C) Fluoridated toothpaste
D) 6-month in-office application
Q3) Which factor would contraindicate dental sealants?
A) Deep,uncoalesced grooves
B) Shallow,well-coalesced grooves
C) Adult patients with high caries risk
Q4) What should be done if a child has consumed an excessive amount of fluoride?
Q5) What is the oxygen-inhibited layer on cured dental sealant?
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Q1) Bleaching materials often contain _____ to help cut down on tooth sensitivity.
A) potassium nitrate
B) fluoride
C) eugenol
D) calcium hydroxide
Q2) In addition to pumice,what substance is used to perform enamel microabrasion?
A) Carbamide peroxide
B) Hydrogen peroxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Phosphoric acid
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be an intrinsic stain?
A) Coffee
B) Black line
C) Tetracycline
D) Chlorhexidine
Q4) Which item listed is not a side effect of in-home bleaching?
A) Tooth sensitivity
B) Irritated gingiva
C) Sore muscles of the jaw
D) Broken esthetic restorations
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Q1) Which of the following would be taken into consideration when a tooth is shaded?
A) Translucency
B) Texture
C) Luster
D) All of the above
Q2) Silane is a coupling agent that may be added to the _____ surface to enhance the bond and form a chemical union between the porcelain and the resin cement.
A) etched porcelain
B) unetched porcelain
C) etched resin cement
D) unetched resin cement
Q3) The metal in the area of a PFM crown where the porcelain is to be bonded is approximately _____ mm thick.
A) 0.01 to 0.03
B) 0.1 to 0.3
C) 0.3 to 0.5
D) 1.0 to 2.0
Q4) Describe the different techniques for fabrication of ceramic restorations.
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Q1) List the main components of amalgam alloy and describe their function.
Q2) Patients should be advised to avoid chewing on a newly placed amalgam for at least:
A) 8 minutes.
B) 8 hours.
C) 2 days.
D) 2 weeks.
Q3) Why is the cavity preparation slightly overfilled during the placement and condensation of amalgam?
A) Increases the overall height of the patient's bite forced to the surface during the condensation process
B) Makes sure no material goes to waste in the amalgam well
C) Forms the initial surface anatomy when the patient occludes against the opposing dentition
D) Allows enough material to carve to contours and remove excess mercury
Q4) Which of the following is true of tarnish?
A) It is very destructive to the amalgam.
B) Polishing the restoration will increase the tarnish.
C) The smoother the surface,the more it tends to tarnish.
D) It results from contact with oxygen,chlorides,and sulfides in the mouth.
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Q1) Which of the following would not be considered an extracoronal restoration?
A) Inlay
B) Onlay
C) Crown
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of noble dental casting alloys?
A) They require gold and must contain at least 25% noble metals by weight.
B) They do not require gold and require less than 25% by weight of noble metals.
C) They do not require any gold but must contain at least 25% noble metals by weight.
D) They must contain at least 60% by weight of noble alloys,of which gold must account for at least 40% by weight.
Q3) Which of the following base metals has the highest incidence of allergic response?
A) Nickel
B) Chromium
C) Beryllium
D) Gallium
Q4) Identify the wrought metals used for orthodontic wires.
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Q1) The success rate of dental implants is more than _____% with careful case selection.
A) 50
B) 70
C) 90
D) 99
Q2) Which of the following metals is most commonly used for implants?
A) Nickel
B) Titanium
C) Stainless steel
D) Molybdenum
Q3) List and describe the different types of surgical procedures for placement of implants.
Q4) Failure of an implant after initial integration is often attributed what cause?
A) Unnatural forces on the implant
B) Poor surgical technique
C) Poor quality of bone
D) Bacterial infection
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Q1) Which of the following is true concerning safety and infection control during finishing and polishing procedures?
A) The use of preprocedure antimicrobials has not been shown to reduce microbial aerosols.
B) Use of the saliva ejector is recommended rather than high-speed evacuation.
C) All laboratory wheels and rotary cutting devices should be sterilized or disinfected.
D) Protective eyewear is not recommended for the patient because it cannot be disinfected.
Q2) Which of the following is true of abrasive materials in dentifrices?
A) The abrasive agents improve the efficiency of the toothbrush in the removal of stains,food debris,and biofilm.
B) Abrasive agents decrease the light reflected by the enamel.
C) Higher abrasive rankings are desirable to prevent removal of softer tooth structures and restorations.
D) Toothpastes do not contain abrasive materials.
Q3) Describe the rationale for selective polishing.
Q4) Define finishing,polishing,and cleansing.
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Q1) When would a cement be mixed to a secondary consistency?
A) Cement a veneer
B) Cement a permanent crown
C) Cement an orthodontic band
D) Cement an intermediate restoration
Q2) What is the primary purpose of calcium hydroxide?
A) Promote reparative dentin
B) Act as a protective barrier
C) Insulate the pulp cavity
D) Sedate the pulp tissue
Q3) ______ incorporation of zinc phosphate powder into the liquid and mixing over a ______ area of a cooled glass slab are recommended because the chemical reaction is exothermic and produces heat.
A) Bulk;large
B) Bulk;small
C) Incremental;large
D) Incremental;small
Q4) List the advantages and disadvantages of zinc oxide eugenol,zinc phosphate,zinc polycarboxylate,traditional glass ionomer,hybrid ionomer,and resin-based cements.
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Q1) Some practitioners use a specially formulated addition silicone material in an automatic mixing cartridge system to make which types of dies?
A) Direct composite inlays
B) Indirect composite inlays
C) Porcelain jacket crowns
D) Porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns
Q2) Mixed alginate should be loaded into the impression tray in _____ increments as _____ as possible.
A) large;quickly
B) large;slowly
C) small;quickly
D) small;slowly
Q3) Which characteristic should be considered when choosing an impression tray?
A) Be large enough to fit all oral structures
B) Be rigid to support the impression material
C) Accurately reproduce vestibules
D) All of the above are considered.
Q4) List and describe the different types of impression materials suitable for crown and bridge procedures.
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Q1) An increase in the recommended water-to-powder ratio will result in a _____ accurate model.
A) stronger,more
B) stronger,less
C) weaker,more
D) weaker,less
Q2) Sheets of baseplate wax are usually layered to:
A) produce patterns for metal castings using the lost wax technique.
B) construct the metal framework of partial and complete dentures.
C) produce the form on which denture teeth are set.
D) form the base portion of a gypsum model.
Q3) Study models
A)Replicas of the prepared teeth that are generally removable from the working cast B)Hard replicas of hard and soft tissues of the patient's oral cavity made from gypsum products
C)Casts generally made from dental plaster or stone and used for patient education,treatment planning,and tracking of the progress of treatment
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Q1) What is the result of the loss of monomer or inadequate pressure during processing?
A) A brittle material
B) Shrinkage of the material
C) Porosities in the material
D) Discoloration of the material
Q2) Polymerization
A)A long-chain,high-molecular-weight molecule produced by the linking of many low-molecular-weight monomer molecules
B)A polymer composed of numerous methyl methacrylate monomers linked together in a long chain
C)The joining of adjacent long-chain polymers by bonding of short chains along their sides
D)The act of forming polymers.The process can be activated by chemicals,heat,or light.
E)Low-molecular-weight molecules that are joined to form polymers
Q3) Why must dentures be relined periodically?
A) Dentures absorb odors from plaque and food.
B) Dimensional changes in acrylic occur.
C) Alveolar ridges shrink over time.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of preformed polycarbonate provisional crowns?
A) They are incompatible with acrylic resins.
B) Like metal,they are flexible and may be crimped with contouring pliers.
C) The primary advantage is their esthetics for replacement of anterior teeth.
D) Unlike their metal partners,they do not come in several sizes and shapes.
Q2) Which factor,associated with a provisional restoration,is responsible for irritation,inflammation,and recession of the gingiva?
A) Chewing hard foods
B) Poor marginal coverage
C) Contour of the provisional
D) Brushing and flossing the provisional
Q3) _____ generated during the polymerization of chemical-cured acrylic can potentially damage the pulp or burn soft tissues.
A) Heat
B) Off-gassing
C) Chemical by-products
D) Hydroquinone
Q4) List and describe the four criteria for provisional coverage.
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Q1) What is the function of an appliance for treating OSA?
A) Lifts the soft palate
B) Repositions the mandible
C) Postures the tongue forward
D) Only a and b are correct.
E) All are correct.
Q2) A sports guard thickness of about _____ mm is desirable for heavy contact sports in which injuries are more likely.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Q3) When would a space maintainer be used?
A) Hold space for a permanent tooth
B) Guide a permanent tooth into place
C) Prevent a primary tooth from being lost prematurely
D) Open more space in the dental arch for accurate eruption
Q4) What instructions would be given to a patient who receives a soft sports or bruxism guard?
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