Introduction to Dental Hygiene Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Dental Hygiene offers students a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and practices in dental hygiene. The course covers topics such as oral anatomy, infection control, preventive dental care, and patient education.
Emphasizing the role of the dental hygienist within the dental healthcare team, students will learn about oral disease prevention, community dental health, and the use of dental hygiene instruments. Through lectures and practical sessions, students will also develop foundational clinical skills necessary for promoting and maintaining oral health across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) All of these services are provided by the majority of dental hygienists in the clinical setting except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Perform periodontal maintenance care.
B) Implement interventions to direct a person back to oral wellness.
C) Provide fluoride varnish treatment.
D) Place and remove restorations.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the four major concepts of paradigm for the dental hygiene discipline?
A) Client
B) Health and oral health
C) Environment
D) Nutrition
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prophylactic antibiotics are often required in clients with a deficit in protection from health risk because they report a history of a heart murmur resulting from rheumatic fever.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Power toothbrushes are recommended for clients who present with biofilm removal challenges. Which human need that, if in deficit, would suggest the need for this oral health device?
A) Protection from health risks
B) Freedom from head and neck pain
C) Freedom from stress
D) Responsibility for oral health
E) Wholesome facial image
F) Biologically sound dentition
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations is solely dedicated to producing systematic reviews?
A) American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry
B) American Academy of Periodontology
C) American Dental Association
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
E) Cochrane Collaboration
Answer: E
Q2) Which two PICO components provide the primary searching terms?
A) Problem and outcome (primary focus is on the intervention treatment and comparison treatment)
B) Intervention and comparison
C) Intervention and outcome (partially correct; intervention needs to be compared with the comparison treatment to determine which might be more effective and appropriate)
D) Comparison and outcome (partially correct; comparison needs to be compared with the intervention treatment to determine which might be more effective and appropriate)
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of community-centered organization include the following aims except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Strengthening community ability to take action
B) Longevity and self-sustainability of healthy environments
C) Building capacity within the community
D) Codependency between the community and healthcare providers
E) Development of skills and abilities of groups of people
Q2) The process of educating decision makers about a policy for mandatory mouth guards for all players is referred to as:
A) active listening.
B) client advocacy.
C) community mobilization.
D) policy review.
E) officiating change.
Q3) Client health promotion has a perspective that:
A) singularly identifies each client's needs.
B) focuses on individual behavior.
C) considers individual behavior and the social environment.
D) attributes disease to environmental influences.
E) lessens the role of the oral health professional in healthcare.
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q2) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q3) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q4) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q5) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q6) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q7) Oral health and education may not be highly valued when food, shelter, and clothing are not readily available.
A)True B)False
Q8) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ignoring or devaluing the models and practices embedded in other cultures can be described as:
A) evidence-based practice.
B) ethnocentrism.
C) stereotyping.
D) bias.
Q2) Statement 1: Culturally sensitive care starts with the care provider exploring the cultural beliefs of the client. Statement 2: Cultural differences occur in every clinical encounter.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q3) Statement 1: Health care literacy is the ability to understand health or disease. Statement 2: Poverty is not a barrier to access healthcare.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student is creating an artifact for the e-portfolio and would like to use some radiographs and intraoral images of a client. The student asks the client for and receives permission to use the images in his project. While grading the project an instructor notices the student forgot to remove the client's name from the radiographs. Which core ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Justice
B) Beneficence
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Q2) The primary purpose of reflection in a student portfolio is to demonstrate:
A) the student's ability to recall a clinical event or activity.
B) veracity as an admirable trait in the student hygienist.
C) critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
D) the clinical skill level of the student hygienist.
Q3) A portfolio required by a state licensing board would most likely be a:
A) working portfolio.
B) best work portfolio.
C) professional development portfolio.
D) curriculum vitae.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intraoral camera serves many purposes in the dental setting and they include chairside client education, oral examinations, comparisons, and specialist referrals.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) Digital radiography provides instant feedback for diagnosis, allows for client education, and involves less radiation exposure. All of the following are the current sensor sizes available except size:
A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 0.
D) 1.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding processing of contaminated instruments is (are) true?
A) Instruments should be processed in an area separate from where clean instruments are stored.
B) Personnel should wear heavy-duty utility/puncture-resistant gloves.
C) Instruments only need cleaning if they have visible contamination.
D) Instruments should be heat-sterilized unless they are heat sensitive.
E) Cleaning an instrument precedes all sterilization and disinfection processes.
F) Options a, b, d, and e are true.
Q2) Which types of procedures may be restricted for a DHCP who is hepatitis B e-antigen positive?
A) None
B) Major oral or maxillofacial surgery
C) All invasive procedures
D) All periodontal procedures
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an engineering control?
A) Education and training
B) A sharps container
C) Using the one-handed scoop technique to recap a needle
D) Hand washing
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for the increased likelihood of medical emergencies during dental hygiene care include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) The aging population
B) Increased number of drugs used in dentistry
C) Less time available for dental hygiene appointments
D) Increased number of medically compromised clients
E) Wholesome facial image
Q2) Which of the following conditions would require administration of oxygen, 162 mg aspirin, and activation of emergency medical services (EMS)?
A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure
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12
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q2) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q3) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q4) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Q6) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q7) List three chairside preventive measures to minimize the occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk for syncope can be reduced when an anxious client is treated with:
A) plastic instruments.
B) family or friends in the operatory.
C) sedation pharmacology.
Q2) If the client at risk for infective endocarditis comes to the appointment without taking antibiotic prophylaxis according to the prescribed regimen, which of the following is recommended?
A) Dismiss the client and reschedule.
B) Take the antibiotic when the client is seated.
C) Administer the antibiotic by IV infusion.
Q3) What ASA risk classification is appropriate for the client who has a history of myocardial infarction but who can meet a 10 metabolic equivalent (MET) functional capacity?
A) ASA I
B) ASA II
C) ASA III
D) ASA IV
E) ASA V
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Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four vital signs used to detect a client's cardiovascular and systemic health are:
A) height, weight, age, and race.
B) respiration, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure.
C) speed, temperature, gait, and electrocardiogram.
D) cholesterol, blood pressure, vision, and blood sugar.
Q2) If the client reports an occasional premature ventricular contraction (PVC):
A) the client should be referred to a physician.
B) contact their physician if there is an increase in frequency.
C) the dentist should be notified to initiate a referral to the physician.
D) contact emergency medical services (EMS) for an immediate response to an emergency situation.
Q3) When vital signs are taken at the first office visit, the term used for these readings is:
A) baseline.
B) Korotkoff.
C) consultation.
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of xerostomia?
A) Sjögren's syndrome
B) Head and neck radiation
C) Medication use
D) Nerve damage
Q2) Clients who have demonstrated weight loss may experience which of the following oral complications?
A) Difficulty speaking
B) Difficulty chewing
C) Difficulty wearing dentures
D) Difficulty swallowing
Q3) Clients who experience taste alteration as a medication-induced side effect often exhibit oral health behaviors that increase their risk for developing which condition?
A) Caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Aphthous ulcers
D) Fungal infections
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer corner where the upper and lower eyelid meet is called the outer or lateral:
A) commissure.
B) canthus.
C) supraorbital ridge.
D) nasion.
Q2) Which of the following tests can be used in the dental office setting for early evaluation of oral cancer and consists of spreading sample cells on a slide?
A) Oral cytology
B) Transepithelial test
C) Toluidine blue dye
D) Tissue reflectance and autofluorescence tests
Q3) Regarding oral lesions, which of the following is usually true?
A) Unilateral structures are most likely a normal anatomic structure.
B) The majority of lesions occur as multiple lesions.
C) Benign lesions have well-defined borders.
D) Fixed lesions on both overlying and underlying tissues are benign.
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the term bruxism?
A) Abnormal vertical spaces between mandibular and maxillary teeth
B) Occurs when the teeth occlude for a long time without giving the mandible a rest
C) Is the forceful grinding of the teeth together, often making an audible noise
D) Causes extreme overjet of the maxillary incisors, and stretched lips
Q2) In normal occlusion, the maxillary incisors are lingual to the mandibular incisors. The horizontal distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is known as the overbite.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) What facial profile is associated when the maxillary central incisors are upright or retruded, and lateral incisors are tipped labially?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Retrognathic with lip incompetence
D) Mesognathic
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A significant percentage of the population exhibits some type of periodontal disease. Effective oral hygiene assessment provides which of the following benefits? Select all that apply.
A) Communicates unmet needs to a client
B) Instructs a client in effective, individualized self-care
C) Protects a client from health risks
D) Determines a client's unmet needs
Q2) Retention and control of oral plaque is influenced by various contributory factors. Select all of the factors that influence oral biofilm retention and its removal.
A) Poorly contoured restorations
B) Widened periodontal ligament (PDL) spaces
C) Malpositioning of teeth
D) Intrinsic tooth stains
Q3) A major risk factor for caries and periodontal diseases is:
A) amount of materia alba.
B) food debris.
C) dental plaque.
D) extrinsic stain.
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more applications of fluoride varnish per year are effective in preventing caries in high-risk populations. Applying fluoride varnish every 6 months is effective in preventing caries in children and adolescents.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Select the factors for high caries risk in a child 0 to 4 years old.
A) Visibly adequate salivary flow
B) Sleeps with bottle filled with something other than water
C) Nurses ad lib
D) Appliances present
E) Any between meal snacks containing sugar or cooked starch
F) Recent dental restorations (<2 years)
Q3) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which probe would be best for assessing furcation involvement?
A) Marquis
B) Nabers
C) Williams
D) UNC 15
Q2) Each of the following types of radiographs could be used for periodontal disease assessment except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Periapical
B) Panoramic
C) Horizontal bitewing
D) Vertical bitewing
Q3) Upon examination of the furca, the Nabers probe will go completely through the furcation that is covered by soft tissue. This is classified as what furcation type?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels that lead to coronary heart disease are also the main cause of which of the following?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Nonhemorrhagic stroke
E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) Chronic periodontitis has been suggested as a risk factor for all of the following systemic problems except:
A) preterm birth.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) coronary heart disease.
E) type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Aspiration pneumonias occur most often in persons that:
A) have impaired gag and swallowing reflexes.
B) reside in nursing homes.
C) have dysphagia from a stroke, Parkinson's disease, or other neurologic problems.
D) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists are cautioned not to make a dental diagnosis but rather to identify client problems or conditions for the dentist, who will then make a dental diagnosis. Which of the following statements on the client record demonstrates that the dental hygienist is making a dental diagnosis rather than communicating a problem in need of a dental diagnosis?
A) Mr. Smith has a 5 mm of attachment loss in the periodontal areas on teeth 2, 3, 14, 15, 17-18, and 30-32.
B) Mr. Smith has severe necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
C) Mr. Smith has signs of periodontal disease around tooth 12.
D) There is a radiolucent area on Mr. Smith's radiograph around tooth 5.
Q2) The dental hygiene diagnosis is written in a three-part statement that includes all of the following except:
A) unmet human need.
B) cause.
C) length of time the patient has had the problem.
D) defining characteristics (signs and symptoms).
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Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk management strategy for healthcare providers is to maintain comprehensive documentation of services rendered to clients. Documentation may be limited to evidence of
Dental hygiene diagnosis, preventive, and treatment services implemented and evaluation of client outcomes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) During the implementation phase of care, evaluation strategies are applied to:
A) determine a dental hygiene prognosis of care.
B) determine a supportive continued cycle of care.
C) monitor the client's progress toward achieving a desired outcome of care.
D) evaluation strategies are not applied during the implementation phase of care.
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists should recommend replacement of toothbrushes at 2 to 3 month intervals because toothbrush bristles that are worn have been shown to remove less plaque than bristles that are not worn.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Reasons for the importance of regular toothbrushing include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) It provides for the daily application of preventive agents.
B) No chemotherapeutic agent can totally prevent formation of oral biofilm.
C) It takes less time than flossing so compliance is better.
D) It is an important component of an overall disease prevention program.
E) It is effective in removing oral biofilm and controlling gingivitis.
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25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care devices can cause damage to the hard and soft tissues of the mouth if used improperly. It is the client's responsibility to find the products they like and to learn how to properly use them by reading the instructions on the packaging.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which type of dental floss is best for Class II embrasure spaces?
A) Waxed floss
B) Unwaxed floss
C) Tufted floss
D) Dental tape
Q3) Which of the following devices is not recommended for use with dental implants?
A) Braided floss
B) Brush with foam tip
C) Clasp brush
D) Dental water jet
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incorporation of fluoride ions into enamel crystals is facilitated by the _____ the dentrifice.
A) presence of fluoride ions in
B) neutral pH of C) acidic pH of
D) basic pH of
Q2) Combined with a low pH level, insoluble materials such as abrasives are:
A) more harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
B) less harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
C) more harmful for the gums.
D) less harmful for the gums.
Q3) The level of therapeutic or medicinal agents is:
A) equal to the level of abrasives.
B) less than the level of detergents.
C) superior to the level of abrasives.
D) equal to the level of flavors.
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An operator is seated, scaling the mandibular arch with elbows raised to his or her own shoulder level. Which of the following should be done?
A) Stand up and bend over to the level that will lower the arms below shoulder level.
B) Raise the client's chair higher to improve access.
C) Raise his or her shoulders higher than the elbows.
D) Adjust the client's chair to a lower working height.
Q2) Which explorer(s) will adapt well to the line angles and detect calculus along these apical regions?
A) 3-A explorer
B) Shepard's hook explorer
C) 11/12 explorer
D) Both a and c
E) All of the above
Q3) The explorer is designed to detect and assess all of the following except:
A) calculus and dental caries.
B) irregularities in the margins of restorations.
C) gingival recession.
D) anatomic abnormalities.
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28
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periodontal debridement of implants can be accomplished by power-driven instruments in which of the following situations?
A) When no inflammation is determined adjacent to implants
B) When specialized inserts or tips are used
C) When precision thin inserts are used
D) When standard inserts or tips are used
E) When only oral biofilm removal is the objective and not calculus removal
Q2) Which of the following are disadvantages of mechanized instrumentation when compared with hand-activated instrumentation?
A) Increased efficiency, no need to sharpen, reduced lateral pressure
B) Less tissue distention, lavage, acoustic microstreaming
C) Water, increased efficiency, and increased lateral pressure
D) More precautions and limitations, aerosol production, possible temporary hearing shifts
E) Efficacy, time involved and cost
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following general statements about the root of a single rooted tooth is correct?
A) From a facial or lingual view, an imaginary midline of the root has a slight distal inclination to an imaginary midline of the crown.
B) From a facial or lingual view, proximal surfaces diverge apically.
C) From an incisal/occlusal view, proximal surfaces diverge toward the lingual.
D) From an incisal view of a horizontal cervical cross-section, the shape is round in contour.
Q2) The area of No. 11 and No. 12 will provide instrumentation challenges due to which of the following canine and first premolar features?
A) Inclined axial positioning of the maxillary canine and narrow premolar proximal surfaces
B) Ovoid maxillary canine root shape and cone-shaped premolar root
C) Prominent maxillary canine root concavities and prominent distal premolar root concavity
D) Long canine crown with a broad distal crest of curvature and short first premolar crown with a prominent mesial concavity
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Q1) Specially developed prophylaxis paste marketed to restore the original luster to veneer, composite, gold, and porcelain restorations contains which key abrasive agent?
A) Microfine arginine bicarbonate particles
B) Microfine calcium phosphate particles
C) Microfine diamond particles
D) Microfine white sapphire particles
Q2) When rubber-cup polishing procedures are treatment planned, antibiotic premedication for clients with the highest risk of adverse outcomes for infective endocarditis is recommended because bleeding may occur during polishing.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) All of the following client conditions contraindicate tooth bleaching except:
A) hypertension.
B) pregnancy.
C) nursing mothers.
D) enamel cracks.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are therapeutic interventions for gingivitis except:
A) subgingival calculus and plaque biofilm removal.
B) oral self-care education.
C) supragingival calculus and plaque biofilm removal.
D) application of in-office 2% sodium fluoride therapy.
E) antimicrobial therapy.
Q2) NSPT is part of what phase of periodontal care planning?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
E) Phase V
Q3) What is known as the restoration of gingival health, reduction in pocket depth, and a gain in or maintenance of a stable clinical attachment level?
A) Root planing
B) Therapeutic endpoint
C) Periodontal debridement of the entire mouth
D) Oral prophylaxis
E) Reevaluation of NSPT
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subantimicrobial systemic dose of antibiotics refers most closely to which of the following statements?
A) Antibacterial with shifts in normal periodontal flora
B) Used for relatively short periods of time
C) Administration of a reduced quantity of drug for alternative purposes
D) Used in clients normally sensitive to antibiotics
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding the current understanding surrounding oral rinses incorporating alcohol except:
A) the association between the alcohol in oral rinse and oral cancer has been substantiated.
B) alcohol is included in oral rinse to emulsify the antimicrobial ingredients.
C) ethanol is the type of alcohol used in oral rinses.
D) alcohol containing oral rinse is contraindicated in some individuals.
Q3) Each of the following describes professional irrigation in contrast to home irrigation systems except:
A) a cannula is generally used for application.
B) designed for subgingival penetration into diseased sites.
C) delivers pulsating stream of fluid.
D) typically employs an active ingredient.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
Q2) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of acute periodontal abscesses?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Appear as shiny, red, raised, and rounded masses, and pain on the gingiva or mucosa
C) An abscess that is confined to the marginal gingiva and often occurs in previously healthy gingival areas
D) No tooth mobility
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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Q1) All of the following statements are true about xerostomia clients and treatment except:
A) clients with xerostomia should not use dentifrices containing potassium nitrate.
B) clients with xerostomia are usually higher caries risk.
C) several hundred medications can cause xerostomia.
D) mineral availability is reduced in clients with xerostomia.
E) salivary pH is decreased and is often lower in clients with xerostomia.
F) clients often have difficulty speaking because of less lubricated oral soft tissues.
Q2) Xylitol is a noncariogenic sweetener, a sugar alcohol, and inhibits the attachment of Streptococcus mutans. Xylitol is not fermented by cariogenic bacteria and, therefore, decreases S. mutans infection.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appearance of a tooth after acid etching has been accomplished and dried should appear:
1) chalky.
2) glossy.
3) dull.
4) frosty.
5) smooth.
A) 1
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 5
D) 3, 4, and 5
Q2) When applying a sealant material, use a small amount of material on the brush _____ the pits and fissures.
A) and dab into B) and drag the material across C) using a scrubbing motion apply to D) using a sweeping motion apply to
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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Q1) Elderly adults have a higher protein requirement due to which of the following?
A) Decrease in lean body
B) Decrease in calorie needs
C) Increase in lean body
D) Increase in calorie needs
Q2) Based on her BMI, Martha would be considered which of the following?
A) Healthy
B) Overweight
C) Obese
D) Underweight
Q3) All of the following factors affect elderly adults' nutrient intake except:
A) dental caries.
B) lack of dental insurance.
C) convenience foods.
D) old age.
Q4) Energy needs increase for the elderly; nutrient needs increase as well.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are false.
D) Both statements are true.
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the four general principles that underlie motivational interviewing?
A) Express empathy, develop discrepancy, roll with resistance, and support self-efficacy
B) Express empathy, ask open-ended questions, affirm change talk, and support self-efficacy
C) Ask open-ended questions, develop discrepancy, roll with resistance, and support self-efficacy
D) Open-ended questioning, affirm change talk, reflective responding, summarizing the results of the dialogue
Q2) All of the following are true when it comes to arranging follow-up with a tobacco user except:
A) the hygienist checks in on where the clients are at in their thinking about quitting.
B) the RDH checks in on the progress in coping with the quitting process.
C) the RDH asks how many times the tobacco user has quit before.
D) for those clients with an unsuccessful quit attempt, modifications are made.
E) new goals may be set or a new quit date.
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Chapter
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Q1) The setting time of a mix of dental stone ends when the:
A) exothermic reaction is complete.
B) stone no longer flows.
C) model can be separated from the impression.
D) material is the consistency of sour cream.
Q2) The best factor in controlling the setting time of alginate impression materials is the:
A) temperature of the water.
B) water-powder ratio.
C) length of spatulation.
D) All of the above are factors.
Q3) Alginate impression materials may be separated from the stone casts after:
A) the material no longer flows.
B) 45 to 60 minutes.
C) the material is in a semihard mass.
D) the initial set.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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Q1) In a normally spaced dentition, how much space should be left between the punched holes in the rubber dam material?
A) 1 to 2 mm
B) 3 to 4 mm
C) 5 to 6 mm
D) 7 to 8 mm
Q2) Amalgam has what element as the largest amount?
A) Aluminum
B) Tin
C) Copper
D) Mercury
Q3) When comparing zinc phosphate and glass ionomer cement, which of the following is true of zinc phosphate?
A) More acidic
B) More compatible with dental pulp
C) Releases fluoride
D) All of the above
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) For dentinal hypersensitivity to occur, all of the following conditions must exist except which one?
A) Dentin must be exposed.
B) A smear layer must cover the opening of the dentinal tubules.
C) Dentinal tubules must be open.
D) Vital pulp must be present.
Q2) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
Q3) All of the following would be good self-care recommendations for this client except which one?
A) Use a daily, self-applied fluoride mouth rinse.
B) Use a soft toothbrush.
C) Use a low-abrasive fluoride toothpaste for sensitive teeth.
D) Use an oral irrigation system.
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nerve is polarized or in a resting state when:
A) there exists a change in the ion balance and the nerve membrane becomes more permeable to sodium.
B) the nerve membrane becomes less permeable to sodium.
C) there is a balance between the sodium (Na+) ion on the outside of the nerve membrane and the potassium (K+) ion on the inside of the nerve membrane.
D) sodium (Na+) and calcium (Ca++) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
E) sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
Q2) All the following are advantages to the metallic breech loading Aspirating syringe except:
A) autoclavable.
B) weight.
C) visible cartridge.
D) long lasting with proper care.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Headache, grogginess, and a "hung-over" feeling after nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia are symptoms of which of the following?
A) Polyerythemia vera
B) Overdose of oral medications
C) Diffusion hypoxia
D) Postural hypotension
E) None of the above
Q2) When the proportions of nitrous oxide and oxygen are adjusted to achieve the desired level of analgesia, each adjustment should be at the rate of which of the following?
A) 0.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
B) 0.5 to 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
C) 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
D) 1 to 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
E) 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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Q1) What kind of custom-made oral self-care device is needed by an impaired person with a limited range of arm and hand motion?
A) Powered toothbrush
B) An oral self-care device with a thick, built-up handle
C) An oral self-care device with an extended handle
D) An oral self-care device that has a bent handle
Q2) An impaired client who is unable to hold a toothbrush in the hand would benefit from a(n):
A) universal cuff.
B) irrigation device.
C) powered toothbrush.
D) handle that is wide and bulky.
Q3) Which of the following oral devices can be used to prevent self-inflicted trauma to the mouth by children with behavioral problems?
A) Obturators
B) Mouthsticks
C) Palatal lifts
D) Custom mouth protectors
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medication of choice to alleviate angina pectoris is:
A) Procardia.
B) nitroglycerin.
C) Vasotec.
D) digitalis.
Q2) Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following except:
A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) xerostomia.
C) metallic taste.
D) fatigue.
Q3) Appointment guidelines for an individual with congestive heart failure include all of the following except:
A) upright client positioning to decrease collection of fluid in the lungs.
B) limited use of ultrasonic instrumentation.
C) nutritional counseling regarding reduction of sodium intake.
D) use of nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which of the following oral conditions is considered the sixth complication of diabetes?
A) Dental caries
B) Fungal infections
C) Xerostomia
D) Periodontal disease
Q2) The safe blood glucose level necessary for unaltered dental hygiene care is _____ mg/dL.
A) less than 70
B) 80 to 149
C) 150 to 240
D) greater than 200
Q3) Glucose intolerance that can occur during pregnancy is termed:
A) impaired fasting glucose.
B) gestational diabetes mellitus.
C) prediabetes.
D) autoimmune diabetes.
Q4) Dental hygiene care should not begin until the diabetic condition is controlled.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following contribute to the breakdown of teeth following radiation therapy to the head and neck except:
A) direct effects of radiation therapy on the enamel.
B) lack of minerals available from the saliva resulting in decreased remineralization.
C) increased acidity of the mouth.
D) poor oral hygiene.
Q2) Dietary recommendations for patients with salivary gland dysfunction include less frequent eating/drinking of:
A) high-carbohydrate snacks.
B) diet sodas.
C) caffeinated beverages.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The incidence rate of oral cancer has increased since 1980. Oral cancer screening remains a very important component of dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) In advanced HIV/AIDS, one would expect to find _____ HIV viral load and a _____ CD4+ cell count.
A) high; high
B) low; high
C) high; low
D) low; low
Q2) Which of the following best describes the rationale for HAART?
A) Reduction in side effects
B) Reduction in selection of drug-resistant HIV strains
C) Reduction in required dose
D) Reduction in required dosing intervals
E) Reduction in prescription drug costs
Q3) An HIV-positive woman presents for oral care. She has white patches on her lingual surfaces, which do not easily scrape off. This is most likely to represent:
A) poor oral hygiene.
B) esophageal candidiasis.
C) oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D) herpes simplex.
E) hairy leukoplakia.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Q1) Individualized home dental care for a stroke client is most similar to that of the client with which other condition?
A) Arthritis
B) Diabetes
C) Epilepsy
D) Infective endocarditis
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction?
A) Bone cancer
B) Diving accidents
C) Polio
D) Spina bifida
Q3) Clients with which manifestation of cerebral palsy are the more challenging to treat because of their constant uncontrollable involuntary movements?
A) Spasticity
B) Athetosis
C) Ataxia
D) Rigidity
E) All are equally challenging.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of autoimmune diseases include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Adrenal insufficiency
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
E) Osteoarthritis
Q2) Using a risk assessment tool for autoimmune disease is an appropriate way for dental hygienists to diagnose undetected autoimmune disease. Clients presenting with positive responses on this risk assessment tool should be referred for further medical evaluation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is treated with any of the following except which one?
A) Dietary modifications with regard to phosphorus
B) Active vitamin D
C) Phosphorus binders
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Q2) All of the following reflect examples of The National Kidney Foundation Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (K/DOQI) Guidelines that address chronic kidney disease (CKD) and other possible medical and related conditions except which one?
A) Anemia and chronic kidney disease
B) Diabetes in chronic kidney disease
C) Oral health and chronic kidney disease
D) Cardiovascular disease in hemodialysis patients
E) Nutrition
Q3) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a serious complication affecting the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) kidneys.
C) nephrons.
D) parathyroid gland.
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate precaution to be taken when treating a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) Place client in supine position.
B) Use nitrous oxide as a sedative to reduce stress-induced reactions.
C) Assess salivary flow related to medication-induced xerostomia.
D) Plan fewer, longer appointments to reduce anxiety.
Q2) Which of the following terms best defines difficulty in breathing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cavitation
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Xerostomia
Q3) All of the following are reasons to request a medical consultation except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Cases of persistent moderate to severe asthma
B) Reported symptoms suggesting poorly controlled asthma
C) Clients taking systemic corticosteroids, such as prednisone
D) None of the above
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Q1) All of the following are oral manifestations that can be observed in clients with Down syndrome except:
A) microdontia.
B) periodontal disease.
C) hypersalivation.
D) low caries risk.
Q2) Rewards can be used to reinforce positive behavior in clients with Intellectual disabilities, all of the following are examples of social rewards except:
A) going to a party.
B) attention.
C) affection.
D) praise.
Q3) The dental hygienist must determine the need for prophylactic antibiotic premedication based on current guidelines in persons with Down syndrome, because congenital heart disease is common in this population.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Q1) Localized gingival and alveolar necrosis adjacent to maxillary premolars is a sign of _____ use.
A) marijuana
B) cocaine
C) PCP
D) alcohol
Q2) The legitimate medical use for methamphetamine is:
A) option for weight loss.
B) none; there is no known medical use.
C) treatment for insomnia.
D) used for attention deficit disorder.
Q3) Use of local anesthetic is contraindicated when treating:
A) recovering alcoholics.
B) a cocaine user.
C) a marijuana user.
D) an anabolic steroid user.
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binge eating disorder is characterized by which of following?
A) Restriction following a purge
B) Binging without purging
C) Restricting eating to nighttime only
D) Excessive exercise before a purge
E) Laxative use following a binge
Q2) All of the following physical findings are commonly found in individuals with bulimia except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Lanugo
B) Calluses on the knuckles
C) Commissure lesions
D) Palatal trauma
E) Parotid enlargement
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the epidemiology of anorexia nervosa?
A) Prevalence rate is the same for both genders
B) Most common eating disorder
C) Recovery only occurs with treatment
D) Onset primarily occurs in prepuberty, adolescents, and young adulthood
E) Low mortality and low morbidity rate
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Q1) Women and men experience similar signs of having a heart attack; therefore, it is important to be able to recognize these symptoms and get the proper help for your patient.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) New mothers should be informed of the potential _____ transmission of oral microorganisms from themselves to their infants.
A) vertical
B) horizontal
C) selective
D) nosocomial
Q3) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is the use of:
A) hormone(s) to eliminate the symptomatic effects of puberty.
B) bisphosphonates to control the symptomatic effects of menopause.
C) hormone(s) to control the symptomatic effects of menopause.
D) hormone(s) to increase the negative effects of menopause.
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Q1) A client's family tells you that the elderly mother who lives in a nursing home is complaining of soreness under her full maxillary and full mandibular denture. The mother reports that she doesn't have help to routinely take out her dentures and clean them. Which of the following would you expect to find upon oral examination? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Fetor oris
D) Oral candidiasis
E) Enlarged, red tissue
F) Dental plaque and food debris
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding diagnosis of oral disease in the elderly?
A) Clear cut oral manifestation makes diagnosis of soft-tissue lesions relatively easily
B) Most oral lesions are commonly associated with systemic disease
C) Most oral lesions are generally inflammatory
D) Generally painful and obvious to the patient
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Q1) Why should dentures not be soaked in sodium hypochlorite for more than 10 minutes?
A) To avoid loss of color in the denture base acrylic
B) To avoid dimensional change to the denture base acrylic
C) To avoid damage to the denture teeth
D) To avoid damage to soft-tissue liners
Q2) Angular cheilitis is often present in persons who experience:
A) broken denture teeth.
B) a poor fitting prosthesis.
C) a vitamin C deficiency.
D) overclosure from reduced vertical dimension.
Q3) The two components of a fixed partial dental prosthesis are a(n) _____ and a(n)
A) bridge; pontic
B) pontic; clasp
C) clasp; abutment
D) abutment; pontic
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embryologic development of the palate is complete by week:
A) 9.
B) 10.
C) 11.
D) 12.
E) 13.
Q2) During immobilization, dentifrices that are recommended to limit demineralization should contain potassium nitrate. Dentifrices aiding with tooth sensitivity should contain sodium fluoride.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) A periodontal condition that should be expected during immobilization is called: A) caries.
B) gingivitis.
C) sensitivity.
D) periodontal pockets.
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59
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does it take for the successful osseointegration of a dental implant to occur?
A) 2 months
B) 3 to 6 months
C) 7 to 10 months
D) 1 year
Q2) During an assessment, the dental hygienist should apply slight pressure to the crown of a dental implant as a method of evaluating the biologic seal. If salivary percolation is observed, it is an indication of a healthy biologic seal.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) On the mobility evaluation scale, 2 corresponds to which of the following clinical impressions?
A) absence of clinical mobility with 500 g in any direction
B) slight detectable horizontal movement
C) severe horizontal movement >0.5 mm
D) moderate visible horizontal mobility
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Q1) The process of "settling" of the teeth occurs during which of the following stages?
A) First stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: alignment and leveling
B) Second stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: correction of molar relationship and space closure
C) Third stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: the finishing stage
D) All of the above
Q2) The pubertal growth spurt is important to consider when orthodontic treatment is planned. The pubertal growth spurt begins at an earlier age in _____ and lasts for a _____ period of time than in _____.
A) boys; longer; girls
B) boys; shorter; girls
C) girls; longer; boys
D) girls; shorter; boys
Q3) The age of eruption is more important than the sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth.
A) True
B) False
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the history of children's rights and health protection recognition in the United States?
A) The health professions identified child abuse and neglect as a public health issue over 100 years ago.
B) Children's rights have been in place for over 100 years, the same length of time that animal rights have been established.
C) Until the 1960s, child abuse was viewed as a public health problem and was addressed by both the federal government and healthcare professionals.
D) Prior to the 1960s, child abuse was viewed as a family problem and not in the scope of practice of healthcare professionals.
E) All of the above are correct statements.
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding perpetrators of domestic violence?
A) They are often strangers to the victim.
B) They are often intimate partners of the victim.
C) They are often driven by the power and control they hold over the victim.
D) They are likely to repeat the abuse if the victim stays in the household.
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62
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) All of the following are symptoms associated with oral candidiasis except:
A) pain.
B) hypersalivation.
C) bleeding.
D) burning mouth.
E) inability to taste food.
Q2) Appliances with metal clasps need to be soaked in chlorhexidine solution, because sodium hypochlorite corrodes the metal clasps.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which oral complication is associated with a change in the consistency and volume of saliva?
A) Oral candidiasis
B) Mucositis
C) Drug-induced xerostomia
D) Ulcers
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Client nonadherence leads to:
1) compromised care for oral providers.
2) unsatisfactory care outcomes.
3) possible litigation.
4) satisfied clients.
5) increased fees for services.
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 5
E) All of the above
Q2) Morning huddles are great for identifying all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Daily client needs
B) Scheduling concerns
C) Client management
D) Team development
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) Fringe benefits are paid services in addition to regular wages. Some benefits are required by law, and some are optional services offered by the employer or requested by the dental hygienist.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What type of employment is it for an employee that works solely in one office, or for one employer in multiple offices, for a customary number of hours, normally, 30 to 40 hours per week?
A) Temporary
B) Full-time
C) Probationary
D) Job sharing
E) Part-time
Q3) Personal testimonies to a job candidate's competence and character is a(n):
A) mentor.
B) character witness.
C) reference.
D) advisor.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) As part of the assessment phase of care, the dental hygienist repeatedly tries to convince the client to agree to have radiographs taken. The client declines the recommendation. The risk management method used to document the client's decision to decline recommended treatment is which of the following?
A) Informed consent
B) Informed refusal
C) Verbal refusal
D) None of the above
Q2) Risk management strategies useful in dental practices to minimize dental hygiene staff risks include which of the following?
A) Outlining, in writing, the roles and responsibilities of all members of the dental team
B) Periodically reviewing a sample of client records for accuracy, clarity, and conciseness
C) Making one individual in the office responsible for developing and enforcing the guidelines for consistency
D) Both a and b
E) Options a, b, and c
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