Introduction to Criminal Psychology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Criminal Psychology explores the psychological underpinnings of criminal behavior, examining key theories, concepts, and research methods used to understand why individuals engage in unlawful acts. This course covers topics such as the development of antisocial behavior, mental disorders in relation to criminality, the role of personality and social influences, offender profiling, and the psychological assessment of offenders. Through case studies and contemporary examples, students gain insight into the interplay between psychological factors and the criminal justice system, preparing them for further study or careers in forensic psychology, law enforcement, or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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16 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Criminal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Social control theory is an example of:
A) the conformity perspective.
B) the confirmation perspective.
C) Merton's strain perspective.
D) the nonconformist perspective.
E) the learning perspective.
Answer: D
Q2) The Hate Crime Statistics Act was passed in:
A) 1975
B) 1983
C) 1990
D) 2001
E) 2007
Answer: C
Q3) The text primarily focuses on mentally disordered offenders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Developmental Risk Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those influences in a person's life that are believed to increase the probability that an individual will engage in criminal behavior are called:
A) self-regulatory factors.
B) criminogenic needs.
C) criminogenic determinants.
D) impulsive drives.
E) risk factors.
Answer: E
Q2) Several studies suggest that parental monitoring is especially important between the ages of:
A) nine to sixteen.
B) six weeks to five.
C) five to eighteen.
D) twelve to seventeen.
E) thirteen to sixteen.
Answer: A
Q3) The cause of ADHD is unknown.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Biological Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following behaviors is an example of adolescent risk taking behavior?
A) Binge drinking
B) Participation in school athletics
C) Obtaining a driver's license
D) Video gaming
E) Walking to school
Answer: A
Q2) Recent research has found that brain stimulation after age five has little impact on growth and development.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Compare and contrast behavior and molecular genetics.
Answer: NOT ANSWERED
Q4) As a group, biopsychologists believe that genetics are the sole cause of criminal behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Learning and Situational
Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain Bandura's theory of moral disengagement.
Q2) According to Akers' differential association reinforcement theory, criminal behavior develops primarily as the result of:
A) frustration.
B) heightened expectancies that are innate in the individual.
C) social reinforcements given by significant others.
D) classical conditioning.
E) modeling.
Q3) Skinner argued that the most effective way to eliminate behavior was through extinction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In his recent theory, Bandura states that before people can engage in behavior that violates their moral principles they must:
A) learn the techniques of that behavior.
B) believe that the reward outweighs the punishment.
C) reject their moral principles.
D) accept a higher authority.
E) disengage from their moral principles.
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Chapter 5: Human Aggression and Violence
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Q1) Aggressive behavior is always criminal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between road rage and aggressive driving.
Q3) Which of the following crimes is associated with instrumental aggression?
A) Larceny
B) Manslaughter
C) Rape
D) Vandalism
E) Vehicular homicide
Q4) The term defined as an incident in which an angry, impatient, or aroused motorist intentionally injures or kills, or tries to injure or kill, another motorist, passenger, or pedestrian, in response to a traffic dispute, altercation, or grievance is called:
A) aggressive driving.
B) hostile driving.
C) immature driving.
D) road rage.
E) vehicular homicide.
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in adequately defining aggression.
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Chapter 6: Juvenile Delinquency
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child delinquent is between the ages of:
A) 7 and 12.
B) birth and 7.
C) 6 and 13.
D) birth and 14.
E) 3 and 13.
Q2) In studies examining gender differences and juvenile crime, recent research has shown that the gender gap for drug and violent offenses is getting smaller.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is most accurate about juvenile crime?
A) Juvenile crime has generally decreased since the mid 1990s.
B) The juvenile crime rate has been steadily increasing since 1990.
C) Compared to adults, juveniles are responsible for disproportionately higher number of violent crimes.
D) Juveniles are more likely to be perpetrators rather than victims of violent crime.
E) The majority of juvenile offenders are arrested and convicted.
Q4) Briefly describe the three categories of prevention and give an example of each.
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8
Chapter 7: Criminal Psychopathy
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Q1) Criminal psychopaths make up about what percent of the male inmate population in a maximum security prison?
A) 5-8%
B) 10-25%
C) 85-0%
D) 45-55%
E) 30-43%
Q2) Research by Robert Hare on the orienting response suggests that psychopaths:
A) do not habituate to stimuli easily.
B) give larger orienting responses to stimuli than nonpsychopaths.
C) usually exhibit no discernible orienting response to stimuli.
D) are less sensitive and alert to their environment.
E) have difficulty adjusting to new situations.
Q3) Describe at least one concern about using the PCL-R across racial and ethnic backgrounds.
Q4) Compare and contrast the terms sociopath and psychopath.
Q5) Some research suggests that psychopathy and bipolar disorder are on the same spectrum of disorders.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Crime and Mental Disorders
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Q1) What is the most common type of forensic assessment conducted for the criminal courts?
A) Assessment of sex offenders
B) Assessment of sanity
C) Assessment of dangerousness at sentencing
D) Assessment of competency to stand trial
E) Risk assessment
Q2) According to the text, the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) IST stands for:
A) invasive sexual treatment.
B) intrusive sexual treatment.
C) incompetent to stand trial.
D) incentive system targets.
E) intensive schizophrenic treatment.
Q4) Insanity is a legal term that refers to a defendant's state of mind at the time of the crime.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Homicide, Assault, and Family Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective way of breaking the wife-abuse cycle appears to be to:
A) change the abuser's attitudinal system.
B) change an abuser's social network.
C) use legal sanctions.
D) use all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q2) Males are more likely than female to perpetrate which act of family violence?
A) Munchausen Syndrome by proxy
B) Neonaticide
C) Elderly abuse
D) Filicide
E) Shaken baby syndrome
Q3) Filicide refers to the killing of:
A) an infant.
B) a child older than 24 hours.
C) a child by the mother.
D) a child within the first 24 hours after birth.
E) a sibling.
Q4) List some of the factors that make the family so difficult to study.
Q5) Explain what research tells about the perpetrators and victims of elder abuse.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Multiple Murder, School, and Workplace
Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the usefulness of organized, disorganized, and mixed crime scene classification.
Q2) Research shows that the majority of school shooters had a history of cruelty to animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not listed in the text as a motive of male serial murderers?
A) Domination
B) Sexual excitement
C) Media attention
D) Material gain
E) Game playing
Q4) The majority of mass murderers plan to die at the crime scene.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Research shows that criminal profiling should be restricted to serial murder and serial sexual assaults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Psychology of Terrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The developmental histories of most terrorists are fraught with mental instability and antisocial behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of Staub's terrorist groups?
A) Hierarchal submission
B) Superiority complex
C) Equality
D) Cultrual devaluation
E) Randomized violence
Q3) An individual's indoctrination to fully embrace a terrorist group's ideology and mission is called:
A) radicalization.
B) social modeling.
C) self-censure.
D) group affiliation.
E) social marginalization.
Q4) Describe the process of becoming a terrorist.
Q5) List and describe briefly the characteristics of lone wolf-terrorists. Provide an example.
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Chapter 12: Sexual Assault
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe three of the rape myths discussed in the Chapter.
Q2) The category of sexual aggression in which the offender becomes sexually aroused by physical or psychological brutality is called:
A) eroticized aggression.
B) expressive sexual aggression.
C) coercive sexual aggression.
D) instrumental sexual aggression.
E) systemic sexual aggression.
Q3) How do some rapists justify their crime? Define just world hypothesis and include how this term plays a role in the justification of rape.
Q4) Summarize the research on the prevalence of acquaintance rape.
Q5) Which of the following is not a provision of the Adam Walsh Child Protection Act?
A) Establishment of a national database system for reporting by states
B) Increased penalties for sex trafficking of children
C) Tier 3 offenders must update their location every three months for the rest of their lives.
D) Tier 1 and Tier 2 must update their location every three months for 3 years.
E) Failure to register and update whereabouts is a federal felony.
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Chapter 13: Sexual Assault of Children and Youth and Other
Sexual Offenses
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Q1) Evocative therapy is a treatment approach for sex offenders that focuses on:
A) helping offenders understand their motivations for sexual behavior.
B) increasing their empathy for their victims.
C) increasing their social competence.
D) a and b
E) a and c
Q2) Compare and contrast three theories of explanations of why certain adult males prefer children for sexual gratification.
Q3) In Finkelhor's explanations for pedophilia, blockage refers to:
A) factors preventing the offender from meeting his needs.
B) biological factors present in the offender.
C) the offender's ability to suppress sexual drives.
D)the offender's inability to attain sexual arousal.
E) the offender's inability to control sexual impulses.
Q4) Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes exhibitionists?
A) Most begin their behavior at around age 30.
B) They generally display well-developed social skills.
C) They are frequently plagued by mental disorders.
D) They often express a desire to change their deviant behavior.
E) both c and d
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Chapter 14: Property and Public Order Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) A concept that refers to the perceived discrepancy between what an individual has and what he or she would like to have is called:
A) restrictive opportunity.
B) discrepant distribution of wealth.
C) relative deprivation.
D) displacement of needs fallacy.
E) status inequality.
Q2) Joe Harris is a professional burglar who has targeted the Livingston family home at 57 Mulberry Lane. On the day of the burglary, Joe notices Mrs. Livingston's car is unexpectedly parked in the driveway. Joe decides to burglarize another home on Mulberry Lane instead. Joe is using:
A) occupancy cues.
B) burglar ease.
C) integrated transference.
D) systematic skill.
E) entry strategies.
Q3) Two thirds of burglary cases involve commercial establishments.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Violent Economic Crime and Crimes of Initimidation
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Q1) In hostage-taking situations, those hostages who, after release, have considerable difficulty dealing with the after-effects of the incident are called:
A) survivors.
B) pseudo-victims.
C) masked depressed survivors.
D) Maslach burnouts.
E) succumbers.
Q2) From a psychological perspective, many arsonists have no intention of harming people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which pattern of firesetting is often linked to the cover-up of other crimes?
A) Instrumental-object pattern
B) Expressive-object pattern
C) Intentional-expressive pattern
D) Expressive-person pattern
E) Instrumental-person
Q4) Describe the six primary motives for arson. What additional category was suggested by Douglas et al.?
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Chapter 16: Substance Abuse, Alcohol, and Crime
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Q1) Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between alcohol and aggression?
A) The majority of crimes are caused by alcohol use.
B) There is no relationship between alcohol use and violence.
C) There is no empirical research linking alcohol and violence.
D) Alcohol facilitates aggressive behavior.
E) Long term and excessive alcohol consumption is linked to violent behavior.
Q2) Describe and explain briefly Goldstein's tripartite conceptual model for understanding the drug/crime relationship.
Q3) PCP is classified as a central nervous system:
A) depressant.
B) tranquilizer.
C) hallucinogen.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q4) Summarize and discuss the six main conclusions researchers have reached in recent years regarding the relationship between drugs and crime.
Q5) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.
Q6) Define and explain drug tolerance and dependence.
Page 18
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