Introduction to Criminal Justice Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Criminal Justice provides students with an overview of the American criminal justice system, exploring its main components: law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course examines the roles and interplay of police, attorneys, judges, and correctional personnel, emphasizing the procedures from arrest through trial, sentencing, and release. Key concepts include crime definitions, the rights of the accused, due process, crime control models, and the impact of social, political, and legal factors on justice administration. Students gain foundational knowledge on contemporary issues such as juvenile justice, emerging technologies, and reforms in criminal justice policy.
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CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) Sometimes a constituent consensus forces the government to move more quickly due to public pressure on a crime issue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The majority of those inmates released from incarceration will not have contact with the correctional system again.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Crimes that appear to harm only the offender are often called
A) victimless crimes
B) status offenses
C) deviant behavior
D) discretionary offenses
Answer: A
Q4) __________ is a threat or an attempt to do violence to another person that causes that person to fear immediate physical harm.
Answer: Assault
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) __________ is the study of how certain traits or qualities are transmitted from parents to their offspring.
Answer: Genetics
Q2) A __________ is a possible explanation for an observed occurrence that can be tested by further investigation.
Answer: hypothesis
Q3) The scientific study of mental processes and behavior is called __________.
A) genetics
B) biology
C) psychology
D) anomie
Answer: C
Q4) Research has shown that a small group of juvenile offenders was responsible for a disproportionate amount of crime attributed to a large group of young males.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) In the early years of the 2000s, the nation's crime rate __________ for a time before
Resuming its downward slope
A) flattened
B) increased C) decreased D) fluctuated wildly
Answer: A
Q2) Murder in the first degree occurs under which of the following circumstances?
A) When the murder committed is deliberate and not premeditated
B) When the murder committed is not premeditated but negligent
C) When the murder committed is negligent and accidental
D) When the murder committed is premeditated and deliberate
Answer: D
Q3) The FBI divides the criminal offenses it measures into seven major categories.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________. Answer: life imprisonment
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) The Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to a speedy trial, a trial by jury, a public trial, the right to confront witnesses, and the right to a lawyer at various stages of criminal proceedings.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of corpus delicti?
A) actus reus
B) mens rea
C) mala in se
D) concurrence
Q3) Which of the following is not a category protected under hate crimes laws?
A) race
B) ethnicity
C) gender
D) socioeconomic status
Q4) The Eight Amendment to the Constitution protects against which of the following?
A) unreasonable searches and seizures
B) self-incrimination
C) cruel and unusual punishment
D) double jeopardy
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) After surveying a year's worth of dispatch data from the Wilmington (Delaware) Police Department, researchers Jack Greene and Carl Klockars found that officers spent how much of their time enforcing the law or dealing with crimes?
A) one-fourth
B) half
C) two-thirds
D) three-fourths
Q2) A uniformed security guard patrolling a shopping mall parking lot or a bank lobby has one primary function- to convince a potential criminal to search out a shopping mall or bank that does not have private security, this is known as the __________ factor.
Q3) In the public's mind, the primary responsibility of the police is which of the following?
A) to enforce laws
B) to provide services
C) to prevent crime
D) to preserve the peace
Q4) Explain why police officers are allowed discretionary powers in the United States.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Most police departments usually require AT LEAST which of the following in regards to education?
A) completion of middle school
B) completion of high school
C) completion of an undergraduate degree
D) completion of a postgraduate degree
Q2) When a police officer accepts money or other forms of payment in exchange for "favors"
It is known as:
A) use of force
B) bribery
C) discretion
D) information gathering
Q3) The vast majority of patrol shifts are completed without a single arrest.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ is a comparison of the number of crimes cleared by some sort of dissolution of a case that may result in arrest and prosecution with the number of crimes reported during any given time period
Q5) Describe how forensic experts use ballistics to solve crimes.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) Which Constitutional Amendment is the legal basis for the Miranda warning?
A) First Amendment
B) Fourth Amendment
C) Fifth Amendment
D) Sixth Amendment
Q2) Explain the exclusionary rule and the "fruit of the poisoned tree" doctrine. Describe how these rules/concepts affect police officers.
Q3) Explain the four elements criminal justice professor Rolando V. del Carmen has identified that must be present for an arrest to take place.
Q4) A brief detention of a person by law enforcement agents for questioning is called a __________.
Q5) The constitutional rights of accused persons taken into custody by law enforcement officials are called __________.
Q6) One of the hoped-for consequences of the exclusionary rule is that it forces police to gather evidence properly.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) The premise of the courtroom workgroups is based on the constant interaction between the members.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Specialty courts are lower courts that have jurisdiction over one specific area of criminal activity, such as illegal drugs or domestic violence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Courts in which most cases usually begin and in which questions of fact are examined are called:
A) trial courts
B) county courts
C) district courts
D) appellate courts
Q4) Explain the difference in jurisdiction between trial courts and appellate courts?
Q5) Define the four different functions of the court according to your book.
Q6) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) What is the single goal of the prosecutor after charging a defendant with a crime?
A) rebuttal
B) acquittal
C) rehabilitation
D) conviction
Q2) A rule of evidence requiring that communications between a client and his or her attorney be kept confidential, unless the client consents to disclosure is called:
A) attorney-client privilege
B) Gideon protection
C) Strickland standard
D) adversary
Q3) A businessperson who agrees, for a fee, to pay the bail amount if the accused fails to appear in court as ordered is called a _______________.
Q4) A(n) __________ is a written accusation that probable cause exists to believe that a named person has committed a crime.
Q5) List and briefly explain the different forms of plea bargaining agreements.
Q6) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) Jury lists are usually drawn from which of the following?
A) email address searches of people in the area
B) phone book numbers of people in the area
C) drivers license rolls and voter registration lists
D) volunteer lists of people who sign up for jury duty
Q2) In which of the following cases is the right to a jury trial not constitutionally required?
A) homicide cases
B) capital cases
C) MIP cases
D) assault cases.
Q3) __________ is an order that requires correctional officials to bring an inmate before a court or a judge and explain why he or she is being held in prison.
Q4) When a defendant refuses to testify in court due to the fact that the information might incriminate them, this is known as ______________.
Q5) A __________ is a jury whose members are so irreconcilably divided in their opinions that they cannot reach a verdict.
Q6) Explain the difference between real evidence and testimonial evidence.
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) What U.S. Supreme Court case held that juveniles who committed their crime before the age of 18 were no longer able to be executed?
A) Furman v. Georgia
B) Weems v. United States
C) Roper v. Simmons
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q2) What U.S. Supreme Court case held that cruel and unusual punishment is defined by the changing norms of society and is not based on historical interpretations?
A) Furman v. Georgia
B) Weems v. United States
C) Roper v. Simmons
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q3) A period of incarceration that is fixed by a legislative body and cannot be reduced by judges or other corrections officials is called __________.
Q4) __________ is the philosophy that those who commit criminal acts should be punished based on the severity of the crime.
Q5) Explain the concept of restorative justice.
Q6) Explain the concept of "good time" and truth in sentencing.
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) The length of probation is usually __________ than the length of incarceration the offender would have received.
A) considerably longer
B) considerably shorter
C) about the same
D) slightly longer
Q2) One of the main reasons behind the philosophy of reintegration is the idea that:
A) Most offenders will be back in the community at some point in time anyway.
B) Most offenders will reoffend anyway.
C) Most offenders don't care whether they end up in prison anyway.
D) It is more expensive
Q3) In what case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that a person's home or car could be forfeited even though the owner was unaware that the property was connected to illegal activity.
A) Mempa v. Rhay
B) Bennis v. Michigan
C) Minnesota v. Murphy
D) Miranda v. Arizona
Q4) Explain how probation can be revoked.
Q5) Explain alternative sentencing arrangements.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) The period of time a person denied bail (or unable to pay it) has spent in jail prior to his or her trial is called __________.
Q2) As of 2011, imprisonment rates for women have been growing at ___ the rate of men.
A) the same
B) two times
C) three times
D) seven times
Q3) The _________ model of prison organization emphasizes treatment and reform, with security concerns being secondary to the well-being of the inmates.
Q4) Children of convicts are more likely to become involved in delinquent behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A minimum-security prison would NOT be likely to house which of the following types of offenders?
A) white-collar criminals
B) rapists
C) first-time offenders
D) non-violent offenders
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Tower officers supervise cell blocks containing as many as four hundred inmates, as well as the correctional officers on duty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The release of an inmate into a community supervision program at the discretion of the parole board is called which of the following?
A) mandatory release
B) discretionary release
C) pardon
D) parole
Q3) _______________ is the practice of separating inmates based on certain characteristics, such as age, gender, race, gang affiliation, or type of crime committed.
Q4) Explain the process of parole revocation.
Q5) The process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison is called: A) mandatory sentence expiration
B) probation revocation
C) parole revocation
D) reentry
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) A __________ is a juvenile who has been found to have engaged in behavior deemed unacceptable for those under a certain statutorily determined age.
Q2) In the 1899 Illinois juvenile court the child being prosecuted was called a:
A) defendant
B) offender
C) respondent
D) plaintiff
Q3) __________ is a doctrine that holds that the state has a responsibility to look after the well-being of children.
Q4) The first juvenile court was created in the state of __________.
Q5) A process in which the prosecutor decides whether a juvenile offender's case will Be heard in juvenile or adult court is called:
A) judicial waiver
B) automatic transfer
C) prosecutorial waiver
D) police waiver
Q6) __________ is a term used to explain the fact that delinquency and criminal activity tends to decline with age.
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) The primary goal of the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act is to:
A) relax restrictions on information sharing between various U.S. law enforcement agencies
B) put as many terrorists to death as possible in the United States
C) hamstring terrorist organizations by cutting off their funding from outside sources
D) eliminate the statute of limitations for terroristic activities
Q2) The Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act was passed in response to the attacks on the Federal Building in Oklahoma City.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In military tribunals, how many on the military officer's panel needs to agree on a suspect's guilt to convict him or her?
A) half
B) two-thirds
C) three-fourths
D) all
Q4) Explain how American law enforcement agencies have used "preventive policing" to combat terrorism.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) The Internet has been a boon to the pornography industry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Studies have shown that nearly __________ of American teenagers who use the Internet report being targets of cyberbullying.
A) one in five
B) one in ten
C) one in fifteen
D) one in seventeen
Q3) Information or data of value to a criminal investigation that is either stored or transmitted by electronic means is called __________.
Q4) Which of the following is one of the main weaknesses of using encryption to protect material on computers?
A) the ease with which iencryptiont can be hacked
B) the rate at which encryption it becomes obsolete
C) the rate at which spam overrides encryptionit
D) the ease with which viruses obstruct encryptionit
Q5) A __________ is a network of computers that have been appropriated without the knowledge of their owners and used to spread harmful programs via the Internet.
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