Introduction to Criminal Justice Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Criminal Justice provides students with a comprehensive overview of the American criminal justice system and its key components, including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections. The course explores the historical development and contemporary functions of each component, examining the processes of crime investigation, prosecution, adjudication, and punishment. Students will discuss major criminological theories, the roles of various justice agencies, and current issues such as policing strategies, sentencing practices, and criminal justice reform. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course encourages critical thinking about ethical challenges, policy debates, and the pursuit of justice in a diverse society.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law for the Criminal Justice Professional 3rd Edition by Norman M Garland
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16 Chapters
672 Verified Questions
672 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Nature, Origins, Purposes, Structure, and
Operation of the Criminal Justice System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the case of felonies,a law enforcement officer only needs reasonable suspicion to believe that a person has committed a crime before he or she may arrest the suspect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) One reason for the decline of judicially created criminal law definitions is the principle of ______,which is a core concept of the American system of criminal justice.
A)common law
B)case law
C)legality
D)mens rea
Answer: C
Q3) Explain the criminal justice system perspective as an administrative system.
Answer: In this role,the criminal justice system is the official apparatus for enforcing the criminal law.It consists of law enforcement agencies,prosecution and defense attorneys,courts,and correctional institutions and agencies.
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3
Chapter 2: Constitutional Limitations on the Criminal Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rights to speech that the First Amendment does NOT automatically cover is A)obscenity.
B)grievances against the government.
C)the advocacy of unlawful conduct.
D)fighting words.
Answer: B
Q2) Write a paragraph explaining the historical basis for the Bill of Rights and why they were created.
Answer: On the basis of experiences as English colonists,many people objected to the U.S.Constitution because it did not explicitly protect the rights of the people.These former colonists were aware of the ways in which a government can abuse its authority,and they wanted to avoid it in the United States.As a result,the first U.S.Congress proposed and then adopted a set of 12 amendments that defined the powers of the federal government and the rights of the people.By 1791,the states had adopted 10 of these,which became known as the Bill of Rights.
Q3) The U.S.Constitution defines only one crime-murder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Classification of Crimes and Basic Elements of Criminal Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A civil offense is prosecuted by government attorneys who represent the community as a whole.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The _____________ usually consists of a voluntary action.
A)omission
B)purpose
C)intent
D)actus reus
Answer: D
Q3) Causes that are separate from the defendant's actions and for which the defendant is not help responsibility for an harm caused are named
A)independent interrupting causes.
B)dependent intervening causes.
C)independent intervening causes.
D)dependent interrupting causes.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Parties to a Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) Additional criminal acts committed during the commission of a planned crime will be considered a natural and foreseeable consequence if they
A)are harmful to others,including innocent victims.
B)involve the use of a dangerous or deadly weapon.
C)require the accomplice to take actions that he or she does not want.
D)are necessary to accomplish the original criminal goal.
Q2) The MPC states a person can be prosecuted as a principal when the crime is committed by an innocent agent if the person
A)A person who "causes an innocent or irresponsible person to engage in [criminal] conduct" is liable for that conduct or act.
B)The defendant must act with the intent to commit the crime.
C)The accused must cause the agent to commit the criminal act.
D)All the above are correct.
Q3) Accomplice liability does not constitute an independent criminal offense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three criteria used by the MPC to define an accomplice?
Q5) What is the difference between an entrapper and an agent provocateur?
Q6) What is the difference between a principal and an accessory?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Incomplete Crimes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A defendant may not succeed in completing a crime and will not be liable for the attempted crime if
A)the defendant could get concerned that the police were about to intercept his ongoing actions and stop committing a crime out of fear of being caught.
B)the police could stop the ultimate harm prior to it happening by catching the defendant in a later stage of planning the crime.
C)the defendant's plan to commit a crime fails in the process of committing it.
D)the defendant chooses to not carry out the initial actions needed to begin to implement the criminal act.
Q2) What is abandonment?
Q3) Name three of the four types of impossibility that are discussed in your text.
Q4) Abandonment is a valid defense,in those jurisdictions that recognize it as such,only when the accused has a genuine change of heart about committing the crime and clearly manifests the desire to abandon the criminal enterprise entirely.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name four of the six steps of the crime of intent.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Defenses to Crimes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-defense is universally recognized in American criminal law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The MPC provides that consent is a defense if
A)the victim is legally incompetent to authorize consent.
B)consent is given by someone whose improvident consent is sought to be prevented by the law defining the offense.
C)such consent negatives an element of the offense or precludes the infliction of the harm or evil sought to be prevented by the law defining such an offense.
D)consent is given by a person who is unable to make a reasonable judgment.
Q3) The MPC states that __________ for the defense of another to be asserted.
A)the actor in physical proximity
B)the actor must believe that his or her action is necessary for the protection of the third person
C)the third person must have a legitimate reason for disliking the perpetrator
D)the third person must be licensed to use protective force.
Q4) Name the four situations in which law enforcement officers are authorized to use non-deadly force.
Q5) Name and define the two most important categories of true defenses.
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Chapter 7: Punishment and Sentencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imposition of punishment in the context of an "eye for an eye" is called
A)deterrence.
B)Res gestae.
C)vengeance.
D)mens rea.
Q2) General deterrence is the effect the imposition of punishment has in causing the wrongdoer to refrain from repeating the act.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is a hallmark of the utilitarian view.
A)regret
B)penitence
C)vengeance
D)All the above are correct.
Q4) State when the death penalty cannot be imposed.
Q5) Punishment is not exclusively meted out through the criminal justice system or the criminal law.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain indeterminate sentencing.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Criminal Homicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a defendant to be held criminally responsible for causing the death of another human being,the victim must be alive at the time of the defendant's actions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name the four mental states that are used under modern law to define malice aforethought.
Q3) Under common law,what were the five types of legally sufficient provocation that the accused could claim for a successful "heat of passion" defense? Which is no longer valid today?
Q4) __________ is NOT an example of murder?
A)"The accused causes a death in the course of committing a misdemeanor"
B)"Any killing that results from extreme reckless conduct"
C)"The accused causes a death in the course of committing a felony"
D)"The actor intends to maim or seriously injure the victim but not kill the victim"
Q5) Name the five elements of criminal homicide.
Q6) A feticide can be defined as an abortion performed before viability is reached.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Crimes Against Persons: Other Offenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is NOT one an element of kidnapping.
A)"Knowingly and substantially interfering with another person's liberty"
B)"Inducing another to go from one place to another with intent secretly to confine him against his will"
C)"Knowingly and secretly confines another against his will"
D)"Force or threatening of imminent force carries another from one place to another with intent secretly to confine him against his will"
Q2) Wives who have been victims of spousal rape can sue their husbands in civil court for
A)pain incurred as a result of spousal rape.
B)suffering incurred as a result of spousal rape.
C)medical costs incurred as a result of spousal rape.
D)All the above are correct.
Q3) Under Megan's Law,the information provided on sex offender databases includes
A)the names of sex offenders nationally.
B)directions to the homes of sex offenders.
C)a photograph of the perpetrator (if available).
D)None of the above is correct.
Q4) What are the two definitions of assault?
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Chapter 10: Crimes Against Habitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your textbook names four different requirements that states include in their arson statutes.Name three of them.
Q2) Even under the most comprehensive definitions of modern burglary,the offense does NOT include
A)the event happening in the nighttime.
B)the crime being committed by entry alone.
C)an intent to commit any criminal offense.
D)happening in any building,structure,or vehicle.
Q3) Breaking and entering is very similar to burglary,except it is lacking one element-the specific intent to commit a theft or felony inside the structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A typical element of the crime of possession of a burglar's tools is the A)intent to use the tool in the commission of a burglary.
B)possession of possible burglar's tools in one's car for work or school.
C)intent to modify legal instruments into burglar's tools.
D)possession of tools in one's home that could be used for burglary.
Q5) Your text gives some examples of homes that are legally considered to be uninhabited.Name three of these.
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Chapter 11: Crimes Against Property
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)__________ may have substantial value,but it could be difficult to identify the owner.
A)purse containing cash and a driver's license
B)wallet containing several credit cards
C)$20 bill
D)sports club membership I.D.
Q2) Unauthorized use of a motor vehicle does NOT require that the __________
A)actor knowingly take control.
B)actor use an instrumentality.
C)taking is done without authority.
D)object taken is another person's vehicle.
Q3) In the crime of joyriding,the state does not need to prove the defendant took the property "without intent to permanently deprive."
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is NOT an example of shoplifting?
A)Altering price tags in a clothing store
B)Concealment of merchandise at a market
C)Thefts of merchandise from a department store
D)Thefts of supplies from one's office
Page 13
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Chapter 12: White-Collar Crimes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,__________ is NOT one of the three elements of tax evasion.
A)the existence of a tax deficiency
B)the existence of unreported nontaxable income
C)willfulness
D)an affirmative act constituting an evasion or attempted evasion of a tax payment
Q2) The FDCA definition of a drug includes articles intended for use
A)in the cure of disease.
B)intended for use as food for man or other animals.
C)in adding vitamins to a daily diet.
D)intended for use as food for man or other animals
Q3) The _________ prohibits certain activities that harm competition,including exclusive dealing arrangements and mergers that damage competition.
A)Federal Trade Commission Act
B)Clayton Act
C)Sherman Act
D)Robinson-Patman Act
Q4) What are the four primary elements of securities fraud?
Q5) Name four of the prohibited acts under the Federal Food,Drug,and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
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Chapter 13: Crimes Against Public Order, safety, and Morality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name four of the forms of gambling that are discussed in your textbook.
Q2) __________ are defined as an assault weapon.
A)Rifles with conspicuous pistol grips
B)Pistols with shrouds
C)Shotguns with a higher ammunition capacity
D)All the above are correct.
Q3) A common example of a mala prohibita crime is
A)gambling.
B)assault.
C)rape.
D)manslaughter.
Q4) Breach of the peace offenses includes A)disorderly conduct.
B)unlawful assembly.
C)rout.
D)All the above are correct.
Q5) Explain the significance of Papachristou v.City of Jacksonville to vagrancy laws.
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Q6) What is the legal definition of a firearm,and what kinds of guns does this definition exclude?
Chapter 14: Drug-And Alcohol-Related Crimes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Possession with the "intent to deliver" is also called
A)possession for sale.
B)possession with intent to sell or distribute.
C)possession with intent.
D)both possession for sale and possession with intent to sell or distribute.
Q2) Possessing drug paraphernalia is a crime only in tandem with the possession of an illegal substance itself.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name four of the five proposals for harm reduction that are named in your textbook.
Q4) __________ is categorized by federal law as a Schedule I drug.
A)Phencyclidine (PCP)
B)Morphine
C)Marijuana
D)Cocaine
Q5) What is a drug conspiracy,and how can this offense be established?
Q6) What are the three criteria for placing a drug into Schedule I?
Q7) Name four of the provisions of the Uniform Controlled Substances Act.
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Q8) What was the reasoning behind Prohibition,and what was its actual outcome?
Chapter 15: Crimes Against the Administration of Justice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most businesses that make campaign contributions,gratuities,and entertainment of some sort to an entity hoping for some type of favors,but it only becomes bribery when
A)both parties are caught.
B)the recipient engages in an unethical political practice on behalf of the giver.
C)when the payer and the recipient agree to a set schedule for "gifts."
D)when there is an agreement between the payer and the recipient that the briber expects "something for something".
Q2) Suppressing evidence occurs when a defendant,or a person working on behalf of the defendant,__________ evidence relevant to a grand jury investigation.
A)invents
B)hides
C)changes
D)presents
Q3) Resisting arrest is not considered a crime in most states.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the four elements of witness tampering.
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Chapter 16: Organized Crime,gangs,and Terrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is NOT true about organized crime syndicates such as the Mafia.
A)"Crime syndicates have terrorized many innocent people that are forced to live among these organizations"
B)"Crime syndicates have murdered countless innocent people"
C)"Crime syndicates are glamorous and honorable when compared to other criminal behavior"
D)"Crime syndicates have brought an endless supply of drugs into the U.S."
Q2) Explain how money laundering works,and what happens to money once it is laundered.
Q3) Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO)is NOT
A)meant to eradicate sophisticated organized crime syndicates.
B)a federal law that criminalizes illegal activities committed by organized crime members.
C)a tool for states to successfully prosecute organized criminals when their activities are intrastate.
D)a way for federal prosecutors to break down the structure and sophistication of organized criminal syndicates.
Q4) Name the members of a typical chain of command in an organized crime group.
Q5) Name three typical criminal activities of organized crime groups.
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