Introduction to Criminal Justice Exam Preparation Guide
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Criminal Justice provides a comprehensive overview of the American criminal justice system, including its history, structure, and contemporary issues. The course examines the roles and functions of police, courts, and corrections, exploring how each component contributes to the administration of justice. Students will study foundational concepts such as due process, the rights of the accused, and the balance between individual liberties and public safety. Through lectures, case studies, and discussions, the course also addresses key topics such as crime trends, ethical challenges, and the impact of social and cultural factors on justice policies and practices.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Evidence 8th Edition by Judy Hails
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17 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) In a jury trial, the "trier of the facts":
A)evaluates the evidence.
B)decides whether a witness is qualified to testify.
C)determines which laws should be applied to the evidence.
D)all of these
Answer: A
Q2) In a criminal trial, the defense has the burden of persuasion that the prosecution's evidence is not sufficient to convict the defendant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A criminal defense attorney must present every possible defense even though he/she believes a particular defense is frivolous.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Role of the Courts
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Q1) A Petition for Writ of Habeas Corpus should be filed:
A)with the court in jurisdiction where conviction was entered.
B)with the court in jurisdiction where person is currently confined.
C)with the appellate court in state where conviction was entered.
D)with the U.S.Supreme Court.
Answer: B
Q2) In a criminal case, the judge can set aside the verdict if the jury voted to convict but not if they voted to acquit.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) A federal judge can be impeached if convicted of a felony.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) An appellate court only considers issues raised by the parties in their briefs. A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Adjudication Process
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Q1) Anthony told Mark that Sandy would be impeached if she took the witness stand.Why would Anthony say this
A)Sandy may be biased because she is the defendant's sister
B)Sandy is a federal judge
C)Sandy is a minor
D)Sandy has never testified at a trial before
Answer: A
Q2) The complaint must state:
A)crimes the defendant is alleged to have committed.
B)where the alleged crime was committed.
C)when the alleged crime was committed.
D)All of these.
Answer: D
Q3) The criminal complaint describes the charges:
A)narrative form describing everything defendant is accused of doing.
B)state facts for each charge in separate counts.
C)state facts for felonies but not for misdemeanors.
D)state code sections violated but not give the facts.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Types of Evidence
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Q1) Should Judge John inform the jury about the stipulation
A)Yes, the prosecution has the right to enter stipulations in criminal trials.
B)Judge John should accept the stipulation only if he believes it is true.
C)Judge John should reject Paul's request for a stipulation because Dick did not agree to it.
D)Judge John should reject Paul's request for a stipulation because stipulations are unconstitutional in criminal cases.
Q2) Corroborative evidence merely restates facts already introduced into evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Something is "at issue" in a trial if it relates to:
A)any disputed element of a crime that is charged.
B)any act of the defendant after the allege crime occurred.
C)any other crime committed by the defendant.
D)any prior conviction of the defendant .
Q4) Explain the difference between cumulative evidence and corroborative evidence and give an example of each.
Q5) Cumulative evidence may be excluded even though it is relevant.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Direct and Circumstantial Evidence
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Q1) Both direct and circumstantial evidence require the jury to draw an inference in order to establish the fact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the rule about introducing evidence of the defendant's ability to commit the crime.Give three examples of evidence that can be used for this purpose.
Q3) The jurors decide how much weight to give individual pieces of evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evidence the defendant has previously committed similar crimes is admissible: A)only if there is sufficient similarity to satisfy a modus operandi.
B)if the defendant is claiming mistaken identity as a defense at the current trial. C)only if the defendant takes the stand and denies the prior offenses. D)prior offenses are not admissible because they are prejudicial.
Q5) Attempts to intimidate witness are admissible as evidence of guilt only if the witness filed a police report about the incident.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Witnesses
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Q1) Can the defense impeach Becky if she testifies at trial
A)No, only expert witnesses can be impeached.
B)No, only individuals who are not telling the truth can be impeached at trial.
C)No, the defense can try to show that Becky is not competent to be a witness at a voir dire hearing, but if the judge roles she is a competent witness she cannot be impeached.
D)Yes, the defense is entitled to try to impeach all prosecution witnesses.
Q2) Expert witnesses can be impeached:
A)only during voir dire.
B)only if it can be proven they falsified the test results.
C)only if they lied about their education and/or experience in the field.
D)in the same manner as lay witnesses.
Q3) A witness can be impeached for having committed a crime in the recent past even though it did not result in a conviction:
A)only if criminal charges are pending.
B)only if crime is perjury.
C)if it would be considered an immoral act.
D)never
Q4) Explain two ways to introduce testimony if the witness claims to have no memory of the incident.
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Chapter 7: Crime Scene Evidence and Experiments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following DNA tests can only be performed on men
A)Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
B)Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Analysis
C)Mitochondrial DNA Analysis (mtDNA)
D)Y-Chromosome Analysis
Q2) The results of an experiment are admissible at trial only if the person who conducted the experiment testifies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these would be the best way to start analyzing the blood
A)DNA testing because it is the most accurate.
B)DNA because the sample will deteriorate if not tested immediately.
C)ABO blood test because it can be done quickly and can be used to eliminate suspects.
D)Blood alcohol tests because the alcohol is rapidly absorbed into circulatory system.
Q4) List three commonly accepted scientific tests and explain what needs to be done before trial so the results of the tests will be admissible.
Q5) Explain the importance of scientific evidence in criminal trials.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Documentary Evidence, Models, Maps, and Diagrams
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Q1) The Penal Code officially published by your state, but not those printed by private publishers, is self-authenticating.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Can Hal's handwritten notes about the gambling debt be introduced under the Business Records Exception to the Hearsay Rule
A)Yes, all documents retained by a business qualify as business records.
B)Yes, they can be introduced as business records as long as the record custodian testifies.
C)No, handwritten notes do not qualify as business records.
D)No, these notes were not kept in the regular course of business.
Q3) All documents stored on computers used by a business are covered by the Business Records Exception to the Hearsay Rule if a technician testifies that the system has not been "hacked."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the Business Records Exception to the Hearsay Rule..
Q5) Explain the role of a forensic documents examiner in introducing documents in court.
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Chapter 9: Hearsay and Its Exceptions
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Q1) Will Kim be allowed to testify that Mike, a mutual friend, told her that Jerry told him that he planned to sell the painting for $1 million
A)Yes, Kim's statement falls under co-conspirator statements.
B)Yes, Jerry's statement is an admission.
C)No, what Jerry told Mike is double hearsay.
D)No, Kim lacks credibility because she is a co-conspirator.
Q2) The Ancient Documents Exception to the Hearsay Rule is no longer used in United States courts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A statement qualifies as a spontaneous statement only if it was made while the declarant was still under the stress and excitement of the event.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hearsay is admissible in court only if the declarant is unavailable to testify.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Privileged Communications
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Q1) Compare and contrast the privilege for confidential communications between husbands and wives with the husband-wife privilege not to testify against each other.
Q2) The prosecution's use of a privilege that was not part of the common law in order to prevent testimony from being introduced at a criminal trial violates the defendant's Sixth Amendment rights.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some states allow the wife to decide whether to invoke the privilege not to testify against a spouse but others vest the privilege in the husband.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What other evidentiary issues must be considered in conjunction with privileges
Q5) A confidential conversation loses its status as privileged if the holder of the privilege voluntarily discloses the content of the conversation to someone not covered by the privilege.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Developing Law of Search and Seizure
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Q1) The Exclusionary Rule currently applies:
A)only in federal court
B)only to federal law enforcement agents
C)to both local and federal law enforcement agents
D)Exclusionary Rule is no longer used
Q2) The "totality of the circumstances test" established in Illinois v.Gates:
A)requires that prior reliability be established for each person who provided facts included in the application for a search warrant.
B)allows judges to use information from both police and other people when deciding whether or not to issue a search warrant.
C)allows judges to look at all of the facts when issue a search warrant rather than requiring that informants be shown to be previously tested for reliability.
D)allows judges to issue a search warrant if all the facts indicate criminal activity even though the police have not determined what crime is involved.
Q3) Describe the history of the Exclusionary Rule in the United States Supreme Court.
Q4) Describe the process for obtaining a search warrant.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Field Interviews, Arrests, and Jail Searches
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Q1) Did Officer Mertz have the right to stop Lonnie
A)Yes, Officer Mertz had reasonable suspicion that Lonnie had violated a section of the Vehicle Code.
B)Yes, Officer Mertz can stop anyone to give a warning as long as she does not plan to arrest them.
C)No, Officer Mertz is only allowed to stop people if she can establish probable cause that they are committing a crime.
D)No, Officer Mertz did not have reasonable suspicion that a crime was being committed.
Q2) Did Officer Knight have the right to search Jack's pockets
A)Yes, Officer Knight can do a complete search of Jack immediately after arresting him.
B)Yes, Officer Knight had reasonable suspicion Jack planned to physically attack the man in the car.
C)No, Officer Knight must render first aid before arresting Jack.
D)No, Officer Knight had no reason to believe Jack had marijuana in his pocket.
Q3) Explain an officer's rights at the time of a custodial arrest: (1) to search the person who was arrested; and (2) to search the vehicle the person was in at the time of arrest.
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Chapter 13: Plain View, Consent, Vehicles, and Administrative Searches
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Q1) Explain the rules on obtaining administrative warrants.Distinguish this process from the one used to obtain the search warrant specifically mentioned in the Fourth Amendment.
Q2) Police departments are allowed to set up roadblocks to check cars for illegal drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the Plain View Doctrine and distinguish it from the Open Fields Doctrine.
Q4) Based on the Plain View Doctrine, if an officer is legally at the location, what level of certainty does an officer need to legally seize an item
A)suspicion
B)reasonable suspicion
C)probable cause
D)clear and convincing
Q5) Police officers do not have to obtain a search warrant for a car if they have probable cause it contains contraband.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Usa Patriot Act, Foreign Intelligence, and Other Electronic Surveillance
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Q1) "Trap and trace" devices record conversations made on the phone after the device is installed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Installing a GPS tracking device on the outside of a car in order to determine where it has traveled without keeping it under visual surveillance violates the driver's reasonable expectation of privacy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What activities does the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) currently cover Contrast FISA with the Wiretap Act.
Q4) What purpose do National Security Letters (NSLs) serve How do NSLs differ from subpoenas
Q5) Police must obtain an electronic surveillance warrant:
A)whenever any form of electronic listening or recording devices are used.
B)only if the electronic monitoring violates a reasonable expectation of privacy. C)only if a physical trespass is involved . D)only if a private telephone line is tapped.
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Chapter 15: Self-Incrimination
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Q1) A person can invoke a Fifth Amendment right to refuse to participate in a field sobriety test:
A)Never - Fifth Amendment rights cannot be invoked as a reason to refuse to participate in a field sobriety test
B) Fifth Amendment rights can be invoked if a person is asked to speak during field sobriety test
C) Fifth Amendment rights can be invoked if the person is asked about how much alcohol he or she has consumed
D)Always - Fifth Amendment gives a person the right to refuse to do a field sobriety test under any circumstances
Q2) The Miranda warnings must be given to the suspect in the exact language used by the Supreme Court in the Miranda decision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Fifth Amendment can be used as grounds to refuse to give a voice exemplar.
A)True
B)False
Q4) State the Miranda warnings and explain the standard for a waiver.
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Chapter 16: Identification Procedures
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Q1) A suspect can invoke the Fifth Amendment as grounds to refuse to participate in:
A)Showup in the field
B)Lineup conducted at the station before the first court appearance
C)Lineup conducted at the station after the first court appearance
D)Suspect has no Fifth Amendment right to refuse to participate in any of these procedures
Q2) A person who has been detained based on reasonable suspicion can be required to participate in a showup that is held at the location where he/she was stopped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A suspect has the right to have an attorney present during a showup:
A)Under all circumstances
B)Only for showups held after arrest
C)Only for showups held after the first court appearance
D)Never
Q4) A witness can testify about selecting a person at a lineup only if he/she selected the defendant who is currently on trial.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Preparing the Case for Court
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Q1) Who is usually responsible for serving the subpoenas for the prosecution in a criminal case
A)Police
B)Prosecution
C)Courts
D)Independent firm
Q2) Failing to tell the prosecutor about tests performed on the murder weapon that came out negative:
A)will cause a problem because the prosecutor will think the case is stronger than it really is.
B)will cause a problem because the prosecutor will fail to disclose information during discovery that the defendant has a constitutional right to know.
C)may give the defense an edge during cross-examination.
D)All of these problems may result
Q3) Keeping track of witnesses before the trial date is the responsibility of the prosecutor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the investigating officer's duties regarding trial witnesses.
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