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Introduction to Criminal Justice provides a comprehensive overview of the American criminal justice system, exploring its three primary components: law enforcement, the courts, and corrections. Students will examine the historical development, functions, and roles of each component while analyzing how laws are created and interpreted. The course emphasizes the procedures and policies that guide criminal investigations, prosecution, trial, and sentencing, as well as the operation of correctional institutions and community-based corrections. Key topics include the rights of the accused, ethical issues, and contemporary challenges such as crime trends, juvenile justice, and reform efforts. The course aims to build a foundational understanding of the criminal justice process and critical thinking skills applicable to careers in criminal justice and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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Q1) Crimes that appear to harm only the offender are often called _______________.
A) victimless crimes
B) status offenses
C) deviant behavior
D) discretionary offenses
Answer: A
Q2) The authority to choose between and among alternative courses of action is Called:
A) discretion
B) authority
C) deviance
D) federalism
Answer: A
Q3) __________ is the act of taking property from another person without the use of force with the intent of keeping that property.
Answer: Larceny
Q4) The __________ gives the government in the United States certain powers, such as the right to coin money, create an army, and regulate interstate commerce
Answer: Constitution
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Q1) Who is known as the "father of criminology?"
A) Cesare Lombroso
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) James Q. Wilson
D) Cesare Beccaria
Answer: A
Q2) Labeling theory suggests the hypothesis that delinquents and criminals must be taught both the practical and emotional skills necessary to participate in illegal activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) __________ psychology is a branch of psychology that studies how people's thoughts and behaviors are influenced by the presence of others.
Answer: Social
Q4) According to the 2010 National Survey on Drug Use and Health, most drug users are male?
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________.
Answer: life imprisonment
Q2) A black man _____ times more likely than a white man to be sent to prison for a drug-related crime?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
Answer: D
Q3) Mala in se crimes are those acts that:
A) are inherently wrong, regardless of whether they are prohibited by law
B) are made illegal by criminal statute and are not necessarily wrong in and of themselves
C) are wrong because they have been prohibited
D) typically change across cultures
Answer: A
Q4) The _________ __________ _______________ is a general guide for criminal law that explains the various different degrees of criminal activity.
Answer: Model Penal Code
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Q1) Explain the development of the due process clause to the Constitution.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons behind the three tests of insanity used by American courts?
A) He or she is not legally culpable because he or she cannot distinguish right from wrong.
B) He or she lacked substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his or her conduct.
C) He or she lacked the age to fully understand the impact and wrongfulness of his or her conduct.
D) He or she may have known the criminal act was wrong, however, some irresistible impulse resulting from a mental deficiency drove him or her to commit the Crime.
Q3) Administrative law is the body of law created by administrative agencies (in the form of rules, regulations, orders, and decisions) in order to carry out their duties and responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.
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Q1) If a private security officer is a witness to a crime, they may do which of the following?
A) Make a citizen's arrest.
B) Transport the offender to the police department.
C) Make a formal arrest like a law enforcement officer would.
D) Do nothing.
Q2) Pinizzotto and Miller argue that an additional justification for police officer's use of discretion is because officers have a "sixth sense," also known as _______________, that helps them handle on-the-job challenges.
Q3) Which of the following is typically NOT one of the responsibilities of the sheriff's department?
A) operating the jail
B) investigating drug crimes
C) carrying out civil and criminal processes within county lines
D) transporting inmates to and from the federal courthouse
Q4) Private security is the practice of private corporations or individuals offering services traditionally performed by __________.
Q5) The primary law enforcement officer in a countyis the __________.
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Q1) The rules or standards of behavior governing a profession; aimed at ensuring the fairness and rightness of actions are called __________.
Q2) Which of the following type of crime tends to have the lowest clearance rates by law enforcement?
A) violent crimes
B) sexually based crimes
C) property crimes
D) juvenile crimes
Q3) The first modern police force was developed in _________ in 1829.
A) London
B) New York City
C) Chicago
D) Paris
Q4) One of the most important pieces of trace evidence is ballistics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is the segment of a police recruit's training in which he or she is removed from the classroom and placed on the beat, under the supervision of a senior officer.
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Q1) Explain what a person's expectation to privacy is per the U.S. Supreme Court. Give real world examples of that expectation..
Q2) An officer may make an arrest on reasonable suspicion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The standard that the Supreme Court uses now to determine whether a stop is based on reasonable suspicion is called:
A) totality of circumstances
B) probable cause
C) reasonableness
D) Terry standard
Q4) __________ are situations that require extralegal or exceptional actions by the police.
Q5) Before a judge or magistrate will issue a search warrant, a police officer must present information showing reasonable suspicion that a crime has been or will be committed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The social organization consisting of the judge, prosecutor, defense attorney, and other court workers is called the __________.
Q2) The legitimacy of the courts in the United States is based on two factors, impartiality and __________.
A) independence
B) jurisdiction
C) politics
D) statutes
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the lowest tier of the federal court system?
A) County Court
B) State Supreme Court
C) U.S. District Court
D) U.S. Court of Appeal
Q4) A request from a higher court asking a lower court for the record of a case is called a ?__________.
Q5) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
Q6) The __________ is responsible for maintaining security and order in the judge's chambers and the courtroom.
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Q1) A(n) __________ is a(n) erroneous prediction that a defendant, if given pretrial release, would commit a crime, when in fact they would not
A) false positive
B) negative
C) risk
D) uncertainty
Q2) _________ is a formal investigation prior to trial
Q3) What is the single goal of the prosecutor after charging a defendant with a crime?
A) rebuttal
B) acquittal
C) rehabilitation
D) conviction
Q4) The chief law officer of the nation is the:
A) Director of the FBI
B) Attorney General
C) Commander in Chief
D) Public Prosecutor
Q5) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the
Q6) Explain the factors that affect case attrition. Page 11
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Q1) Explain the difference between a civil trial and a criminal trial.
Q2) A witness who testifies against the defendant is often given __________, meaning that no information they disclose can be used to bring criminal charges against them.
A) immunity
B) testimony
C) clearance
D) a pardon
Q3) In general, prosecutions for murder and other offenses that carry the death penalty do not have a statute of limitations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A writ of habeas corpus differs from an appeal for which of the following reasons?
A) it can only be filed by a person who is imprisoned
B) it can only be filed by a person who is facing double jeopardy
C) it can only be filed by a person who is facing the death penalty
D) it can only be filed by a person who is facing life without parole
Q5) Explain the difference between real evidence and testimonial evidence.
Q6) A(n) ___________ is the questioning of an opposing witness during trial.
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Q1) When public opinion moves toward more severe strategies of punishment, legislatures have responded by asserting their power over determining sentencing guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For the better part of the past three decades, the American criminal justice system has mostly rejected many of the principles of rehabilitation as a philosophical reason for punishment in favor of other, more __________, strategies.
A) community based
B) restorative
C) regulatory
D) punitive
Q3) What U.S. Supreme Court case held that cruel and unusual punishment is defined by the changing norms of society and is not based on historical interpretations?
A) Furman v. Georgia
B) Weems v. United States
C) Roper v. Simmons
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q4) Explain the concept of "good time" and truth in sentencing.
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Q1) Which of the following is not an intermediate sanctioning option that is available to judges?
A) fines
B) restitution
C) forfeiture
D) imprisonment
Q2) A suspended sentence often places no conditions or supervision on the offender.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is where an offender spends a certain amount of time each week, usually during the weekend, in a jail, workhouse, or other government institution, while not detained, the offender carries on with their normal lives.
A) shock incarceration
B) split-sentence probation
C) suspended sentence
D) intermittent incarceration
Q4) An action taken by a probationer that, although not criminal, breaks the terms of probation as designated by the court is called a(n) ___________.
Q5) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Q1) Which general model of prisons carries the philosophy that the correctional institution serves as a training ground for the inmate to prepare for existence in the community?
A) custodial model
B) rehabilitation model
C) reintegration model
D) mitigation model
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why children of convicts are more likely to engage in delinquent behavior?
A) deterioration of the family structure
B) lack of supervision
C) financial struggles
D) increased support from the state
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the growth in incarcerated populations:
A) war on poverty
B) war on crime
C) war on drugs
D) increasing rates of female imprisonment
Q4) Explain what the concept of the "burden of jail administration" means.
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Q1) The process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison is called:
A) mandatory sentence expiration
B) probation revocation
C) parole revocation
D) reentry
Q2) _______________ is the practice of separating inmates based on certain characteristics, such as age, gender, race, gang affiliation, or type of crime committed.
Q3) A furlough is a temporary release from a prison.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ______________ program allows for the temporary release of convicted offeners from prison for purposes of employment.
Q5) The hearing in which the parole board determines whether to grant parole is typically called:
A) the reentry hearing
B) the parole revocation hearing
C) the penal grant hearing
D) the parole grant hearing
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding school violence?
A) students are safer in schools than they are on the streets
B) students are more likely to be killed in schools than in their neighborhoods
C) the media under reports the violence in schools
D) school violence has increased since 1995
Q2) Nearly all young offenders entering juvenile detention self-report drug use at some point in their lives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A __________ is a juvenile who has been found to have engaged in behavior deemed unacceptable for those under a certain statutorily determined age.
Q4) The child-savers believed which of the following?
A) that the state should not be involved with juveniles who are neglected
B) that the concept of parens patriae was invalid
C) that children needed treatment rather than punishment
D) that all delinquent children should be incarcerated
Q5) Explain the difference between an adjudicatory hearing and a disposition hearing.
Q6) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.
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Q1) The Patriot Act was passed as a result of which of the following?
A) the bombing of the U.S.S. Cole
B) the bombing of the Murrow Building in Oklahoma City
C) the events of Pearl Harbor
D) the events of September 11 , 2001
Q2) Individuals who use violence to further political goals such as the formation or destruction of a particular government are called __________.
Q3) Which of the following is one of the main issues with border security today?
A) the lack of drugs coming across the border
B) the ease with which proven and potential terrorists can enter the United States
C) the inability of individuals to make it into the United States
D) the ease of tracking down illegal immigrants in the United States
Q4) NSA agents eavesdrop on foreign conversations, whatever form they might take, while at the same time working to ensure that sensitive messages sent by the U.S. government are not subjected to similar scrutiny.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the internationalization of domestic terrorism.
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Q1) Malware is a term that refers to any program that is harmful to a computer or, by extension, a computer user.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______________ is tThe application of computer technology to finding and utilizeing evidence of cyber crimes. is called __________.
Q3) In what type of crime do the perpetrators try to get financial data and passwords from consumers by posing as a legitimate business such as a bank or credit-card company?
A) cyberbullying
B) hacking
C) phishing
D) cybertheft
Q4) Buying and selling that takes place in cyberspace is called:
A) online auction fraud
B) e-commerce
C) online retail fraud
D) hacking
Q5) Explain two some of the trends for the future of criminal justice.
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