Introduction to Computer Hardware Test
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Computer Hardware provides a foundational understanding of the physical components that make up modern computer systems. This course covers essential topics such as the functions and architecture of central processing units (CPUs), memory types and hierarchy, storage devices, input/output peripherals, and motherboard configurations. Students will learn how hardware components interact within a computing environment and gain practical skills through hands-on activities like assembling and troubleshooting basic computer systems. By the end of the course, participants will be able to identify key hardware elements, understand their roles in system performance, and make informed decisions about hardware upgrades and maintenance.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by
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Page 2
Mike Meyers
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Why is it advantageous to pass the A+ Certification exams?
Answer: If you successfully pass these exams, the organization that administers them grants you certification.You receive some piece of paper or pin or membership card that you can show to potential clients or employers.This certification gives those potential clients or employers a level of confidence that you can do what you say you can do.Without this certification, either you will not find suitable work in that profession or no one will trust you to do the work.
Q2) The 220-901 exam tests your knowledge of computer _______________, expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs, including variations within device types.
Answer: components
Q3) If a professional hasn't already achieved _______________ certification, they should make it their next certification goal after CompTIA A+ certification.
A)Certiport's IC³
B)CompTIA Security+
C)CompTIA Network+
D)CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) Taking a moment to touch the power supply before working on a computer and every once in a while as you work to keep yourself at the same electrical potential as the computer is a method of _______________.
Answer: self-grounding
Q2) Should you build customer confidence and trust in your technical abilities by memorizing customer passwords and confidential document locations?
Answer: No.Avoid learning other folks' passwords, and always respect confidential customer property.
Q3) Most companies require a signed _______________ to perform work.
Answer: Authorization of Work
Q4) What environmental conditions increase the risk of ESD?
Answer: Static electricity, and therefore the risk of ESD, is much more prevalent in dry, cool environments.
Q5) Is EMI more dangerous than ESD? Explain.
Answer: No.EMI (electromagnetic interference) is not nearly as dangerous as ESD (electrostatic discharge).Although EMI can cause damage, ESD is the greatest killer of PCs and components.
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) Describe how to access System Tools in Windows Vista/7.
Answer: To access System Tools in Windows Vista/7, go to Start | All Programs | Accessories | System Tools.
Q2) The first release of Windows 8 had no visible _______________ button on the Desktop (except in the Charms bar).
A)Shutdown
B)Start
C)Internet Explorer
D)Mail
Answer: B
Q3) The Windows 10 _______________ app combines a huge number of otherwise disparate utilities, apps, and tools traditionally spread out all over your computer into one fairly unified, handy Windows app.
Answer: Settings
Q4) _______________ (or programs) enable you to do specialized tasks on a computer such as typing a letter.
Answer: Applications Productivity software
Q5) The default Windows 8 interface is called the _______________.
Answer: Start screen
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) The _______________, which sends a signal to the clock chip, determines the speed at which a CPU and the rest of the PC operate.
Q2) The address bus and external data bus (connecting the CPU, MCC, and RAM) were collectively called the _______________ bus.
Q3) What can too much heat dope (thermal paste) do to the CPU?
Q4) What performance-enhancing technique usually voids most manufacturers' warranties?
A)Overclocking
B)Underclocking
C)Overpowering
D)Undercooling
Q5) What are some of the key factors in selecting a CPU?
Q6) Intel-designed _______________ sockets to make CPU insertion and removal easier.
Q7) Briefly describe the CPU package for AMD CPUs.
Q8) What is equivalent to 1024 bytes?
A)1 kilobyte
B)1 megabyte
C)1 nanobyte
D)1 terabyte
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) Intel has proposed a memory standard called _______________ as of this writing that would bridge the gap between DDR3 and DDR4.
Q2) Of the three major operating systems, Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux, which one(s) use virtual memory?
Q3) Modern DRAM sticks come in 32-bit- and _______________-bit-wide data form factors with a varying number of chips.
Q4) The default and recommended page-file size in Windows is _______________ times the amount of installed RAM on your computer.
A)1.5
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q5) Describe the necessary steps to enhance system performance using ReadyBoost.
Q6) By populating the same-colored motherboard RAM slots with identical RAM, you can run in _______________ mode.
Q7) A motherboard should detect and automatically set up any DIMM you install, assuming you have the right RAM for the system, using a technology called
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) Some CMOS setup programs allow you to control the ATA Security Mode Feature Set, also commonly referred to as _______________.
Q2) What is POST?
A)Post-operative self test
B)PC operating system test
C)Power-on self test
D)Personal overall starter test
Q3) How do flash ROM chips differ from traditional ROM chips?
Q4) What is the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)?
Q5) What BIOS feature allows a PC to boot without any local storage by retrieving an OS from a server over a network?
A)BIOS
B)CMOS
C)PXE
D)POST
Q6) Which chip stores information that describes specific device parameters?
A)BIOS
B)CMOS
C)ROM
D)System BIOS
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) Flashing the BIOS entails running a small command-line program to write a new BIOS in the flash _______________ chip.
A)Northbridge
B)Southbridge
C)ROM
D)RAM
Q2) The last of the 32-bit versions of Windows had support for _______________ drivers, which were essentially drivers that had not gone through the Windows Certification Program (as it was called then) such that their software did not get a digital signature from Microsoft.
Q3) If you plug a hard drive controller card into an expansion slot, it functions just as if it were built into the motherboard, albeit with one big difference: _______________.
Q4) In modern CPUs, what is the advantage incorporating the memory controller on the processor rather than locating it on the Northbridge?
Q5) Shortly after inventing PCI, Intel presented a specialized, video-only version of PCI called the _______________.
Q6) What hardware options do different chipsets support?
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) _______________, which are large, square fans, provide extra cooling for key components inside a PC.
Q2) What devices can be used to protect a PC from a faulty AC?
Q3) In addition to battery-supplied power, every _______________ has surge suppression and power conditioning
Q4) A(n) _______________ power supply converts energy efficiently.
A)Active PFC
B)EPS 12V
C)SPS
D)UPS
Q5) What UL rating is preferred for a surge suppressor?
A)UL497A
B)UL1497A
C)UL1449
D)1750 joules
Q6) How does a typical power supply deal with changing voltages in different countries?
Q7) Ideally, rails should be independent and not draw _______________ from each other.
Q8) Wires have a slight _______________ to the flow of electrons.
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) Which unit measures hard drive spindle speed?
A)Revolutions per minute (RPM)
B)Bytes per second (BPS)
C)Reads per second (RPS)
D)Writes per second (WPS)
Q2) What is the minimum number of drives needed to implement RAID 6?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
Q3) What are the specifications and matching speeds of three common SATA-specific varieties?
Q4) What advanced SATA features does Advanced Host Controller Interface ?(AHCI) usage unlock?
Q5) Which SATA variety runs at 6 GBPS?
A)SATA 2.0
B)SATA 1.0
C)SATA 3.0
D)SATA 6.0
Q6) How did SATA change autodetection?
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) During boot-up, the BIOS/POST reads the MBR to find the _______________ partition and boots the operating system on that partition.
Q2) On a GPT drive, LBA0 is the _______________ MBR.
Q3) One of the benefits of mount points is that they do not require a(n) drive
Q4) What is the difference between extending a disk and spanning a disk?
Q5) A(n) _______________ organizes each partition on the hard disk in such a way that the operating system can store files and folders.
Q6) Any removable media that has a bootable OS is generically known as a(n)
Q7) When using dynamic disks, which version of Windows can create RAID 5 volumes?
A)Windows 7 Professional
B)Windows Vista Enterprise
C)Windows Server
D)Windows 7 Ultimate
Q8) What are clusters?
Q9) The encryption capability in NTFS is called _______________.
Q10) What is a file allocation table, or FAT?
Q11) What is the purpose of the Windows Disk Defragmenter program? Page 12
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) When using MP3 compression, how far can you shrink a WAV file without losing much sound quality?
Q2) What happens when too many bus-powered devices take too much power from the USB bus?
Q3) The first CDs were designed for playing music and organized the music in a special format called CD-Digital Audio (CDDA), which we usually just call _______________.
Q4) What is the maximum capacity of magnetic tape media used today?
A)2.5 MB per tape
B)2.5 GB per tape
C)2.5 TB per tape
D)2.5 PB per tape
Q5) What is the wavelength of Blu-Ray's blue-violet laser?
A)128-nm
B)700-nm
C)650-nm
D)405-nm
Q6) Outline the hardware needed to import video and audio streams from an external source and to edit and compile a new video from the source material.
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) The primary need for a(n) _______________ workstation is a large, high-quality monitor.
Q2) Which type of PC is more likely to require a very high-end sound interface?
A)Graphics workstation
B)Virtualization workstation
C)Audio editing workstation
D)Thin client
Q3) Audio editing workstations frequently make use of specialized input devices, referred to as_______________, that mimic the look and feel of older, analog mixing consoles.
Q4) What five components comprise an optimal home theater?
Q5) What are three basic principles when migrating or retiring a computer?
Q6) The _______________ is a layer of software that allows Windows to run on different hardware platforms.
Q7) What are hardware considerations on a virtualization workstation?
Q8) In multibooting, why would you use Boot Camp?
Q9) Briefly describe a thin client.
Q11) What is NetBoot, and how is it useful? Page 15
Q10) What is the preferred connector between a television and a home-theater PC?
Q12) What specialized input devices do audio editing workstations use?
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) The HKEY_CURRENT_USER root key stores the _______________ settings.
Q2) Root keys are composed of _______________.
Q3) In Windows 7, the _______________ displays a modest screen with some text about Performance Monitor and a System Summary.
Q4) A counter tracks specific information about a(n) ________________.
A)Object
B)Task
C)Tool
D)User
Q5) A named group of functions that defines what you can do with an object is called a ________________.
A)hive
B)counter
C)class object
D)performance object
Q6) What happens if you select the End Process button in Task Manager?
Q7) What are subkeys and values?
Q8) How does the performance tool in Windows 7 differ from the one in Windows Vista?
Q10) What are the five root keys of the Registry? Page 17
Q9) What does the taskkill command-line utility do?
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) Which term refers to a unique combination of a user name and an associated password?
A)user authorization
B)user account
C)user authentication
D)user identity
Q2) In professional editions of Windows, the _______________ is a powerful too that can be used to create, modify, and remove users and groups.
Q3) When you create a new file or folder on an NTFS partition, you become the ____________________ of that file or folder.
A)administrator
B)developer
C)owner
D)editor
Q4) Prior to Vista, what was the functionality of the Power Users group?
Q5) Current versions of Windows refer to groupings of cylinders or transistors on an HDD or SSD as _______________ while earlier versions refer to such groupings as _______________.
Q6) When adding a child's account in Windows 8/8.1/10, what controls are enabled?
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) If Windows 8 does not automatically detect a newly added device, to get the device recognized and the drivers installed, you should
A)use the Add-a-device option in the Devices and Printers applet
B)run Update Driver
C)use the Add Hardware wizard in the Add Hardware applet
D)restart the computer
Q2) In Windows Task Scheduler, _______________ are steps that define both the program to run and how it is to run.
Q3) When accessing the Windows Error-checking tool through the GUI, after navigating to the Tools tab, click _______________ in Windows 8 and forward to scan the drive.
Q4) The purpose of Windows Update is to allow users to easily ________________.
A)install important or recommended updates
B)update drivers
C)update virus signatures
D)download viruses
Q5) How is the Time Machine in Mac OS X useful?
Q6) The most common method for installing software in Mac OS X involves the Mac
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) The command-line interface tells a user that it's ready to receive commands by displaying a specific set of characters called a(n) _______________.
A)command
B)key
C)prompt
D)signal
Q2) In older Windows versions, the filename was restricted to _______________ characters.
A)two
B)six
C)eight
D)ten
Q3) The Linux command _______________ displays the current working directory.
Q4) What Linux command(s) allow a normal user to perform operations that require advanced, or root, privileges?
Q5) How does Windows organize the contents in drives?
Q6) If a command has its own executable file, it is called a(n) _______________ program.
Q7) What does the extension part of a filename indicate?
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) If you insert a software disc, which file does Windows look for automatically?
A)startup.inf
B)setup.exe
C)autorun.inf
D)bootmgr
Q2) What are the general rebuild options if a system boot issue can't be fixed?
Q3) The Windows Stop Error is also known as the ______________.
Q4) Which tool enables you to check and replace a number of critical files, including the important DLL cache?
A)System File Checker
B)System Configuration utility
C)Recovery Console
D)Windows Recovery Environment
Q5) What is the function of the expand command in the Recovery Console?
Q6) What are some uses of the Recovery Console?
Q7) The installation sequence has to be performed manually if an installation CD lacks a(n) ______________ installation program.
Q8) Describe the Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE).
Q10) How can the Recovery Console be used to resolve boot problems? Page 22
Q9) What five options do you have in the Windows Recovery Environment?
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) _______________ is an example of virtualization software for the Mac platform.
Q2) _______________ is probably the most popular open-source virtualization program for Linux users.
Q3) Where is hardware virtualization support for Intel and AMD processors enabled?
Q4) Discuss how virtualization assists in research and testing.
Q5) What are the most limiting factors in a host's ability to run virtual machines?
A)Hard disk space and RAM
B)Network bandwidth and driver
C)CPU and RAM
D)Hard disk space and router
Q6) What are some advantages of Software as a Service (SaaS) for end users?
Q7) Discuss how virtualization enables power savings.
Q8) What is the difference between a host operating system and a guest operating system?
Q9) A(n) _______________ is software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely different platform.
Q10) PaaS stands for _______________.
Q11) What is a bare-metal hypervisor and where is it particularly useful?
Q12) A(n) _______________ environment is called a virtual machine (VM). Page 24
Q13) What are important considerations during the installation of a virtual machine?
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) Any single combination of resolution and color depth you set for your system is called a(n) _______________.
Q2) A pixel that is stuck on pure white is known as a(n) _______________ pixel.
A)burned-out
B)burned-in
C)lit
D)stuck
Q3) One nit is equivalent to _______________.
A)ten candelas/m²
B)one candela/m
C)one candela/m²
D)one lumen/m²
Q4) Average LCD panels are around _______________, which most monitor authorities consider excellent brightness.
A)100 kHz
B)100 bits
C)300 pixels
D)300 nits
Q5) Every 3-D game stores a number of image files called _______________.
Q6) Describe two advantages of curved panels.
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) What is shielded twisted pair (STP) and where is it found?
Q2) What is the advantage of buying patch cables?
Q3) What is the general cable distance limit of an Ethernet segment?
A)300 yards
B)1000 meters
C)One mile
D)100 meters
Q4) The _______________ address is 48 bits long, providing more than 281 trillion MAC addresses.
Q5) A networked host that enables you to access multiple files and folders is called a(n) _______________ server.
Q6) Which CAT level supports 10-Gbps networks at 100-meter segments and provides shielding for individual wire pairs reducing crosstalk and noise problems?
A)CAT 5e
B)CAT 6a
C)CAT 6e
D)CAT 7
Q7) Both clients and servers need _______________ that define or label the machine on the?network.
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) The setting" Obtain an IP address automatically" configures your computer to receive an IP address automatically from a(n) _______________ server on the network.
Q2) What organization is responsible for managing and adding Internet domain names and addresses?
Q3) Part of an IP address identifies the network ID, and another part identifies the _______________ ID on the network.
Q4) The ipconfig command shows an IP address of 169.254.0.27.This is indicative of the failure of what network element or service?
Q5) Network techs use a device called a(n) _______________ for help in tracing cables.
Q6) The IP address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is an example of a(n) _______________ address.
Q7) The vast majority of network disconnection problems occur at the _______________.
Q8) Describe the two methods for generating the lower 64 bits of an IPv6 address.
Q9) What is QoS?
Q10) The _______________ command lists a computer's network connection settings.
Q11) List four useful Windows TCP/IP testing tools. Page 28
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) Infrared is designed to make a point-to-point connection between two devices only in ______________ mode.
Q2) What method enables you to limit access to your wireless network based on the physical, hard-wired address of the units' wireless NIC?
A)OFDM
B)MAC address filtering
C)SSID broadcasting
D)NTFS Permissions
Q3) Products that adhere to the 802.11b standard provide a maximum of ______________ channels in the 2.4 GHz band.
Q4) What is the security flaw in WPS?
Q5) What should you open up to troubleshoot a suspected hardware problem? A)BIOS
B)Windows Device Manager
C)Windows update
D)Task Manager
Q6) A(n) ______________ enables Ethernet network communication using IrDA.
Q7) The 802.11g standard is backward-compatible with ______________.
Q8) List the variations of the 802.11 standard used in Wi-Fi wireless networks.
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) Phone lines have a speed based on a unit called a ______________, which is one cycle per second.
A)baud
B)byte
C)digit
D)flux
Q2) If you want to surf the Web, you need an application called a Web ______________, such as Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, or Microsoft Edge.
Q3) What two pieces does a dial-up connection to the Internet require to work?
Q4) Describe the contents of the Privacy tab in the Internet Options applet.
Q5) What is the Internet?
Q6) What are Web servers?
Q7) ______________ service consists of two types of channels: Bearer (B) channels and Delta (D) channels.
Q8) Remote Desktop Connection provides control over a remote server with a fully _______________ interface.
Q9) Most open wireless hotspots do not provide any level of ______________.
Q10) What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?
Q11) Review the steps you might take to solve a limited connectivity problem. Page 31
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) In the ACPI soft power-off mode, devices used to _______________ a system such as the LAN, keyboard, and USB, remain on.
Q2) What is the main type of battery used in today's portables?
Q3) _______________ batteries are a variation of Li-Ion that that places the heart of the battery-the electrolyte-into a solid polymer shape rather than an organic solvent.
Q4) Which battery has a downside of exploding if overcharged or punctured?
A)Li-Ion
B)Ni-Cd
C)Ni-Li
D)Ni-MH
Q5) What special key on a laptop enables a user to switch features on and off, such as wireless networking, cellular networking, and Bluetooth?
A)Function (FN)
B)Control (CTRL)
C)Alternate (ALT)
D)Spacebar (SP)
Q6) What is the difference between HDD and SSD?
Q7) Portable PCs have a standard _______________-mm audio out port.
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) What was one of the earliest types of mobile devices?
A)The phablet
B)The personal digital assistant (PDA)
C)The miniframe computer
D)The tablet
Q2) The _______________ is a priority-ordered list of the other carrier networks and frequencies it should search for when it cannot locate its home carrier's network.
A)Preferred Release List (PRL)
B)Product Roaming Instruction (PRI)
C)Preferred Roaming List (PRL)
D)Product Release Instruction (PRI)
Q3) Describe the Android operating system open-source platform.
Q4) What type of data is typically synchronized with local machines or with cloud-based servers over the Internet?
Q5) What is a disadvantage of synchronizing your data to a personal computer (or laptop)?
Q6) Explain why mobile phone calibration is more of a troubleshooting step than an important feature.
Q7) What is a mobile hotspot?
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) Removing OS restrictions on an Apple device is known as _______________.
A)rooting
B)jailbreaking
C)device spoofing
D)access injection
Q2) What is data transmission overlimit?
Q3) Most mobile devices allow the user to set a(n) _______________ by using a password, PIN, pattern, fingerprint, and/or facial recognition to block strangers from accessing the device.
A)screen lock
B)permissions policy
C)device reset
D)data cleanup
Q4) A hot, sluggish device might use _______________ to protect the device's CPU from heat damage?
A)heat dispersion
B)thermal throttling
C)liquid cooling
D)automatic backup
Q5) What is a trusted source?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43824
Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ printers use a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper.
Q2) How do you install a standalone network printer using its IP address?
Q3) If, when printing a document on a dot-matrix printer, the characters look chopped off at the top or bottom, the ______________ needs to be adjusted.
Q4) What causes an unwanted mark (ghosting) to appear on printed pages?
A)A damaged laser
B)A damaged toner
C)A damaged head
D)A damaged drum
Q5) A(n) ______________ contains important information regarding hazardous materials and safety procedures.
Q6) In a laser printer, the _______________ uses friction to isolate a single sheet any others that were picked up.
A)duplexing assembly
B)separation pad
C)transfer roller
D)gearbox
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43825
Sample Questions
Q1) Define effective permissions.
Q2) What is a rootkit?
Q3) Some free anti-malware applications are actually malware and are commonly referred to as _______________.
Q4) What encryption mechanism can be used for WAN connections (such as T1s and Metro Ethernet) and VPNs?
Q5) What is a form of authentication where a user must use two or more factors to prove his or her identity?
Q6) What is a botnet?
Q7) Which current authentication method is typically used over a LAN?
A)CHAP
B)Kerberos
C)MS-CHAP
D)PAP
Q8) Microsoft's encryption method of choice for a WAN is _______________.
A)CHAP
B)Kerberos
C)MS-CHAP
D)IPsec
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Q9) A(n) _______________ is the code pattern of a known virus.
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