Introduction to Communication Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Communication provides a foundational exploration of the processes, models, and contexts of human communication. The course examines how individuals exchange information, both verbally and nonverbally, in personal, social, and professional settings. Topics include the basic principles of communication, interpersonal dynamics, group interactions, public speaking, and the influence of culture and technology on communication. Students will develop essential skills for effective listening, message creation, and critical analysis, preparing them for academic, career, and real-world communication challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Contemporary Advertising and Integrated Marketing Communications 14th Edition by William Arens
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Advertising and IMC Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synergy is the principal benefit of IMC.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A(n) _____ is one in which the salesperson or company contacts customers from time to time with suggestions about improved product use or helpful new products.
A)reactive relationship
B)accountable relationship
C)partnership
D)basic transactional relationship
E)proactive relationship
Answer: E
Q3) What are the three priorities for an organization's integration process suggested by Duncan?
Answer: To maximize the synergy benefits of IMC, Duncan suggests three priorities for an organization's integration process. It should first ensure consistent positioning, then facilitate purposeful interactivity between the company and its customers or other stakeholders, and finally actively incorporate a socially responsible mission in its relationships with its stakeholders.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Big Picture: The Evolution of Imc
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the primary objective of demarketing?
A)To separate a particular brand from its competitors by associating that brand with a particular set of customer needs that ranked high on the consumer's priority list
B)To cater to unique groups of people whose needs could be addressed through more specialized products
C)To stimulate demand for a product artificially by manipulating supply
D)To dampen demand for products, especially those that create unwanted costs for society
E)To encourage consumers to reuse products
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an assumption that characterizes a free-market economy?
A)Presence of externalities
B)Few buyers and sellers
C)Self-interest
D)Greater involvement of the government
E)Emphasis on communal goals
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Big Picture: Economic and Regulatory Aspects
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Q1) The AAF is instrumental in influencing agencies and advertisers to abide by its Advertising Principles of American Business because most local advertising clubs belong to this federation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) According to African American Sam Perkins, the owner of Maryland's largest ad agency, "If you were to come from another planet and watch American television, you would think that all black people did was play basketball and hang out on street corners, and do rap music." In this instance, Perkins is accusing advertising of:
A)promoting materialism.
B)promoting puffery.
C)manipulating people into buying things they don't need.
D)perpetuating stereotypes.
E)violating public policy.
Answer: D
Q3) What is selective demand?
Answer: Selective demand is the demand for a particular brand.
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Chapter 4: The Scope of Advertising: From Local to Global
Part Two: Crafting Marketing and Advertising Strategies
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Q1) Transit advertising is an effective and inexpensive medium to reach the public while they're in the retail neighborhood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An advertising agency in Mexico City represents a wide-range of consumer accounts. It distinguishes itself from other agencies because it depicts real Mexicans enjoying everyday life. However, it does not advertise in trade publications. From this information, you can surmise that the agency is a _____ agency.
A)business-to-business
B)specialized
C)general consumer
D)high-tech
E)creative boutique
Q3) Some media allow a commission on the higher rates they charge national advertisers but not on the lower rates they charge local advertisers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On what bases are advertising agencies normally classified?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Marketing and Consumer Behavior: The
Foundations of Advertising
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Q1) _____ motives are also called informational motives because the consumer actively seeks information to reduce the mental state.
A)Reward
B)Negatively originated
C)Transformational
D)Social approval
E)Intrinsic
Q2) Motives stem from the conscious goal of satisfying our needs and wants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The smell of fresh-baked bread is an example of a stimulus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true of mental files?
A)Memory is not affected by a person's biases.
B)Its is important that advertisers understand what is in the consumer's mental files.
C)Memory is an unlimited resource.
D)Advertisers cannot modify consumers' mental files.
E)Information in mental files is stored randomly.
7
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Chapter 6: Market Segmentation and the Marketing Mix: Determinants of Campaign Strategy
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Q1) The difference between regular soup and organic soup is not readily visible. The organic brand differentiates itself by claiming to be healthier as it uses natural ingredients and vegetables that have been grown without the use of harmful chemical fertilizers. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A)hidden difference
B)perceptible difference
C)induced difference
D)perceptual filter
Q2) A cosmetics company allows customers to purchase its products through its Web site. This represents _____ distribution.
A)selective
B)multilevel
C)direct
D)intensive
E)network
Q3) Product concept refers to the way the marketer mixes and blends the 4 Ps to create the company's marketing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Research: Gathering Information for Imc Planning
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Q1) Investigators use _____ to encourage consumers to openly discuss their thoughts and feelings in response to questions from an interviewer.
A)qualitative research
B)contingency analysis
C)simulations
D)field tests
E)clutter tests
Q2) By testing questionnaires on a small subsample, researchers can detect any confusion, bias, or ambiguities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ do not give every unit in the entire target population an equal chance of being included, so there is no guarantee the sample is representative.
A)Evoked sets
B)Focus groups
C)Recall tests
D)Sales tests
E)Nonprobability samples
Q4) Describe the benefits of the Universal Product Code label.
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Chapter 8: Marketing and Imc Planning
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Q1) The "bundle of values" the advertiser presents to the consumer is referred to as the
A)advertising message
B)creative mix
C)marketing mix
D)evoked set
E)product concept
Q2) Describe the relationship of IMC to sales and profits.
Q3) In terms of marketing strategy, the _____ of a company determine(s) the specific short-term actions to be taken, internally and externally, by whom, and when, and largely influence advertising campaigns.
A)product concept
B)marketing tactics
C)organizational structure
D)core values
E)mission statement
Q4) Describe the seven steps in the IMC planning model developed by Wang and Schultz.
Q5) What is meant by SWOT analysis?
Q6) Describe the importance of IMC to the study of advertising.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Planning Media Strategy: Disseminating the Message Part
Three: Creating Advertisements and Commercials
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term _____ refers to local media that many consumers in a neighboring country inadvertently receive.
A)advertising impression
B)opportunity to see
C)spillover media
D)exposure value
E)gross impression
Q2) Familiarity with the advertiser's campaign always affects motivation significantly but attention very little.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cost of reaching target audiences is decreasing for all media due to greater number of media choices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the five main factors that affect the probability of ad exposure?
Q6) List the advantages of newspapers and magazines as media vehicles. Page 11
Q5) Describe the three principal scheduling tactics used by media planners to build continuity in a campaign.
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Chapter 10: Creative Strategy and the Creative Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) For clients, recognizing a big idea and evaluating it is easier than coming up with one.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the psychological impact of color is true?
A)Black conveys sophistication.
B)Yellow is considered to be the "most edible color."
C)Deep violet is associated with energy and heat.
D)Brown is considered a feminine color.
E)Red is considered to be the hottest color with the highest "action quotient."
Q3) According to the creative brief used by Leo Burnett, brand character statements are short-term emotional descriptions of the advertising strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between informational ads and transformational ads.
Q5) In radio, copywriters use sound effects or catchy dialogue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is brainstorming?
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Chapter 11: Creative Execution: Art and Copy
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Sample Questions
Q1) After developing the initial concepts and layouts for an ad, the primary responsibility of art directors is to:
A)supervise the ad's progress to completion.
B)draw detailed visuals for the ad.
C)write the body copy and subheads.
D)compose pages using HTML, CSS, and other languages.
E)design collateral materials such as posters and brochures.
Q2) Copywriting for print media should be clearer than radio writing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Logos and signature cuts provide quick recognition at the point of purchase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ copy is especially useful for products that have a number of different uses or come in a variety of styles or designs.
A)Institutional
B)Picture-caption
C)Dialogue
D)Monologue
E)Straight-sell
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Print, Electronic, and Digital Media Production
Part Four: Using Advertising Media
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the first step in the print production process?
A)An advertising budget is established.
B)Approved creative concepts are submitted to the production department.
C)Storyboards are shown to the advertiser for approval.
D)The ad concept is approved.
E)The product's feature, benefits, and advantages are determined.
Q2) For print media, production managers must translate the rough or comprehensive design into a final assembly of black-and-white artwork known as a(n) _____.
A)answer print
B)mechanical
C)copy cast
D)halftone plate
E)wireframe
Q3) What is meant by camera-ready art?
Q4) The soundtrack of a TV commercial is always recorded in advance to ensure that the commercial is very short.
A)True
B)False
15
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Chapter 13: Using Print Media
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Q1) _____ discounts are based on the total amount of space bought during a specific period in a magazine.
A)Frequency
B)Trade
C)Season
D)Presentation
E)Volume
Q2) A gatefold is a large ad (60 percent of the page) placed in the middle of a page and surrounded with editorial matter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advertiser prints an ad on high-quality paper stock to add weight and drama to the message, and then ships the finished ad to the publisher to get it placed into a magazine at a special price. This type of ad is known as a(n) _____.
A)island half
B)insert
C)second cover
D)junior unit
E)full unit
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Using Electronic Media: Television and Radio
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a preemption rate low?
Q2) Identify the correct statement regarding radio programming.
A)Local retailers do not prefer radio programming as they cannot tailor it to their needs.
B)AM stations switched to programs that rely on sound quality in order to counter FM's success.
C)The goal of radio programming is to cater to a selective audience.
D)The larger the audience, the more a radio station can charge for commercial time.
E)Programming choices are not influenced by whether the station is on the AM or FM band.
Q3) In terms of dayparts, the heaviest radio use occurs during _____ during the week, when many listeners are commuting to or from work or school.
A)early fringe
B)daytime
C)drive time
D)prime access
E)late fringe
Q4) Define cume rating.
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17
Chapter 15: Using Digital Interactive Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most basic form of Internet advertising?
A)E-mail ad
B)Spam
C)Ad banner
D)Interstitial
E)Internet classified ad
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with the use of ad networks?
A)It cannot deal with more than one Web page.
B)It does not cover small Web sites.
C)It is difficult to monitor these Web sites.
D)It does not facilitate advertising across pages.
E)It restricts advertisers from gaining maximum exposure.
Q3) Viral marketing is the Internet version of word-of-mouth advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When mobile advertising was first introduced, the carriers controlled a lot of the inventory as they limited the amount of traffic that went outside their deck.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Using Out-Of-Home, Exhibitive, and Supplementary Media Part Five: Integrating Advertising
With Other Elements of Imc
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct statement regarding packaging.
A)Government agencies do not affect packaging design.
B)A state's packaging requirements may differ from the federal government's requirements in the United States.
C)As manufacturers continue to produce environmentally safe packaging, the marketer's cost of materials reduces.
D)The design of a package may be complex because typical packaging materials support high-resolution printing.
E)Ad agencies are usually involved in packaging decisions.
Q2) In transit advertising, _____ refer(s) to jumbo, full-color transparencies backlighted by fluorescent tubes and running the length of the bus.
A)total bus
B)spectaculars
C)bus-o-rama signs
D)basic bus
E)brand buses
Q3) Explain the process of buying transit advertising.
Page 19
Q4) Describe the standardization of the outdoor advertising business in the United States.
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Chapter 17: Introducing Social Media
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Q1) The Forrester Research shows the amount of advertising being spent in various types of online marketing, with mobile and social marketing having the lowest expenditures through 2012, due in large part to the:
A)simple nature in which social media are utilized.
B)lack of true advertising experiences within the media.
C)absence of the human element.
D)lack of a distributed network.
E)predominately passive nature of consumption.
Q2) _____ is the term used to describe those Web sites where people congregate based on some shared interest.
A)Social bookmarking
B)Schmoozing
C)Trending
D)Emailing
E)Social networking
Q3) Mobile-based technology that is used for interactive communication is not included under social media.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Relationship Building: Direct Marketing, Personal
Selling, and Sales Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drawback of direct marketing is that it:
A)can deprive customers of their privacy.
B)is relationship oriented.
C)is more public than mass media.
D)does not allow marketers to test different creative executions like mass media does.
E)is limited to one primary medium-direct mailing.
Q2) Rented lists can be used without limit, for several mailings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The customer lifetime value (LTV) model is based on historical and potential share of business.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Direct mail has a higher cost per thousand than personal selling.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an IMC program, the objective of personal selling is solely to make a sale.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Relationship Building: Public Relations, Sponsorship, and Corporate Advertising Epilogue
Repositioning a Brand
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Q1) Which of the following is true of advertising?
A)It is the best vehicle to build credibility.
B)It is viewed with lesser skepticism by the public than public relations.
C)Its objectives are not as easy to quantify as those of public relations.
D)It offers greater credibility than public relations.
E)It offers precision and control.
Q2) Unlike sponsorship, advertising can provide face-to-face access to current and potential customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about publicity is true?
A)It is a super set of public relations.
B)The media bills its expenses to a company.
C)It involves the generation of news.
D)It has limited sources from which it is generated.
E)It is invariably easy to manage.
Q4) "Influentials" are those individuals whose opinions matter a great deal to others.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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