

Introduction to Communication Disorders
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Communication Disorders provides an overview of the nature, causes, and treatment of disorders affecting speech, language, voice, and hearing. The course explores typical communication development and introduces students to a range of communication disorders across the lifespan, including articulation, fluency, language delay, aphasia, hearing impairment, and voice disorders. Students learn foundational concepts in assessment and intervention, gain insight into the roles of speech-language pathologists and audiologists, and discuss the impact of communication disorders on individuals, families, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An audiologist and mentee of Raymond Carhart who is particularly well-known for developing clinical diagnostic hearing tests is _____________.
Answer: James Jerger
Q2) What is the current entry-level degree for the practice of audiology?
Answer: Doctor of Audiology AuD)
Q3) Harvey Fletcher worked at the _______ Laboratories. Answer: Bell
Q4) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?
Answer: World war II
Q5) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?
Answer: Georg von Bekesy
Q6) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology. Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q7) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology
A)Pediatric audiology
B)Hearing testing
C)Working in a medical clinic
D)PhD audiology
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of force exerted on a specific area is called _____________.
Answer: Pressure
Q2) The subjective attribute of intensity is called _________.
Answer: Loudness
Q3) The repeated back and forth movement of a vibrating object is called _______ motion.
Answer: Simple harmonic motion
Q4) What is the rationale behind the dB as a unit of sound intensity?
Answer: The human ear is capable of responding to a huge range of sounds ranging from very soft to painful,when expressed in absolute units such as w/m2 and µPa. In order to compress these numbers into a range that is more practical for clinical use, the logarithm is applied to a ratio of the measured sound power or pressure to a known reference. This unit is called decibel.
Q5) ________ and ________ are two properties that are essential for vibration. Answer: Inertia and elasticity
Q6) Name three noises used by audiologists in their daily practice.
Answer: Broadband noise,narrow band noise, speech spectrum noise
Q7) How are frequency and wavelength related?
Answer: Wavelength = Speed of sound/Frequency
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is intensity coded in function of the auditory nerve?
Answer: As sound intensity increases, 1) the neurons respond with increased firing rates. 2) there is spread of excitation along the basilar membrane, with the result that more neurons start firing. 3) the degree of phase locking among neurons increases.
Q2) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc.
Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml
Q3) List similarities and differences in the auditory system versus the vestibular system.
Answer: Both the auditory and vestibular systems are located in the temporal bone and contain sensory cells called hair cells.Their neural connections travel within the internal auditory canal from the ear to the brain.While the auditory system is responsible for hearing, , the vestibular system is responsible for balance and equilibrium. The central auditory structures are located throughout the central nervous system and as high as the auditory cortex, while the central vestibular structures are located mainly in the brainstem. The main symptom of a vestibular dysfunction is vertigo, while that of an auditory dysfunction is hearing loss.
Q4) An auditory structure in the thalamus is the: ______________________ body. Answer: Medial Geniculate
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A purpose of masking is to prevent _________________ hearing and to obtain _______ information.
Q2) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q3) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q4) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a typical response mode for a cooperative adult patient?
A)Lifting a finger
B)Raising a hand
C)A head turn response
D)Pushing a response button
Q6) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.
Q7) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q8) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q9) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q10) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
Q11) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing. Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q2) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?
Q3) What symbols are typically used for plotting air conduction pure tone hearing thresholds?
A)X for both ears
B)X for the left ear and O for the right ear
C)O for the right ear and X for the left ear
D)None of the above
Q4) Name the three mechanisms for bone conducting hearing.
Q5) Typical pure tone frequencies included in air conduction hearing testing encompass the range of
A)500 to 2000 Hz.
B)500 to 4000 Hz.
C)250 to 8000 Hz.
D)None of the above.
Q6) Explain what is meant mixed hearing loss.
Q7) Define the term audiometric zero.

Page 8
Q8) Describe briefly what is meant by vibrotactile response.
Q9) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
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Page 9

Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q3) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q4) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q5) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q6) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q7) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
Q8) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index
Q10) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA? Page 10
Q9) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the Weber test performed?
Q2) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Q4) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?
Q5) The most effective masking noise in speech audiometry is:
A)Broadband noise BBN)
B)White noise
C)Speech noise
D)Narrowband noise
Q6) Minimum inter-aural attenuation for insert earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A).0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q7) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q8) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Q2) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q3) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.
Q4) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q5) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Only the stapedius muscle is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
B)Only the facial nerve is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
C)Only the ossicles are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
D)Many structures in the middle ear and the central auditory pathway are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
Q6) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q7) The sound used in acoustic immittance measurement is known as the _________ tone.
Q8) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry.
Q9) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are very brief sounds such as clicks good stimuli for eliciting an ABR?
Q2) Early diagnostic speech audiometry procedures were first described in publications during what decade?
A)1950s
B)1960s
C)1970s
D)1980s
Q3) The ABR is a complete test of hearing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which tests fall into the category of diagnostic speech audiometry?
A)Filtered word tests
B)Dichotic listening tests
C)Speech-in-noise tests
D)All of the above
Q5) The latency of ABR wave V is the time it occurs after the __________________.
Q6) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Q7) Describe the PI-PB function.
Q8) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____. Page 14
Q9) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
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Page 15

Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q2) Evidence-based clinical procedures and techniques for diagnosis and management of hearing,vestibular,and related disorders are the basis for __________.
Q3) What is the first step in the diagnostic process?
Q4) In recent years,____ combined with _____ have become accepted alternatives to pure tone screening for preschool and young school-age children.
Q5) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ .
Q6) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q7) There is no role for otoacoustic emissions in screening for hearing loss in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is nystagmus? What vestibular technique is based on nystagmus recordings?
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Q9) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.

Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another word for a growth or tumor is a ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?
A)Preauricular pit
B)Aural atresia
C)Microtia
D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q3) ____________ is the term used to describe an infection in the middle ear space.
Q4) A hearing that occurs suddenly without a known etiology is called ________.
Q5) Medical problems causing a reduction of necessary amounts of oxygen and blood to the ear and brain are referred to as ___________ and ___________ events.
Q6) A perforation in the tympanic membrane in an otherwise normal ear produces a severe-to-profound hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Sensorineural hearing loss never fluctuates in severity.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the effects on excessive noise exposure on the inner ear.
Q9) Provide two examples of craniofacial abnormalities.
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Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and
Q2) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above True or False
Q4) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q5) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q6) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?
Q7) The term benign means a tumor will not pose any health concerns to a patient.All abnormalities affecting the central nervous system and causing auditory problems are tumors.
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A)True
B)False
Q8) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q9) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
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Page 19

Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?
A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor
B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array
C)A receiver and amplifier
D)An amplifier and electrode array
Q2) A hearing aid consists of
A)Two microphones and an amplifier
B)A microphone,an amplifier,and a loudspeaker
C)Two loudspeakers and one amplifier
D)Two amplifiers
Q3) What is hearing aid validation?
Q4) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.
Q5) Paper and pencil inventories can contribute greatly to validation of hearing aid performance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Digital signal processing in a cochlear implant takes place within the _______.
Q7) The process of confirming that the hearing aid is amplifying sound appropriately for the patient's hearing loss is called ________________. Page 20
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Page 21

Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.
Q2) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next.
Q3) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q4) Professional counseling is appropriate when a patient is clinically depressed because of his or her hearing loss or related disorder,like tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is
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Q6) The strategy of using visual cues from the face and lips to better understand speech is known as _____________.

Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with tinnitus never experience hyperacusis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients who are feigning or faking a hearing loss are sometimes referred to as ________.
Q4) Explain two components of general management of a patient with bothersome tinnitus.
Q5) Briefly summarize two findings or indicators on hearing assessment that raise the suspicion of false or exaggerated hearing loss.
Q6) Management of children diagnosed with a false hearing loss often includes:
A)Hearing aids
B)Professional counseling
C)Cochlear implants
D)FM technology
Q7) A fear of specific sounds is called ________,while an extreme dislike of specific sounds is called ______.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Audiologists play no role in the management of persons with balance disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
Q3) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:
A)Simple and clear
B)Accurate
C)Supported by clinical findings
D)All of the above
Q4) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
Q5) Knowledge required of audiologists working in schools includes:
A)Awareness of Federal legislation
B)Familiarity with special learning needs of children with hearing loss
C)Understanding of technology,such as the use of FM systems
D)All of the above
Q6) Audiologists can monitor auditory and facial nerve in the operating room during tumor removal surgery.
A)True
B)False

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Page 25