Introduction to Clinical Skills
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Clinical Skills is designed to equip students with foundational competencies essential for patient care in a clinical setting. The course introduces core techniques in patient interviewing, history taking, and physical examination, emphasizing communication, professionalism, and ethical practice. Through a combination of lectures, small-group sessions, and hands-on practice, students develop skills in observing, assessing, and interacting with patients. The curriculum also covers basic diagnostic procedures and introduces critical thinking necessary for effective clinical decision-making, laying the groundwork for advanced clinical training.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are included in the medical history except A)accidents and injuries.
B)immunizations.
C)operations.
D)medications.
E)occupation.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following services may be provided through home health care?
A)IV therapy
B)Respiratory care
C)Rehabilitation
D)Maternal-child care
E)All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a subjective symptom?
A)Rash
B)Pain
C)Dyspnea
D)Bleeding Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Q1) All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except
A)they do not require rinsing.
B)less time is required to perform hand hygiene.
C)they remove all resident flora from the skin.
D)they contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not a symptom of acute HIV infection?
A)Fever
B)Fatigue
C)Adenopathy
D)Jaundice
Answer: D
Q3) Treatment for acute hepatitis B includes A)antibiotics.
B)physical therapy.
C)liver transplantation.
D)restricted activity and rest.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following concentrations of alcohol is the most effective disinfectant?
A)50% isopropyl alcohol
B)60% isopropyl alcohol
C)70% isopropyl alcohol
D)100% isopropyl alcohol
Answer: C
Q2) The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to
A)permit better steam penetration during autoclaving.
B)protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving.
C)ensure complete destruction of all pathogens.
D)protect the articles from damage.
E)do all of the above.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apical pulse is located
A)in the fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum.
B)in the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line.
C)on the anterior side of the neck, slightly to one side of the midline.
D)on the fourth rib at the junction of the right margin of the sternum.
Q2) Where is the popliteal pulse located?
A)In front of the ear and just above eye level
B)In the middle of the groin
C)On the anterior side of the neck
D)In the back of the knee
Q3) When measuring blood pressure,the first clear tapping sound represents
A)the systolic pressure.
B)phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.
C)the diastolic pressure.
D)the palpatory blood pressure reading.
Q4) Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
A)A trained athlete
B)An infant
C)An elderly person
D)A diabetic patient
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may require a physical examination?
A)Prerequisite for employment
B)Participation in sports
C)School admission
D)Summer camp attendance
E)All of the above
Q2) Ear
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The range of frequencies for normal speech is
A)80 to 120 db.
B)512 to 1024 Hz.
C)300 to 4000 Hz.
D)6000 to 8000 Hz.
Q2) Impacted cerumen can be softened by
A)irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution.
B)inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear.
C)instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear.
D)placing a heating pad next to the ear.
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in Snellen eye testing technique?
A)Positioning the chart at the patient's eye level
B)Having the patient keep his or her glasses on for distance vision
C)Instructing the patient not to squint during the test
D)Asking the patient to close the eye not being tested
Q4) Which of the following structures functions in maintaining equilibrium?
A)Cochlea
B)Auditory nerve
C)Ear ossicles
D)Semicircular canals
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Q1) The three-point gait is used for which of the following conditions?
A)Leg fracture
B)Muscular dystrophy
C)Multiple sclerosis
D)Paraplegia
Q2) Which of the following gaits is the most stable and slowest crutch gait?
A)Two-point
B)Four-point
C)Three-point
D)Swing-through
Q3) Which of the following can cause a pressure area?
A)A cast that is too thick
B)A wet cast
C)A cast that rubs against the skin
D)Resting a dry cast against a hard surface
Q4) All of the following help prevent low back pain except
A)sleeping on a firm mattress.
B)having good posture.
C)maintaining a healthy body weight.
D)bending from the waist when lifting an object.
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?
A)The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B)The fetal heart rate is displayed digitally on a screen.
C)Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D)A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.
Q2) The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to A)establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient.
B)record medications being taken by the patient.
C)determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy.
D)calculate the EDD.
E)do all of the above.
Q3) The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a A)yeast.
B)motile protozoan.
C)bacterium. D)virus.
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10
Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an important reason for weighing a child?
A)To determine the proper dosage of medication for the child
B)To compare the child's weight with weights of other children of the same age
C)To determine if the child is deficient in vitamins and minerals
D)To assess the rate of brain growth
E)All of the above
Q2) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A)Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B)Measles, mumps, rubella
C)Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D)Measles, hepatitis, rubella
Q3) The most important use of growth charts is to
A)assess the child's individual growth pattern.
B)compare the child's growth with that of other children of the same age.
C)identify children with prehypertension.
D)identify children with type 2 diabetes.
E)complete all of the above.
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of inserting gauze packing after incising a localized infection is to
A)facilitate drainage of the exudate.
B)prevent scar formation.
C)absorb drainage.
D)reduce pain.
Q2) Which of the following instruments has serrated blades,ring handles,and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels?
A)Allis tissue forceps
B)Hemostatic forceps
C)Sponge forceps
D)Curette
Q3) Which of the following is not a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?
A)Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
B)Abstain from intercourse for 2 to 3 weeks after the procedure.
C)A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2 to 4 weeks.
D)Use tampons to absorb drainage.
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for administration of fluids,medications,or nutrients through the IV route?
A)Transfusion
B)IV drip
C)Infusion
D)Chemotherapy
Q2) What is the term for the slanted edge at the top of a needle?
A)Tip
B)Bevel
C)Gauge
D)Lumen
Q3) What is the abbreviation for one half?
A)cc
B)ss
C)gtt
D)SL
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the structure in the heart that distributes the electrical impulse to the ventricles?
A)Epicardium
B)Endocardium
C)Bundle of His
D)Purkinje fibers
Q2) What information is included on a prescription for home oxygen therapy?
A)Amount of oxygen needed by the patient
B)Duration of oxygen needed by the patient
C)Recommended oxygen delivery system
D)Administration device
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is exhaled?
A)Tympanogram
B)Spirometer
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Blood gas analyzer
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14
Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following conditions can cause an elevated PSA level except A)prostatitis.
B)testicular cancer.
C)benign prostatic hyperplasia.
D)prostate cancer.
Q2) What is the function of the mucus secreted by the large intestine?
A)To protect the wall of the large intestine from substances moving through it
B)To protect the large intestine from pathogens
C)To break down nutrients
D)To prevent constipation
E)All of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of colorectal cancer except A)visible bleeding from the rectum.
B)change in bowel habits.
C)abdominal pain.
D)shortness of breath.
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15
Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breasts are compressed during mammography to
A)prevent the patient from moving.
B)protect the patient from radiation burns.
C)obtain a clear radiograph.
D)reduce patient discomfort.
E)do all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following X-ray studies does not require the use of a contrast medium?
A)Bronchogram
B)Chest radiograph
C)IVP
D)Angiocardiogram
Q3) Which of the following uses ultrasound to measure the direction and speed of blood as it flows through blood vessels?
A)DEXA scan
B)Doppler ultrasound
C)PET scan
D)Electrocardiography
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of antigen-antibody reactions to assess the presence of a substance or to determine the presence of disease is known as A)hematology.
B)immunology and blood banking.
C)clinical chemistry.
D)cytology.
E)histology.
Q2) The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)is to A)improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States.
B)prevent the exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.
C)ensure safety in the laboratory.
D)prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing.
Q3) Detection of abnormal cells is known as A)hematology.
B)immunology and blood banking.
C)clinical chemistry.
D)cytology.
E)histology.
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of specimen that should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine is a
A)specimen that has been left standing at room temperature for one-half hour.
B)24-hour urine specimen.
C)freshly voided random specimen.
D)first-voided morning specimen.
Q2) What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells?
A)It causes them to swell and become rounded.
B)It has no effect on them.
C)It causes them to shrink and become crenated.
D)It causes them to develop hypochromia.
Q3) How should urine reagent strips be stored?
A)In a cool area
B)In a dark container
C)In a dry area
D)With the cap tightly closed
E)All of the above
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may result in hemolysis of the blood specimen?
A)Storing evacuated tubes at room temperature
B)Using a needle with a small lumen to collect the specimen
C)Allowing the evacuated tube to fill to the exhaustion of the vacuum
D)Removing the needle before removing the tourniquet
E)All of the above
Q2) You need to collect a venous blood specimen from a patient to run an FBG.Which of the following would be an inappropriate statement to make to the patient during this procedure?
A)"Which arm was used in the past to draw blood from you?"
B)"Please do not move during this procedure."
C)"This procedure will not hurt."
D)"When did you last eat or drink?"
Q3) Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture?
A)Red, green, lavender, gray
B)Red, lavender, gray, green
C)Lavender, red, gray, green
D)Red, gray, lavender, green
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a granular leukocyte?
A)Neutrophil
B)Eosinophil
C)Basophil
D)Monocyte
Q2) The movement of leukocytes through the pores of the capillaries is known as A)leukocytosis.
B)phagocytosis.
C)flagellation.
D)diapedesis.
Q3) Leukocytes do their work in the A)circulatory system.
B)tissues.
C)lymphatic system.
D)central nervous system.
Q4) Mr.Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60.This is considered to be A)increased.
B)decreased.
C)normal.
D)invalid.
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test?
A)Consume a low-carbohydrate evening meal.
B)Refrain from smoking for 12 hours before the test.
C)Minimize activity for 24 hours before the test.
D)Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 12 hours before the test.
E)All of the above are appropriate instructions.
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of infectious mononucleosis except A)severe fatigue.
B)anemia.
C)fever.
D)sore throat.
E)swollen lymph nodes.
Q3) Patient preparation instructions for a triglyceride test include which of the following?
A)Follow a normal diet for 7 days before the test.
B)Do not consume alcohol for 24 hours before the test.
C)Do not eat or drink (except for water) for 12 hours before the test.
D)Do not consume lipid-lowering medications before the test.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities?
A)Parasitology
B)Histology
C)Microbiology
D)Pathology
Q2) The high-power objective has a magnification of
A)10×.
B)40×.
C)60×.
D)100×.
Q3) What is a culture?
A)A mixture of nutrients on which microorganisms are grown in the laboratory
B)A small sample taken to show the nature of the whole
C)Material spread on a slide for microscopic examination
D)A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium
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22
Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following body areas is most susceptible to frostbite?
A)Arms and legs
B)Fingers and toes
C)Head
D)Abdomen
Q2) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A)Tonic-clonic
B)Partial
C)Generalized
D)Status epilepticus
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an ingested poison?
A)Carbon monoxide
B)Fertilizers
C)Insect stings
D)Aspirin overdose
E)All of the above
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