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Introduction to Clinical Psychology Exam Questions - 2192 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Clinical Psychology

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Introduction to Clinical Psychology provides an overview of the foundational theories, practices, and research methods that shape the field of clinical psychology. This course explores the history and development of clinical psychology, major approaches to understanding psychological disorders, assessment and diagnosis techniques, and the principles of evidence-based treatment. Students will learn about the ethical and legal considerations unique to clinical practice, the roles clinical psychologists play in various settings, and current trends and challenges in mental health care. The course also introduces students to critical thinking skills required for evaluating intervention effectiveness and encourages awareness of cultural and diversity issues in clinical practice.

Recommended Textbook

Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow

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Chapter 1: Abnormal Behavior in Historical Context

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Sample Questions

Q1) The traditional tendency to stigmatize women as "hysterical" derived from Hippocrates' concept of

A) the "wandering womb."

B) an "incompetent cervix."

C) "penis envy."

D) "pelvic dysfunction."

Answer: A

Q2) A patient arrives in your office with a severe fear of spiders. You treat this patient by gradually introducing her to snake images, snake toys, and eventually live snakes in order to show her that nothing bad happened in the presence of these objects. You are using the therapeutic technique called

A) cognitive therapy.

B) systematic desensitization.

C) operant conditioning.

D) multidimensional therapy.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology

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Q1) Cognitive-behavior therapy facilitates changes in thinking patterns in the cortex, which in turn affects the emotional brain. This is called .

A) confabulation

B) consolidation

C) a top-down change

D) a bottom-up change

Answer: C

Q2) The basis of the multidimensional integrative approach to understanding psychopathology is that each dimension (psychological, biological, emotional, etc.)

A) operates independently.

B) is sufficient to cause pathology.

C) builds on the dimension that precedes it.

D) is influenced by the other dimensions.

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The problem with generating a false negative during an assessment strategy is that the patient

A) will not receive treatment for an actual disorder.

B) will receive treatment for a disorder they don't have.

C) will be tired of being tested.

D) will be discredited.

Answer: A

Q2) Javon, who is normally energetic and lively, is walking and talking slowly. The therapist thinks that Javon may be depressed because ______can indicate severe depression.

A) psychomotor retardation

B) derailment

C) delusions of persecution

D) delusions of grandeur

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Institutional review boards are typically made up of

A) animal rights group members and lawyers.

B) research participants and their families.

C) faculty and community members.

D) administrators and students.

Q2) A study that uses the controlled conditions of the lab to replicate the phenomenon under study is called a(n)

A) analogue model.

B) longitudinal study.

C) cross-sectional study.

D) retrospective study.

Q3) Epidemiologists study of a particular problem in one or more populations.

A) distribution

B) incidence

C) consequences

D) all of the above

Q4) Describe each of the four components of informed consent for research participants. Explain why it may be difficult to satisfy informed consent when research participants are mentally retarded adults.

Q5) Why is studying behavior across cultures important?

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Chapter 5: Anxiety, Trauma and Stressor-Related, and

Obsessive-Compulsive

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mrs. Pan has an anxiety disorder in which she has occasional panic attacks when shopping at the mall. This type of panic attack is referred to as _______________.

A) uncued

B) diathesis-originated

C) cued

D) situationally premeditated

Q2) In regard to a type of thinking pattern found in some patients with OCD, which of the following would be an example of thought-action fusion?

A) Washing one's hands repeatedly to ward off germs

B) Taking only very small steps while walking to prevent others from being in danger

C) Believing that thinking about an abortion is the moral equivalent of having an abortion

D) Saving stacks of old newspapers or magazines because they might be needed some day

Q3) Why do anxiety conditions differ from person to person?

Q4) Starting with the DSV-IV, panic disorder and agoraphobia were integrated into one disorder called panic disorder with agoraphobia. Why was this the case?

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Chapter 6: Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders and

Dissociative Disorders

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Q1) In non-Western cultures, trance and possession are A) extremely rare.

B) never considered a disorder.

C) the most common forms of dissociative disorders.

D) the rarest forms of dissociative disorders.

Q2) All of the following are classified as somatic symptom and related disorders EXCEPT A) dissociative identity disorder.

B) factitious disorder.

C) conversion disorder.

D) illness anxiety disorder.

Q3) George has completely lost his sight during the past year, but medical experts can find no physical reason for his blindness. This could be an example of .

A) somatization disorder

B) hypochondriasis

C) conversion disorder

D) dissociative disorder

Q4) Describe a common treatment for dissociative disorders which are linked to a traumatic event.

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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide

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Q1) Debbie has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder, recurrent. She wants to know what to expect in the future regarding her condition. You tell her that according to recent research the median lifetime number of major depressive episodes is .

A) 2 to 3

B) 4 to 7

C) 8 to 11

D) 12 to 15

Q2) The less severe but more chronic version of bipolar disorder is called disorder.

A) dysphoric

B) seasonal affective

C) bipolar III

D) cyclothymic

Q3) In Aaron Beck's depressive cognitive triad, individuals think negatively about all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) themselves

B) their immediate world

C) their past

D) their future

Q4) Describe how Cognitive Behavior Therapy works for depression.

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Chapter 8: Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Benzodiazepine medication is not recommended as a long-term solution for the treatment of insomnia because of

A) the addictive properties of these medications.

B) rebound insomnia that occurs after the medication is discontinued.

C) excessive sleepiness that may persist during the day.

D) all of these.

Q2) Medical treatments for severe sleep apnea include medication, mechanical devices, and .

A) surgery

B) exercise of the neck muscles

C) a high protein diet

D) changing the patient's sleep schedule

Q3) Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight, sometimes eats huge quantities of junk food with no ability to stop herself. She follows this with long periods of complete fasting. Based on this information, Susan

A) might be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.

B) should be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.

C) will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she is of normal weight.

D) cannot be diagnosed with bulimia nervosa because she is not purging.

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Physical Disorders and Health Psychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research has shown that increased levels of cortisol in response to stress may cause damage to parts of the _________________.

A) skeletal system

B) brain

C) lungs

D) stomach

Q2) Whether or not stress and/or anxiety develop in a stressful situation appears to be related to one's perceived sense of ________________.

A) happiness

B) excitement

C) control

D) acceptance

Q3) Which of the following immune cells enhance immune system responses by signaling B cells to produce antibodies and signaling other T cells to destroy antigens?

A) B cells

B) Helper T cells

C) T suppressor cells

D) NK cells

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11

Chapter 10: Sexual Dysfunctions, Paraphilic Disorders and Gender Dysphoria

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Sample Questions

Q1) The prevalence of sexual arousal disorders appears to be

A) much higher for men than it is for women.

B) much lower for men than it is for women.

C) about the same in both sexes.

D) slightly lower for men than it is for women.

Q2) Data from research studies on gender differences in human sexuality reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT

A) men show more sexual desire and arousal than women.

B) men emphasize committed relationships more than women.

C) men's self-concept is characterized in part by power, aggression, and independence.

D) women's sexual beliefs are more influenced by cultural, social, and situational factors.

Q3) A woman is sent home from sex therapy with an assignment to purchase a vibrator and practice masturbating. She is likely being treated .

A) for vaginismus

B) for hypoactive sexual desire disorder

C) for female orgasmic disorder

D) by a sex therapist with little or no formal training in psychology

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Substance-Related, Addictive, and Impulse-Control Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Contingency management involves

A) the use of reinforcement for specific behaviors.

B) the elimination of abuse cues.

C) altering expectations.

D) use of medications to create substance aversions.

Q2) In a large survey among college-age men and women, it was found that A) about 75% of the respondents had gone on a binge of heavy drinking once in the preceding two weeks.

B) there was no relationship between frequency of drinking and grades.

C) students with a grade-point average of "A" had no more than one drink per week.

D) "D" and "F" students averaged 11 alcoholic drinks per week.

Q3) Annabelle has been a heavy drinker for years. Her behavior reflects confusion, loss of muscle coordination and unintelligible speech. Such behavior is probably the result of . A) dementia

B) substance abuse psychotic disorder

C) fetal alcohol syndrome

D) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

Q4) Discuss the various component treatments for substance abuse.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Personality Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Jill's psychotherapy sessions, the therapist has been using techniques to gradually make her more comfortable with social situations. Similar to the treatments used for individuals with social phobia, the therapist has given Jill homework assignments that require her to practice talking to strangers, join informal groups, and speak in front of small groups. Most likely, she is being treated for personality disorder.

A) antisocial

B) dependent

C) avoidant

D) histrionic

Q2) The characteristic features of personality disorders tend to develop with A) rapid onset in late adolescence.

B) gradual onset in adulthood.

C) rapid onset in adulthood.

D) a chronic pattern with onset in childhood.

Q3) DSM-5 divides personality disorders into distinct clusters.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you interview Dr. Kwame, a psychologist in your local health department, he says that one of his clients fell in love with Jennifer Lopez and created stories about how they would run off to the Caribbean and get married. Dr. Kwame is reflecting which category or view of delusions:

A) irrational beliefs.

B) motivational.

C) deficit.

D) cognitive.

Q2) A woman diagnosed as schizophrenic announces that she has a plan to end poverty and homelessness in the world and that the Pope has given her secret instructions on how this can be accomplished. Her thinking is indicative of a delusion of . A) persecution

B) thought insertion

C) grandeur

D) reference

Q3) Discuss the psychotic disorders that can be diagnosed other than schizophrenia.

Q4) Describe some of the "positive" and "negative" symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they relate to prognosis and outcome.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the most characteristic patterns for children with autistic disorder is that they are generally

A) uninterested in people.

B) very intelligent.

C) extremely talkative.

D) hyperactive.

Q2) Given the available intervention strategies for specific learning disorders, the method that probably has the best chance of overcoming the specific learning disorder is

A) development of better study skills.

B) efforts to develop compensating cognitive skills.

C) systematic instruction and teaching for mastery.

D) improving overall intelligence.

Q3) The percentage of people with intellectual disability who are classified as mildly intellectually disabled is approximately .

A) 90%

B) 70%

C) 50%

D) 25%

Q4) Discuss the possible causes of autistic disorder.

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Chapter 15: Neurocognitive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The disorder that causes a form of neurocognitive disorder called Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a variant of

A) Huntington's disease.

B) Pick's disease.

C) neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disorder.

D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy ("mad cow disease").

Q2) From the following choices, the age group most likely to use prescription medications is .

A) infants and young children

B) children and adolescents

C) middle-aged adults

D) older adults

Q3) Individuals who have the apo E44 gene of developing Alzheimer's disease.

A) are at increased risk

B) have nearly a 100% chance

C) are not at risk

D) may or may not be at risk

Q4) How does a holistic psychosocial intervention best serve someone with a cognitive impairment?

Q5) Describe delirium, its typical causes, and how it is treated.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Mental Health Services

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Sample Questions

Q1) APA adopted a policy to base principles of psychological practice on A) clinical assumptions.

B) evidence-based practice.

C) historical assumptions.

D) individual therapist's experience.

Q2) Explore the consequences of the policy known as "deinstitutionalization," noting specifically the effect on homelessness. Compare the intended outcome of this policy with the actual outcome.

Q3) According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a

A) society that has no idea of what to do with this issue.

B) hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients.

C) healthy system responding to the limitations of previous decisions.

D) prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected.

Q4) What is a critical determinant of the civil commitment process?

A) Substance abuse

B) Dangerousness

C) Alcoholism

D) Subjective distress

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