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Introduction to Clinical Psychology offers a comprehensive overview of the field, exploring the principles, methods, and practices used in assessing, diagnosing, and treating psychological disorders. The course covers the history and development of clinical psychology, major theoretical perspectives, and the ethical and professional issues faced by clinicians. Students will learn about various assessment techniques, psychotherapeutic approaches, and evidence-based interventions. Emphasis is placed on understanding the diverse roles of clinical psychologists in research, clinical practice, and community settings, as well as the importance of cultural competence in providing mental health services.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition by V. Mark Durand
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Q1) You are listening to old musical tunes, including "My Melancholy Baby." Your friends are impressed when you tell them that "melancholic," referring to a depressive personality, derives from a Greek word meaning A)blood.
B)phlegm.
C)yellow bile.
D)black bile.
Answer: D
Q2) DSM-5, an updated version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, was published in A)1994. B)2000.
C)2002.
D)2013.
Answer: D
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Q1) Most automatic functions such as breathing, sleeping, and motor coordination are controlled by the part of the brain called the A)brain stem.
B)forebrain.
C)cortex.
D)midbrain.
Answer: A
Q2) The multidimensional integrative approach to psychopathology is based on understanding of
A)Biological causes.
B)Psychological causes.
C)Emotional, social and developmental influences.
D)All of these are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) GABA, dopamine, and norepinephrine are all examples of
A)electrical brain waves.
B)Types of neurons.
C)neurotransmitters.
D)areas of the brain.
Answer: C
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Q1) Family studies are often used to help determine whether a psychological disorder has a genetic component. Which of the following patterns is typical for a disorder that is influenced by genetics?
A)Siblings of the person with the disorder are more likely to have the disorder than cousins, and cousins are just as likely to have the disorder as the general public.
B)Siblings of the person with the disorder will almost always have the same or similar disorders, and cousins are more likely than the general public to have disorders.
C)Siblings of the person with the disorder are more likely than cousins to have the disorder, and cousins are more likely to have the disorder than the general public.
D)Siblings will almost always have the same or similar disorders, though cousins may have a similar rate of the disorder as the general public.
Answer: C
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Q1) The urge to pull out one's own hair from anywhere on the body including the scalp, eyebrows, and the arms is referred as _____.
A)excoriation
B)trichotillomania
C)retail therapy
D)habit reversal training
Q2) Mr. J suffers from a severe case of obsessive-compulsive disorder. His symptoms have not responded to either medication or psychological therapies. As a last resort, his therapist suggests the possibility of a psychosurgical procedure, specifically an operation called
A)lobotomy.
B)lobectomy.
C)cingulotomy.
D)cingulectomy.
Q3) Define obsession and compulsion and give examples. Explain exposure and response prevention as a treatment for OCD.
Q4) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.
Q5) Define generalized anxiety disorder, and discuss how it differs from panic attacks.
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Q1) A 30-year-old woman "recovers" memories of childhood sexual abuse, the existence of which she was seemingly and previously unaware. Explain what is currently known about the accuracy of recovered memories. Can we determine whether these memories are accurate?
Q2) Some theorists suggest that dissociative identity disorder is an extreme subtype of A)dissociative amnesia.
B)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)posttraumatic stress disorder.
D)antisocial personality disorder.
Q3) Compare and contrast depersonalization and derealization.
Q4) The average number of alters observed in individuals with dissociative identity disorder is
A)1.
B)2.
C)15.
D)100.
Q5) Describe three ways that a person with a conversion disorder might differ from an individual with a biologically caused physical malfunction.
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Q1) Statistics on suicide indicate that approximately one-quarter to one-half of all suicides are associated with A)alcohol use.
B)guns.
C)aggression.
D)work stress.
Q2) All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT
A)for those patients who respond to lithium, approximately 70% will relapse.
B)for anyone with recurrent manic episodes, maintenance on lithium is recommended to prevent relapse.
C)once a person is symptom-free for six months, he or she may stop taking lithium.
D)people stop taking lithium to regain the euphoric feeling that mania produces.
Q3) One symptom of depression is an increase in sleeping. What other symptom related to sleep occurs in depression?
A)Decreased slow wave sleep, the deepest stage of sleep
B)Less intense REM activity
C)Stages of deepest sleep occurring earlier in the sleep cycle
D)Slower onset of REM sleep
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Q1) Recent clinical studies indicate that it is a good pain-relieving strategy to use biofeedback in conjunction with A)medication.
B)relaxation procedures.
C)a placebo.
D)psychotherapy.
Q2) Although the improvement is only moderate, relaxation techniques have been shown to have a positive effect on A)headaches.
B)hypertension (high blood pressure).
C)pain.
D)all of these are correct
Q3) Herbert Benson developed a brief procedure he called A)mantra meditation.
B)simplified transcendental meditation (STM).
C)relaxation response.
D)progressive relaxation.
Q4) Discuss why stress is often implicated as a factor in cardiovascular disease. Define type A personality and discuss research regarding its validity.
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Q1) Which of the following young women appears to be at the highest risk for developing an eating disorder?
A)Linda, whose mom and dad recently divorced
B)Carla, whose family members always seem to be fighting with each other
C)Sandy, whose family emphasizes achievement, support, and communication
D)Bonnie, whose family is hard-driving, concerned about external appearances, and eager to maintain harmony
Q2) The increase in the incidence of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa has been referred to as a "collision between our culture and our physiology." The most accurate interpretation of this statement is that
A)people have become too dependent on media determinations of beauty.
B)media standards of beauty are increasingly unattainable for the average woman.
C)dieting has become a fad that has been taken to an extreme.
D)beauty is now being defined by different cultures in society than before.
Q3) What body mass index (BMI) level is considered starvation?
A)20
B)16
C)13
D)4
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Q1) Sexual dysfunction in the United States is experienced by
A)approximately 44% of women.
B)under 10% for both men and women.
C)approximately 21% of women.
D)approximately 51% of the population.
Q2) In order to qualify for sex reassignment surgery, candidates must be stable in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A)psychologically.
B)financially.
C)socially.
D)physically
Q3) Explain the modern definition of the term disorder as it relates to sexual behavior. Why is the determination of a sexual disorder a somewhat subjective decision?
Q4) Describe Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy.
Q5) A fetish is a
A)source of dysfunction.
B)attraction to nonconsenting individuals.
C)attraction to inanimate objects.
D)a sexual desire that dominates the personality.
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Q1) The _________ system seems to be particularly sensitive to alcohol.
A)dopamine
B)GABA
C)Wernicke
D)olfactory
Q2) According to the text, researchers estimate what percentage of individuals in America engage in binge drinking?
A)25%
B)30%
C)44%
D)98%
Q3) Which of the following hallucinogenic substances is processed synthetically?
A)Marijuana
B)LSD
C)Psilocybin
D)Mescaline
Q4) Compare and contrast the stimulant drugs. Discuss the history of cocaine as well as its atypical type of addictive process.
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Q5) Describe the most common pathway to opioid addiction in the 21st century.
Q6) Describe typical practices and dangers associated with inhalant use disorder.
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Q1) Nicole has difficulty maintaining relationships because she goes back and forth from being a best friend to hating people in her life. Her romantic relationships are always characterized by incredible loving passion alternating with episodes of horrible fighting, and sometimes she becomes violent. At times, Nicole becomes so upset that she cuts herself and reports that this makes her feel better emotionally. Nicole suffers from ________ personality disorder.
A)dependent
B)histrionic
C)borderline
D)narcissistic
Q2) According to the DSM-5, cluster A groups which of the following personality disorders?
A)Borderline, compulsive, psychotic
B)Paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal
C)Avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
D)Antisocial, histrionic, narcissistic
Q3) Compare and contrast the categorization and the criteria for diagnosis of childhood-onset type and adolescent-onset type conduct disorders.
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Q1) Ms. C is hearing voices from Satan, who gives her instructions for committing sins, and she is convinced that others know about her special relationship with him. What type of symptoms of schizophrenia is she struggling with?
A)Positive
B)Negative
C)Disorganized
D)Combined
Q2) According to research, a person with schizophrenia who exhibits flat affect
A)is incapable of experiencing emotion.
B)can display emotion at certain times.
C)is capable of experiencing emotion.
D)none of these are correct
Q3) Research using brain imaging techniques has localized auditory hallucinations in the part of the brain called
A)Wernicke's area.
B)Broca's area.
C)the occipital lobe.
D)the limbic system.
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Q1) Research regarding early intervention programs such as Head Start indicates that such programs
A)are ineffective.
B)may help improve the functioning of intellectually disabled children.
C)may help prevent "at risk" children from developing intellectual disability.
D)help parents manage the behavior of their intellectually disabled children.
Q2) The best way to think about the psychological and social influences involved in major neurocognitive disorder is that they A)help determine the onset and course.
B)are direct causes.
C)have no influence.
D)have not been studied.
Q3) An appropriate treatment goal for a child with autism is
A)resolution of all autistic symptoms by age 18.
B)immediate cessation of ritualistic behaviors.
C)development of normal social skills by age 18.
D)reduction in tantrums and eventual development of some self-care activities.
Q4) Describe the symptoms of major neurocognitive disorder and delirium. What do the symptoms of each of these disorders have in common? What features are unique to each disorder?
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Q1) In contrast to the NGRI verdict, the GBMI verdict usually specifies all of the following EXCEPT that
A)the accused be given a prison sentence just as if there were no mental illness present.
B)the accused may be either hospitalized or imprisoned, as determined by legal authorities.
C)the accused may be either hospitalized or imprisoned, as determined by medical authorities.
D)if the person recovers from the mental illness before the sentence has passed, he or she can be confined to prison for the maximum length of the term.
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding public perception of the insanity defense?
A)The public underestimates how often the insanity defense is used in criminal cases.
B)The public overestimates how often the insanity defense is successfully used.
C)The public overestimates the length of hospitalization of those who are found not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI).
D)The public underestimates how often people judged NGRI are set free.
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