Introduction to Clinical Practice Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Clinical Practice offers students a foundational understanding of the principles, skills, and attitudes essential for effective clinical care in healthcare environments. The course emphasizes patient-centered approaches, introduces the basics of clinical reasoning, communication, and professionalism, and familiarizes students with ethical, legal, and safety considerations in patient management. Through simulated scenarios, shadowing experiences, and interactive workshops, students begin developing the practical skills necessary for patient interviews, history taking, and basic physical examination, preparing them for more advanced clinical training later in their studies.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by
Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient fall rates are an example of a ______________ type of study in the evidence hierarchy.
Answer: quality improvement data
Data collected within a health care agency offer important trending information about clinical conditions and problems.Staff in the agency review the data periodically to identify problem areas and to seek solutions.
Q2) The nurse is not sure that the procedure the patient requires is the best possible for the situation.Utilizing which of the following resources would be the quickest way to review research on the topic?
A)CINAHL
B)PubMed
C)MEDLINE
D)The Cochrane Library
Answer: D
Q3) __________________ are the gold standard for research.
Answer: Randomized controlled trials
Individual randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are the gold standard for research (Titler and others, 2001).An RCT establishes cause and effect and is excellent for testing therapies.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has decided that he would like to create an advance directive.The nurse is asked if she would be a witness.What is the best response for the nurse to make to this request?
A)Agree to be a witness.
B)Refuse to be a witness.
C)Contact social work.
D)Contact the physician.
Answer: C
Q2) The patient is admitted to the ICU after having been in a motor vehicle accident.He was intubated in the emergency department and needs to receive two units of packed red blood cells.He is conscious but is indicating that he is in pain by guarding his abdomen.To admit this patient, the nurse first will focus on:
A)examining the patient and treating the pain.
B)orienting the family to the ICU visitation policy.
C)making sure that the consent forms are signed.
D)informing the patient of his HIPAA rights.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient tells the nurse that his mother left him when he was 5 years old.The nurse responds by saying, "You say that your mother left you when you were 5 years old?" This is an example of _______________.
Answer: restating
Restating is a technique whereby the nurse repeats the main thought that the patient has expressed.It indicates that the nurse is listening, and validates, reinforces, or calls attention to something important that has been said.
Q2) Which behavior should the nurse who is communicating with a potentially violent patient employ?
A)Sit closer to the patient.
B)Speak loudly and firmly.
C)Use slow, deliberate gestures.
D)Always block the door to prevent escape.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal of information management? (Select all that apply.)
A)Support decision making.
B)Improve patient outcomes.
C)Ensure patient safety.
D)Improve health care documentation.
E)None of above
Q2) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
Q3) To limit liability, nursing documentation must clearly indicate that the nurse provided individualized, goal-directed nursing care to a patient based on the
Q4) Which of the following is the best example of accurate documentation?
A)"Abdominal wound is 5 cm in length without redness, edema, or drainage."
B)"OD to be irrigated qd with NS."
C)"No complaint of abdominal pain this shift."
D)"Patient watching TV entire shift."
Q5) When making written entries in the patient's medical record, describe the nursing care provided and the ____________.
Q6) The abbreviation for every day (___) is no longer used.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An irregular heartbeat, often found in children, that speeds up with inspiration and slows down with expiration is known as a sinus ___________.
Q2) The patient is a 1-year-old male infant who is admitted with possible sepsis.The patient is irritable and agitates easily.What should the nurse do to assess the patient's temperature?
A)Take an oral temperature before doing anything else.
B)Take an axillary temperature using the upper axilla.
C)Place the child in Sims' position for a rectal temperature.
D)Take a rectal temperature as the last vital sign.
Q3) What steps should the nurse take to conduct an assessment of a possible pulse deficit?
A)A nurse measures the pulse after the patient exercises.
B)Two nurses check the same pulse on opposite sides of the body.
C)Two nurses assess the apical and radial pulses and determine the difference.
D)The current pulse is compared with previous pulse measurements for differences.
Q4) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ is a yellow-orange skin color seen with increased deposit of bilirubin in tissues.
Q2) During assessment of a patient with anemia, a nurse is alert for the presence of:
A)pallor.
B)jaundice.
C)cyanosis.
D)erythema.
Q3) Which technique is most appropriate for a nurse to implement during the assessment of the abdomen?
A)Assessing painful areas first
B)Auscultating for 5 minutes over each quadrant
C)Positioning the patient in a supine position with the arms behind or over the head
D)Palpating painful masses or organ enlargement deeply and firmly
Q4) In providing a physical assessment of an 88-year-old patient, the nurse should:
A)do it as quickly as possible to prevent fatigue.
B)assume that the patient will have disabilities.
C)prepare to perform a mental status examination.
D)always do the exam in the small exam room to prevent chills.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has a "scratchy throat" and has been sniffling for 2 days.While at work, she wears a protective mask when coming into contact with her patients.She does this in an attempt to protect them from a __________________.
Q2) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A)put the patient in a private room.
B)place the patient on standard precautions.
C)wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient.
D)place the patient on contact precautions.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to provide care for the patient.Before making patient contact, she washes her hands.This practice is known as __________________.
Q4) The nurse is planning to care for a patient diagnosed with possible tuberculosis ( TB ).Assessment of possible TB may be based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)A positive AFB smear or culture
B)Signs or symptoms of TB
C)Cavitation on chest x-ray study
D)History of recent exposure
E)TB skin test
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires a sterile dressing change for a mid-abdominal surgical incision.An appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement in maintaining sterile asepsis is to:
A)put sterile gloves on before opening sterile packages.
B)discard items that may have been in contact with the area below waist level.
C)place the povidone-iodine bottle well within the sterile field.
D)place sterile items on the very edge of the sterile drape.
Q2) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
Q3) Which patient may the nurse suspect will be at risk for a latex allergy?
A)Patient with food allergies
B)Patient with diabetes
C)Patient with arthritis
D)Patient with hypertension
Q4) When performing sterile aseptic procedures, the nurse must create a _____________ in which objects can be handled with minimal risk for contamination.
Q5) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is _______________.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positioning of patients to maintain correct body alignment is essential to prevent which of the following complications? (Select all that apply.)
A)Thrombus
B)Pressure ulcer
C)Kyphosis
D)Contractures
Q2) The most prevalent and debilitating occupational health hazard among nurses is: A)footdrop.
B)pressure ulcers.
C)musculoskeletal disorders.
D)contractures.
Q3) The nurse needs to transfer the patient from the bed to the stretcher.The patient is unable to assist.Of the following, which would be the best technique for transferring the patient?
A)Using three nurses and a slide board
B)Using the three-person lift technique
C)Raising the head 30 degrees
D)Having the patient keeps arms to the side
Q4) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood, venous wall damage, and stasis of blood flow) has been found to contribute to ________________.
Q2) The nurse is applying a CPM machine to the patient's leg.To do so, she must: (Select all that apply.)
A)provide analgesia 1 hour before starting the CPM.
B)stop the CPM when in extension and place a sheepskin on the machine.
C)align the patient's joint with the CPM's mechanical joint.
D)secure the patient's extremity tightly with Velcro straps.
Q3) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Q4) The patient is an elderly gentleman who has been on bed rest for the past several days.When getting the patient up, the nurse should:
A)tell the patient not to move his legs when dangling.
B)tell the patient to hold his breath while dangling.
C)raise the head of the bed and allow a few minutes before dangling.
D)have the patient stand without dangling.
Q5) Static exercises that involve tightening or tensing of muscles without moving a body part are known as ______________.
Q6) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a new cast applied.The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment so as to detect signs of possible compartment syndrome.Which of the following are signs of compartment syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Inability to move body parts distal to the cast
B)Pain on passive motion of distal body parts
C)Hyperventilation
D)Tachycardia
E)None of above
Q2) After applying a cast, the nurse should be able to insert _______ fingers between the cast and the limb.
Q3) The patient has fallen and broken her leg.To keep the leg bones aligned and to reduce muscle spasms, the physician orders the patient to be placed in
Q4) __________________ involves monitoring for the five Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis).
Q5) A _______________ is an externally applied structure that holds musculoskeletal tissues in a specific position to permit healing of injuries or fractures or to align malpositioned tissues.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is in an air-fluidized bed.She places the patient in semi-Fowler's position using foam wedges, even though she realizes that:
A)patients gain the greatest benefit from the prone position in an air-fluidized bed.
B)for resuscitation, she may have to increase the air pressure of the bed to do CPR.
C)she may have to increase the air pressure of the bed to turn the patient.
D)the foam wedges may decrease the effects of the bed.
Q2) _________________ beds are for patients who are immobile or otherwise are confined to the bed; they support a patient's weight on air-filled cushions.
Q3) What is the primary purpose for the use of a support surface?
A)To reduce pressure
B)To promote patient comfort
C)To increase circulation
D)To facilitate patient movement
Q4) The patient will be going home but still requires an air-fluidized bed.Before discharge, it will be necessary for the company that is leasing the bed to inspect the home for accessibility and ________________.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ________________ maintains immobilization of the extremities to protect the patient from accidental removal of a therapeutic device.
Q2) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 10 minutes is known as _______________.
Q3) Which of the following fall prevention strategies should the nurse perform on all hospitalized patients? (Select all that apply.)
A)Conduct hourly rounds.
B)Provide the patient regular toileting.
C)Assess the patient's comfort needs.
D)Evaluate the effectiveness of pain medication.
Q4) Which of the following alternatives to physical restraints should the nurse use to promote patient safety? (Select all that apply.)
A)Environmental modifications
B)Less frequent patient observation
C)Involvement of family during visitation
D)Frequent reorientation of the patient
Q5) It is important for nurses to understand what patients perceive as ___________ so that patients will become partners in programs to prevent them.
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) An outbreak of an infectious disease such as SARS in many parts of the world is known as a ______________.
Q2) The strategic plan of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the event of a disaster first focuses on __________________.
Q3) The patient is being treated for biological agent exposure and is resting in the emergency department bay.It is important that the nurse evaluate changes in airway, breathing, and circulation, as well as ____________________.
Q4) If a patient is receiving radiation using gamma rays, the nurse would be watching for which of the following?
A)Severe pain during administration
B)Development of an allergy to shellfish
C)Severe burns or internal injury
D)Confusion and lethargy
Q5) __________ is the sorting of individuals by the seriousness of their condition and the likelihood of their survival.
Q6) The dispersal of radioactive material via a "dirty bomb" or by deliberate contamination of food supplies or water supplies is known as a _________________.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is evaluating the epidural catheter insertion site and suspects that the intraspinal catheter has punctured the dura when _____ noted.
A)clear drainage is
B)bloody drainage is
C)purulent drainage is
D)redness, warmth, and swelling are
Q2) The patient has morphine sulfate ordered for pain every 4 hours "prn." The patient complains of severe pain and usually requests more morphine an hour before it is due.The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A)Request a "placebo order" from the physician.
B)Offer the patient medication "around the clock" instead of "prn".
C)Offer the patient massage between medication doses.
D)Offer the patient a nonopioid medication between morphine doses if ordered.
Q3) The nurse frequently must assess a patient who is experiencing pain.When assessing the intensity of the pain, the nurse should:
A)ask whether there are any precipitating factors.
B)question the patient about the location of the pain.
C)offer the patient a pain scale to objectify the information.
D)use open-ended questions to find out about the sensation.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
Q2) When caring for a patient who is an appropriate candidate for organ or tissue donation, the nurse knows that requests for donation are:
A)required by state law.
B)the total responsibility of the survivors.
C)a possible inclusion in the advance directive.
D)made only by the physician.
Q3) The World Health Organization (2002) defines ___________ as an "approach that improves the quality of life of individuals and their families facing life-threatening illness, through the prevention and relief of suffering by means of early identification and impeccable assessment and treatment of pain and other physical, psychological, and spiritual problems."
Q4) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:
A)be done in a private setting.
B)be discussed with other individuals.
C)promote separation of the ill patient from the family.
D)allow time for the process of grief.
Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When bathing a patient, which sequence is the correct approach to use?
A)Wash the feet after the legs.
B)Wash the eyes after the face.
C)Wash the legs before the abdomen.
D)Wash the back area before the extremities.
Q2) A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of pediculosis capitis (head lice).Proper treatment for this condition would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use of medicated shampoo or permethrin (Nix)
B)Use of products containing lindane
C)Combing the hair with a nit comb for 2 to 3 days after treatment
D)Washing linens in cold water for 30 minutes
Q3) _________________ provides an acidic coating to protect the epidermis against penetration from chemicals and microorganisms; it also minimizes loss of water and plasma proteins.
Q4) Tissue that surrounds the fingernail, slowly grows over the nail, and must be regularly pushed back with a soft nail brush is known as the __________________.
Q5) The ____________ is the largest human organ.
Q6) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q2) The nurse is turning a patient when she notices an area with nonblanchable redness over the patient's coccyx.The patient complains of pain at the site, and the site does feel cooler than the areas immediately around the site.The nurse recognizes that this patient has developed:
A)a stage I pressure.
B)a stage II pressure.
C)an unstageable pressure.
D)deep tissue injury.
Q3) The nurse is planning care for her patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)A heat lamp to dry the wound
B)Application of topical antibiotics
C)Nutritional assessment
D)Maintaining moisture in the wound
Q4) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a comatose patient determines that he is wearing contact lenses.Which of the following nursing interventions will the nurse use when removing the contact lenses?
A)Put on snug, powdered, clean gloves.
B)Ask the patient to look down to expose the lower eyeball.
C)Use the fingernail to slide the lens off of the cornea.
D)Inspect the eye after the lenses have been removed.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient who has an artificial eye.To determine which eye is artificial, she shines a light into the patient's eyes.Why does the nurse do this?
A)The light will cause the eye to move differently than the natural eye.
B)An artificial eye pupil does not react to changes in light.
C)It is essential to remove the prosthesis for cleaning.
D)The implant can be seen only by shining a light.
Q3) In caring for a patient with contact lenses, the nurse should be aware that:
A)rigid gas-permeable (RGP) lenses are no longer used.
B)soft contact lenses are smaller than the cornea.
C)all lenses must be removed periodically.
D)extended wear lenses can be used for only 6 nights.
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to receive a medication via the sublingual route.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Placing the medication under the tongue
B)Crushing the medication before administration
C)Offering the client a glass of orange juice after administration
D)Using sterile technique to administer the medication
Q2) A patient with chronic back pain has been taking oral morphine sulfate (MS Contin) for the past 2 years.Upon admission to the hospital, the patient receives morphine sulfate for back pain but reports no pain relief.The nurse notifies the health care provider, recognizing that the reason for the lack of pain relief is which of the following?
A)Side effect of the morphine
B)Drug dependence
C)Idiosyncratic response to the morphine
D)Medication tolerance
Q3) The _________________ of a drug is the blood serum concentration reached and maintained after repeated, fixed doses.
Q4) The intended or desired physiological response to a medication is known as its
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is unable to sit upright for medication administration.The nurse should assist the patient to which position to decrease the risk for aspiration?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Side-lying
D)Dorsal recumbent
Q2) The nurse is preparing several topical medications for a patient.The nurse identifies which of the following as ways to administer a topical medication? (Select all that apply.)
A)Administering through an enteral tube placed in the jejunum
B)Inhaling an aerosol spray into the lungs
C)Spraying a mist into the nose
D)Dissolving a medication under the tongue
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer aspirin to a patient via an enteral feeding tube.Which form is appropriate for the nurse to administer?
A)Crushed chewable aspirin
B)Liquid aspirin
C)Enteric-coated aspirin
D)Sustained-release aspirin capsule
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Q1) A patient has orders for 10 units of glargine (Lantus) insulin and 5 units of regular insulin to be given at the same time.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Injecting 10 units of air into the glargine insulin vial first and not withdrawing the medication
B)Injecting 5 units of air into the regular insulin vial first and then 10 units of air into the glargine insulin vial
C)Giving two separate injections using different needles and syringes
D)Withdrawing 5 units of regular insulin first and then calculating the total dose of regular and glargine insulin combined
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) antibiotic using a mini-infusion pump.Which action should the nurse do first?
A)Place the syringe into the mini-infusion pump.
B)Hang the pump on an IV pole.
C)Connect the end of the mini-infusion tubing to the main IV line.
D)Apply pressure to the syringe plunger to fill the tubing with medication.
Q3) The nurse injects the medication into the loose connective tissue just under the dermis when giving a _____________ injection.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident.The patient is unconscious and has a broken jaw, a broken nose, and facial lacerations.The patient's breath sounds are diminished, and the health care provider suspects atelectasis.Frequent suctioning is required to clear the airway.Oxygen saturation levels range from 70% to 75%.The nurse recognizes that this patient most likely will have which type of ventilatory device ordered?
A)CPAP
B)BiPAP
C)Nasal cannula
D)Mechanical ventilation
Q2) A condition in which oxygen is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the tissues and cells is known as __________________.
Q3) The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath while a patient is on mechanical ventilation is known as the ________________.
Q4) In noninvasive ventilation, ________________ keeps the terminal airways (alveoli) partially inflated, reducing the risk for atelectasis.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives orders on several patients for chest percussion, vibration, and shaking.The nurse is aware that chest physiotherapy maneuvers are indicated for which patient?
A)18-year-old who sustained thoracic trauma from a motor vehicle accident
B)75-year-old with osteoporosis who is underweight
C)15-year-old with cystic fibrosis
D)20-year-old with a fractured clavicle
Q2) A patient who is very frail and thin with osteoporosis has just undergone abdominal surgery.The nurse anticipates that which technique will be used to control respiratory secretions in this patient?
A)Forceful coughing
B)Percussion
C)Vibration
D)Shaking
Q3) The patient is complaining of feeling congested.After assessing the patient, the nurse places the patient in the proper position and claps her cupped hands against the patient's thorax.She does this because she is aware that ______________ assists in loosening retained secretions from the airway.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing several patients who have returned from surgery.Which finding most likely indicates a need for suctioning?
A)Complaint of pain when breathing
B)Cough producing thick yellow mucus
C)Oxygen saturation level of 88%
D)Drowsiness and respiratory rate of 8
Q2) The nurse is providing nasotracheal suctioning for a 13-year-old patient with secretions in the throat and trachea.Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper technique?
A)Applying sterile petroleum jelly to the distal tip of the suction catheter
B)Applying clean gloves to both hands
C)Inserting the suction catheter 6 to 8 inches during inspiration
D)Suctioning the pharynx first and then the trachea
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient with an endotracheal tube on mechanical ventilation.Which assessment finding indicates a partially deflated cuff?
A)Increased exhaled tidal volume
B)Spasmodic coughing
C)Tense test balloon on the endotracheal tube
D)Vocalizations by the patient
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is comatose and on a ventilator.When she enters the room, she notices that the patient's trachea has shifted toward the left side of the patient's neck, and he has become tachycardic.She assesses the patient's blood pressure and notes that it is 84/38.The nurse calls for help, having recognized that the patient has developed which of the following conditions?
A)Hemothorax
B)Pneumothorax on the left side
C)Pneumothorax on the right side
D)Myocardial infarction
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a chest tube.Attached to the top of the patient's bed are two shodded hemostats.In which situations would these be used? (Select all that apply.)
A)To assess an air leak
B)To quickly empty or change disposable systems
C)To quickly seal off the lungs if the system becomes disconnected
D)To assess whether the patient is ready to have the chest tube removed
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the appropriate technique for a nurse to implement when inserting an oral airway?
A)Insert the airway with the curved end up, then rotate it 180 degrees at the back of the throat.
B)Insert the airway with the curved end down along the curve of the tongue.
C)Use a tongue blade to insert and push the airway into position.
D)Insert the airway sideways, then rotate it with the curved end up.
Q2) A semicircular, minimally flexible, curved piece of hard plastic that is inserted into the mouth so it extends from just outside the lips to the pharynx is known as an
Q3) While measuring an oral airway for proper fit, the nurse places the airway so that the flange is held parallel to the front teeth with the airway against the patient's cheek.Where is the end of the curve?
A)At the angle of the jaw
B)Above the ear
C)To the level of the nose
D)Upside down
Q4) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as ________________.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving antineoplastic medications intravenously.The nurse discovers that the intravenous site is red, edematous, and painful.The nurse knows that antineoplastic medications are vesicant medications and documents that the patient has experienced which of the following events?
A)Occlusion
B)Extravasation
C)Phlebitis
D)Thrombophlebitis
Q2) For which patients are electronic infusion devices ( EIDs ) used? (Select all that apply.)
A)Those who require low hourly rates
B)Those who are at risk for volume overload
C)Those who have impaired renal clearance
D)Those who are receiving fluids that require a specific hourly volume
E)None of above
Q3) While assessing the patient's IV site, the nurse notes that the site is reddened and warm.The patient states that it is "sore." The nurse recognizes these as signs of
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies that react against the A and B antigens are naturally present in the plasma of people whose red blood cells do not carry the antigen.These antibodies react against the foreign antigens.Incompatible red blood cells clump together or _____________, which results in a life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Q2) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
Q3) For how long may blood preserved with CPD be stored (unfrozen) before use?
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)3 months
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for a blood transfusion is to:
A)provide medication through the IV line with the blood.
B)regulate the flow of blood so that it infuses over 8 hours.
C)clear the IV tubing with normal saline after the blood infuses.
D)administer a blood product with clots through a filter line.
Q5) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are signs of iron (Fe²?) deficiency? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pale eye membranes
B)Cheilosis (redness/swelling) of the lips
C)Spongy, bleeding gingiva
D)Glossitis
Q2) The patient is on the dysphagia puree stage of the national dysphagia diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A)Mashed potatoes
B)Dry cereals moistened with milk
C)Well-cooked noodles in gravy
D)Well-moistened cereals
Q3) The nurse is admitting a patient to the medical unit.Which of the following are reasons the nurse may perform a nutritional screening on this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)To assess risk for malnutrition
B)To assist with feeding
C)To identify risk for aspiration
D)To determine body weight
Q4) _______________ is useful for monitoring short-term changes in visceral protein.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an appropriate amount of nasogastric irrigant for an adult patient?
A)1 or 2 mL
B)30 mL
C)5 to 15 mL
D)250 mL
Q2) The nurse determines that a nasogastric (NG) tube needs irrigation when she:
A)obtains more than 200 mL of residual volume.
B)obtains a small amount of thin watery residual.
C)does not encounter resistance when aspirating the residual.
D)obtains a unusually thick secretions.
Q3) The nurse is checking the residual volume on a patient who is getting intermittent tube feedings via his NG tube.Which of the following may indicate that the patient has started to bleed again?
A)The nurse obtains brown aspirate.
B)The nurse notices that the abdomen is distended.
C)The nurse obtains red aspirate.
D)The nurse notices severe respiratory distress.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient in a chronic vegetative state with inadequate gastric emptying.The nurse would anticipate finding in a ________ tube placed to assist with this patient's nutritional needs.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has had a central venous catheter in place.The patient complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A)Exit site infection
B)Catheter-related sepsis
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hyperglycemia
Q2) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q3) The nurse is managing the care of a patient receiving PN.Which assessment finding indicates potential septicemia?
A)Shakiness and dizziness
B)Chest pain/hypotension
C)Increased thirst
D)Increased temperature
Q4) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance is encountered during urinary catheterization of a male patient.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Remove the catheter immediately.
B)Apply force to insert the catheter farther.
C)Ask the patient to breathe quickly through the mouth.
D)Ask the patient to take slow, deep breaths.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing inadequate bladder emptying.To determine postvoid residual, which technique is most important for the nurse to implement?
A)Bladder scanner
B)Indwelling catheterization
C)Straight/intermittent catheterization
D)Foley catheterization
Q3) When the balloon on an indwelling urinary catheter is inflated and the patient expresses discomfort, it is essential for the nurse to take which action?
A)Remove the catheter.
B)Continue to blow up the balloon because discomfort is expected.
C)Aspirate the fluid from the balloon and advance the catheter.
D)Pull back on the catheter slightly to determine tension.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult patient who has normal sphincter control.For administration of the enema, the patient is placed in which position?
A)Right side-lying
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Sims'
D)Prone
Q2) _____________ is defined by a number of signs including infrequent bowel movements, difficulty evacuating, hard stools, and inability to defecate.
Q3) While the nurse is administering an enema with a standard enema bag, which intervention is important to implement?
A)Keeping the solution at room temperature
B)Positioning the patient on the right side
C)Raising the enema bag to 12 inches above the patient
D)Instructing the patient to release the enema solution as soon as possible
Q4) Infrequent bowel movements (less often than every 3 days), difficulty in evacuating feces, inability to defecate, and hard feces are signs of ________________.
Q5) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with an ostomy.The nurse notes that the ostomy is putting out watery effluent.The nurse recognizes that this is indicative of which location?
A)Descending colon
B)Sigmoid colon
C)Ileal portion of the small intestine
D)transverse colon
Q2) When assessing the patient with a noncontinent urinary diversion, the nurse finds that the urine has mucous shreds.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Culture any drainage.
B)Instruct the patient to consume less water.
C)Note the characteristics of the urine in her notes.
D)Cleanse the stoma with soap and water.
Q3) An ostomy that is created from a portion of the ileum to form a stoma through which urine can exit the body is called a(n) _____________.
Q4) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q5) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a patient is prepared for surgery, which finding indicates that the nurse should inform the surgeon that the surgery may need to be postponed?
A)The patient has a history of smoking.
B)The patient is experiencing calf pain, redness, and swelling.
C)The patient has an increased hemoglobin level.
D)The patient experienced an upper respiratory infection a month ago.
Q2) In planning surgical care for an older adult patient, the nurse recognizes which of the following as causing the greatest risk for surgery?
A)Increased tactile sense
B)Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C)Increased numbers of red blood cells
D)Decreased rigidity of arterial walls
Q3) When planning care for a surgical patient, the nurse recognizes that surgical site infections account for what percentage of hospital-acquired infection?
A)22% to 40%
B)5% to 10%
C)45% to 70%
D)75% to 100%
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that evidence-based care is appropriate when the nurse witnesses the surgeon take which step?
A)Washing hands for a minimum of 15 minutes with soap and water
B)Using alcohol hand scrub for 15 minutes
C)Using alcohol combined with chlorhexidine gluconate hand scrubs
D)Using a combination of soap and alcohol as a scrub
Q2) The scrub nurse's hands are being washed in preparation for a surgical procedure.As the nurse finishes, the scrub nurse accidentally touches the faucet with one hand.Which action should the nurse take next?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Apply a sterile gown.
C)Apply a sterile mask.
D)Wash her hands.
Q3) While supervising the surgical team, the charge nurse notices that a team member's nails are long and chipped.Which action should the nurse take next?
A)Allow the team member to complete the task.
B)Remove the team member to have the nails cut.
C)Turn the team member in to the RNFA.
D)Ask the team member why the nails are long and chipped.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wounds that have been approved for treatment using NPWT include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pressure ulcers
B)Diabetic ulcers
C)Traumatic wounds
D)Venous stasis ulcers
E)None of above
Q2) When teaching about wound care in the home environment, the nurse instructs the patient and caregiver to:
A)make normal saline with 8 teaspoons of salt and .1 gallon of distilled water.
B)use normal saline for 1 week and then discard it.
C)not apply topical anesthetics before wound care.
D)call the physician's office to have someone come to the home and complete the wound care.
Q3) When should a nurse consider culturing a wound?
A)When the tissue is clean and dry
B)When exudate is not present
C)When the patient is afebrile
D)When the surrounding area shows inflammation
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for the nurse to implement during the application of an absorption or alginate dressing?
A)Never cut the dressing to fit the wound.
B)Irrigate the wound gently to remove residual gel.
C)Fill the wound cavity entirely with the dressing material.
D)Never use a secondary dressing.
Q3) _______________ is a type of therapy that speeds wound healing by applying localized negative pressure to draw the edges of a wound together.
Q4) Hydrocolloid dressings are used for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Maintaining a moist wound environment
B)Autolytic debriding of necrotic wounds
C)Absorption of moderately draining wounds
D)Protecting from friction
Q5) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
Q6) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
Q7) ___________ healing takes place when tissue is cleanly cut and the margins are reapproximated.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse removes an ice pack and notices that the area underneath the ice pack is blue.What action should the nurse take?
A)Reapply the ice pack.
B)Discontinue the use of ice packs.
C)Refill the ice pack to the top.
D)Reapply the ice pack without the wrapping.
Q2) When the skin is exposed to warm or hot temperatures, which of the following occurs? (Select all that apply.)
A)Vasodilatation
B)Vasoconstriction
C)Perspiration
D)Piloerection
Q3) The use of cold (cryotherapy) to treat certain injuries is beneficial because of which of the following effects? (Select all that apply.)
A)Relief of pain
B)Decreased muscle spasm
C)Increased nerve conduction
D)Decreased edema
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been brought to the emergency department by a family member, who states that she just "doesn't know what to do." The patient often forgets where he is and refuses to bathe or change clothes.He will put things on the stove and forget that he has something cooking.She is obviously concerned for her loved one's safety.The nurse is likely to interpret these symptoms as signs of:
A)depression.
B)amnesia.
C)aphasia.
D)Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) The patient is on neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin and regular insulin at home.How should the nurse teach the patient and the patient's caregiver to store the insulin?
A)In the refrigerator and removed only for administration
B)In a warm place such as in a cabinet above the stove
C)In the dairy bin of the refrigerator with the cheese and eggs
D)At room temperature for up to 30 days
Q3) Dementia is characterized by a gradual, progressive, irreversible _______ dysfunction.
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching the patient and family about CISC, why is it important for the nurse to teach about the signs and symptoms of complications?
A)Although rare, complications are always severe.
B)It is part of the process; complications almost never occur.
C)Urinary complications are common with CISC.
D)The only major complication is infection.
Q2) The patient's caregiver is checking the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric residual before proceeding with the patient's next feeding.The patient aspirates 250 mL of residual for the second hour in a row.The caregiver held the tube feeding within the last hour.What should the caregiver do now?
A)Hold the feeding again.
B)Contact the health care provider.
C)Proceed with the feeding.
D)Give half of the feeding and see how the patient tolerates it.
Q3) While teaching how to check for gastric residual, the nurse instructs the caregiver to delay the tube feeding if he or she obtains more than _________ mL of gastric aspirate.
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A timed urine collection can be used for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Glucose
B)Adrenocorticosteroids
C)Bacteria count
D)Color
Q2) In explaining to the patient about obtaining a sputum specimen to diagnose tuberculosis, the nurse explains which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Specimens are best obtained in the early morning.
B)Acid-fast bacilli ( AFB ) smears require three consecutive morning samples.
C)Bacteria accumulate as secretions pool.
D)Specimens should be obtained at bedtime.
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when culturing wound drainage that is suspected to contain anaerobic bacteria is to:
A)use older secretions for the specimen.
B)add exudate from the skin to the wound specimen.
C)aspirate 5 to 10 mL of exudate from a deep cavity wound.
D)swab carefully and slowly in a back-and-forth motion across the wound.
Q4) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone a bronchoscopy and has been in recovery for the last 15 minutes.The nurse should be especially watchful for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Return of the gag reflex
B)Laryngospasm
C)Respiratory status
D)Facial or neck crepitus
Q2) Which is the appropriate patient position for a lumbar puncture?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Sims'
D)Lateral recumbent
Q3) The nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow aspiration on a 3-month-old infant.The nurse may expect that the physician will use which site to perform the aspiration?
A)Sternum
B)Anterior iliac crest
C)Proximal tibia
D)Posterior iliac crest
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