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Introduction to Child Psychopathology offers an in-depth exploration of the patterns, causes, and treatment of psychological disorders that emerge during childhood and adolescence. The course examines major categories of child psychopathology, including mood disorders, anxiety disorders, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), autism spectrum disorder, and conduct disorders. Students will learn about the developmental, biological, psychological, and environmental factors that contribute to these disorders, as well as the assessment methods and intervention strategies used by clinicians. Emphasis is placed on understanding the unique presentation of mental health issues in children, the role of family, school, and culture, and the importance of early detection and prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Abnormal Child and Adolescent Psychology 3rd Edition by Robert Weis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common barrier to treatment for psychological disorders of childhood?
A) Families are unable to pay for evidence-based treatments.
B) Evidence-based treatment is not available in many communities.
C) Stigma prevents individuals from seeking treatment for mental disorders.
D) No evidence-based treatments have been identified for most childhood psychological disorders.
Answer: D
Q2) What is believed to be true of levels of analysis according to probabilistic epigenesis?
A) Genetics can influence biology and psychology, but biology and psychology cannot influence genetics.
B) Biology and psychology can influence genetics, but genetics cannot influence biology and psychology.
C) Genetics can influence biology and psychology and biology and psychology can influence genetics.
D) Genetics can influence biology but not psychology.
Answer: C
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Q1) When do intimate relationships first develop?
A) 2-4 years
B) 4-6 years
C) 6-9 years
D) 9-12 years
Answer: C
Q2) Which is true of twins?
A) Monozygotic twins always share a genotype but may have different phenotypes.
B) Dizygotic twins always share a genotype but may have different phenotypes.
C) Monozygotic twins always share a phenotype but may have different genotypes.
D) Dizygotic twins always share a phenotype but may have different genotypes.
Answer: A
Q3) With respect to academic performance,______ parenting has shown the best outcomes; with respect to social skills and emotional competence,______ parenting has shown the best outcomes.
A) authoritative; authoritarian
B) authoritarian; authoritative
C) authoritarian; indulgent
D) authoritative; indulgent
Answer: B
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Q1) Which rating scale would be the most targeted assessment for ADHD?
A) ASRS
B) Conners 3
C) Revised Children's Anxiety and Depression Scale
D) ASEBA
Answer: B
Q2) Intelligence ______.
A) is innate
B) involves both abstract thinking and knowledge
C) has been defined in the same ways for over 200 years
D) cannot be reliably measured in children
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of diagnosis in children?
A) prediction
B) planning treatment
C) focusing on individuals
D) facilitating scientific discovery
Answer: C
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Q1) According to Adlerian Family Therapy,which is NOT a reason disruptive behavior might occur?
A) to gain attention
B) to gain objects or favors
C) to get even with others
D) to be left alone
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of suicide and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) SSRIs do not increase suicide attempts in children.
B) SSRIs tripled the rate of suicidal ideation in children.
C) Children taking SSRIs should be monitored by their physicians and caregivers for signs of suicidal ideation.
D) The relationship between SSRIs and suicidal ideation has not yet been examined by the FDA.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the APA Ethical Principles?
A) cultural sensitivity
B) integrity
C) justice
D) fidelity and responsibility
Q4) Why might it be the case that behavior therapy,overall,works best for children?
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Q1) Which of the following factors have been found to relate to markedly lower degrees of marital satisfaction and quality of life in parents?
A) severity of the child's disability
B) low support from the spouse
C) lower levels of family-related stress
D) using problem-focused techniques to deal with stress
Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with schizophrenia?
A) Down syndrome
B) 22q11.2 DS
C) Angelman syndrome
D) Williams syndrome
Q3) Which of the following is a metabolic disorder that can cause intellectual disability?
A) Angelman syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) PKU
D) Rett syndrome
Q4) Provide an example of universal design in the classroom.
Q5) In what ways can challenging behavior adversely affect children?
Q6) What is the difference between mainstreaming and inclusion?
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Q1) Describe some of the evidence for the heritability of ASD.
Q2) What was the result of research into the effectiveness of the UCLA Young Autism Project?
A) It was no more effective than a control condition of referral to other professionals in the community.
B) It only produced results if practiced for the full 40 hours per week of training; training at 10 hours per week produced effects no different than referral to other professionals in the community.
C) The IQ gains seen at age 7 disappeared by age 10.
D) Though there was an increase in skills in children who completed the UCLA Young Autism Project, this did not translate to higher rates of placement in classrooms with typically developing peers.
Q3) Can a child be diagnosed with ASD if he or she displays only marked deficits in social communication and hypersensitivity to sensory stimuli? Why or why not?
Q4) What are some possible reasons that fewer children with ASD now qualify for intellectual disability than did so in the past?
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Q1) Which is true of videotaped modeling as a form of social skills training?
A) It is not effective.
B) It involves recording the child so the child's behavior can be broken down and understood later.
C) It allows the child to review social skills outside of therapy using a tablet or other device.
D) The evidence so far suggests that any gains in social skills it provides are present only in the setting modeled and do not generalize to other settings.
Q2) The primary feature that distinguishes milieu training from other treatments for language disorder is ______.
A) it involves substantially more repetition
B) it is presented to the child only by his or her caregiver, and not by a therapist
C) it occurs in natural contexts
D) it is used primarily with older children, and is not appropriate for children under the age of 6
Q3) How might slow processing speed relate to challenges with reading comprehension?
Q4) Describe how problems in auditory perception may result in language problems.
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of special diets in helping children with ADHD?
A) No reputable study has found a positive effect of special diets on behavioral outcomes for children with ADHD.
B) A subset of children with ADHD seem to show a reduction in symptoms following a change in diet.
C) The most effective special diet for children with ADHD is one in which sugar is strictly limited.
D) The most effective special diet for children with ADHD is one in which salt is strictly limited.
Q2) It is possible to be diagnosed with ADHD,even if one has no hyperactive symptoms. A)True
B)False
Q3) Why might kids with ADHD be able to watch TV for hours but not be able to focus on a writing assignment for more than a few minutes?
Q4) Describe the evidence that sluggish cognitive tempo is a distinct disorder from ADHD.
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Q1) Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a cause of the relationship between conduct problems and alcohol and drug use?
A) Children with conduct problems and alcohol and drug use tend to be more attuned to negative than to positive reinforcement, causing them to seek negative reinforcement from substances and from engaging in deviant behavior.
B) A common set of genes predisposes individuals to both conduct problems and substance use disorders.
C) Disruptive children are typically first introduced to alcohol and drugs by older, deviant peers.
D) Sensitivity toward rewards may predispose youths to both conduct problems and substance use.
Q2) In what ways does low emotional arousal contribute to the development of conduct problems?
Q3) What finding related to the development of conduct problems provides support for the diathesis-stress model?
Q4) How might academic underachievement perpetuate conduct problems?
Q5) Provide an example of environmental structuring.
Q6) How does conduct disorder relate to psychopathy?
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Q1) Which of the following factors does NOT seem to predict an escalation in substance use among adolescents?
A) histories of impulsive and disruptive behavior
B) parent modeling of excessive substance use
C) friends' use of alcohol and other drugs
D) personal values related to abstinence and sobriety
Q2) The main difference between primary and secondary prevention programs for substance use disorders is which of the following?
A) Primary prevention programs are offered exclusively to those in primary school (elementary school).
B) Primary prevention programs are targeted toward all students, while secondary prevention programs are targeted to students more at risk.
C) Only those who have already gone through primary prevention programs would be eligible for secondary prevention programs.
D) Primary prevention programs are typically targeted toward alcohol and cigarettes while secondary prevention programs are typically targeted toward "harder" drugs.
Q3) What is the role of expectations in the enhanced reinforcement pathway?
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Q1) In obsessive-compulsive disorder,how can obsessions occur without compulsions? How can compulsions occur without obsessions?
Q2) Onset of social anxiety disorder is typically between 7 and 9 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) PANDAS is more closely tied to obsessive-compulsive disorder than to anxiety disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The evidence supports which of the following regarding the genetic component of specific phobia?
A) There is a prominent genetic component for specific phobia.
B) Animal phobia appears to be propagated via epigenetic effects.
C) Blood-injection-injury phobias tend to have a relatively greater genetic component than other phobias.
D) A specific genetic marker that increases predisposition to specific phobia has been located on the 7th chromosome.
Q5) In what ways can parenting style contribute to the development of social anxiety disorder?
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Q1) One successful cognitive treatment technique for parents who have exhibited child maltreatment in the past is to attribute their children's acting out to which of the following?
A) the child
B) the parent
C) situational factors
D) nothing-attributions of any kind are shown to be harmful
Q2) Research on the risks for PTSD has indicated which of the following?
A) Children without any siblings are at highest risk.
B) Children whose parents have divorced are at highest risk.
C) Children with elevated anxiety/depression before being introduced to trauma are at highest risk.
D) Children with developmental delays are at highest risk.
Q3) Mindy,age 16,and her boyfriend,Jake,age 18,are hiding their relationship.Jake is worried that he might be accused of sexual abuse because Mindy is under 18.Is Jake's worry realistic? Why or why not?
Q4) Child abuse is considered a mental disorder in the DSM-5.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In what ways is attachment universal? In what ways is it not?
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Q1) Cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective than any other treatment for adolescents with depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is true regarding the relationship between sleep and DMDD?
A) Children with a history of sleep problems are more likely to develop DMDD.
B) The irritability and brain activation differences of children with DMDD make it harder for them to sleep.
C) The comorbidity between DMDD and ADHD moderates the relationship between DMDD and sleep disturbance.
D) Children with DMDD often experience sleep problems, but the direction of this relationship is still unknown.
Q3) Severity in major depressive disorder is determined by which of the following?
A) number of episodes
B) duration of the disturbance
C) number of symptoms and amount of distress or impairment
D) degree of suicidality
Q4) What does it mean that the influence between stressful life events and depression is bidirectional? How could that be?
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Q1) How might youths with bipolar disorders actually increase the number of stressful life events and scarcity of positive life evens they experience?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of child- and family-focused CBT?
A) teaching children to recognize and regulate strong emotions
B) teaching parents to manage stress
C) teaching parents to set firm limits
D) providing parents and children social skills training
Q3) Negative symptoms in schizophrenia have been most effectively treated by which of the following?
A) CBT
B) conventional antipsychotics
C) atypical antipsychotics
D) supportive psychotherapy
Q4) Research has indicated that providing low doses of antipsychotics and other measures to youths at greater risk of schizophrenia can reduce the emergence of the disorder.Are there any downsides to this approach?
Q5) How do children with bipolar disorders differ from children with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?
Q6) What is the evidence that genetics does not entirely account for schizophrenia?
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Q1) Gina,age 4,will eat only yellow and white foods.She refuses all others.Which of the following is true of Gina?
A) She can be diagnosed with ARFID.
B) She has the posttraumatic feeding version of ARFID.
C) She can only be diagnosed with ARFID if her nutrition or family relationships are significantly affected by her strange eating habits.
D) She can only be diagnosed with ARFID if this behavior has persisted for more than 1 year.
Q2) Teaching a child to suck on a pacifier instead of eating sand would be considered which of the following?
A) differential reinforcement of zero behavior
B) differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior
C) using a pica box
D) facial screening
Q3) Interpersonal therapy is as effective as cognitive-behavioral therapy for bulimia nervosa long-term,though cognitive-behavioral therapy is associated with greater initial improvement.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Why do so many adolescents experience a phase delay in their circadian rhythm?
A) because they are less attuned to dawn and sunset than those of other ages
B) because their activity tends to be greater at night than during the day
C) because puberty brings a delay in cortisol and melatonin secretion
D) because their amygdala is finally becoming fully formed
Q2) Archie is trying to train his son Gregor to fall asleep.He puts Gregor in the crib at 10:00 p.m.,30 minutes later than his usual bedtime.Gregor is still not asleep after 10 minutes.So,Archie takes him out.He tries again at 10:30 p.m.He puts Gregor in the crib.By 10:45 p.m.,Gregor is still not asleep,so Archie takes him out.He tries again at 11:00 p.m..He puts Gregor in the crib.Within 5 minutes,Gregor is asleep.The next night,Archie first tries putting Gregor in the crib at 10:30 p.m.Sure enough,Gregor is asleep at 10:40 p.m.This technique is called which of the following?
A) planned ignoring
B) graduated ignoring
C) bedtime fading
D) chronotherapy
Q3) What does it mean for a child to be "incompletely awake," as is seen in sleep arousal disorders?
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