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Introduction to Child Psychology provides a comprehensive overview of the psychological development of children from infancy through adolescence. This course explores fundamental theories and research in areas such as cognitive development, emotional growth, socialization, language acquisition, and moral reasoning. Students will examine the influence of genetics, family, culture, and environment on the developing child and will analyze case studies to better understand typical and atypical developmental patterns. Through interactive discussions and application of concepts, students gain insight into the milestones and challenges of childhood, preparing them for further study or careers related to child development.
Recommended Textbook
Child Development An Active Learning Approach 3rd Edition by Laura E. Levine
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Q1) Early experiences are the ones that have the most important and long lasting effects on development.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The connection that Lewis Terman found between the characteristic of conscientiousness or social dependability in childhood and the reduced likelihood of an individual dying in any given year during adulthood can be partially explained by the A) type of parenting style that the children's parents used.
B) fact that these children tended to come from smaller families.
C) children's ability to delay gratification.
D) fact that these individuals were less likely to smoke and drink to excess.
Answer: D
Q3) Stage theories describe
A) qualitative changes.
B) long-term changes.
C) significant changes.
D) physiological changes.
Answer: A
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Q1) The idea that biological maturation operates in interaction with the environment and the experiences it provides to children comes from
A) ethology.
B) sociobiology.
C) dynamic systems theory.
D) behavioral genomics.
Answer: C
Q2) The help that a more knowledgeable person offers to a child to help the child move beyond his current level of understanding is called
A) collaborative learning.
B) prompting.
C) assimilation.
D) scaffolding.
Answer: D
Q3) The process of classical conditioning works on animals, but humans cannot be classically conditioned.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) If you were interested in studying what causes disagreements among friends in middle school and how those disagreements are resolved, an appropriate technique to use to study this topic would be
A) a time sample.
B) a case study.
C) a path analysis.
D) an event sample.
Answer: D
Q2) The statistical tests that we use to analyze the results of our studies always test
A) the null hypothesis of no difference between group.
B) the probability that we have made a mistake while doing our research.
C) the validity of the research we have conducted.
D) whether or not our research has any practical significance.
Answer: A
Q3) A researcher does not have to collect her own data in order to conduct research. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which type of research is helpful in clarifying the interaction of genes and environment?
A) Studies that incorporate an experimental design.
B) Studies comparing identical and nonidentical twins.
C) Studies comparing parents and their children.
D) Studies involving ethnographic data collection.
Q2) Chromosomes are made up of __________, and they, in turn, are made up of __________.
A) genes; DNA
B) DNA molecules; RNA
C) DNA molecules; genes
D) genes; proteins
Q3) The study of the chemical reactions that activate and deactivate parts of the genetic material of an organism is known as epigenetics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Human Genome Project has found that human being have only about 20,000 to 25,000 genes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One of the reasons why babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancy show growth retardation (that is, they are small and lighter than average for their gestational age) is that nicotine
A) destroys many of the nutrients in the woman's blood.
B) slows down the rate of cell division in the developing fetus.
C) constricts the blood vessels and limits the flow of oxygen and nutrients through the placenta.
D) makes the fetus more active and this additional activity reduces the size of the fetus.
Q2) During prenatal development
A) all the baby's senses become functional to some extent.
B) the developing baby is protected from all sensory input from the environment.
C) rudimentary senses develop, but most of this development does not occur until after birth.
D) auditory and visual senses develop, but the remaining senses are not yet functional.
Q3) Describe the three stages of prenatal development, including the number of days or weeks post-conception for each.
Q4) What are the most common reasons for miscarriage?
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Q1) There are some rare circumstances in which it is not recommended that a woman breastfeed her infant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The DSM-5 recognizes a condition called __________ in which delays in reaching motor milestones interfere with daily living and/or academic performance.
A) proprioceptor disorder
B) developmental coordination disorder
C) motor skill interference disorder
D) proximodistalitis
Q3) The cause of cerebral palsy is
A) brain injury during prenatal development or during the birth process itself.
B) a lack of stimulation during the early months of development.
C) a massive overgrowth of brain synapses and the lack of synaptic pruning.
D) a diet severely lacking in adequate amounts of protein.
Q4) There is some evidence that massage can increase your body's ability to fight off the effects of some diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Many modern theorists see Piaget as only a historical figure with little relevance to modern research.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The major cognitive accomplishment during the preoperational stage is
A) acquiring the ability to represent actions mentally rather than physically.
B) developing object permanence.
C) beginning to think logically.
D) translating circular reactions into goal directed activity.
Q3) The coordination of attention and memory and the control of behavioral responses for the purpose of attaining a goal are handled by the
A) experience-expectant parts of the brain.
B) experience-dependent parts of the brain.
C) executive function of the brain.
D) parietal lobe.
Q4) What is the theory of core knowledge? How does it differ from Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
Q5) Infants habituate to stimuli they have experienced before and are attracted to novelty. Why is this adaptive for a child's development?
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Q1) A simple test of self-control can be as predictive of grades in school as an IQ test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While theories of cognitive development focus on universal processes that affect all children, the study of intelligence focuses on A) sociocultural differences.
B) innate differences.
C) individual differences.
D) group differences.
Q3) Training on computer games based upon shapes and mental rotation has A) been unable to reduce gender difference in spatial skills.
B) produced significant improvement in girls' performance on spatial skills tasks.
C) only been able to produce small, short-term improvement in spatial skills.
D) eliminated gender differences in how much boys and girls enjoy computer games.
Q4) What is creativity? Describe four ways that Robert Sternberg suggests to foster creative thinking in children.
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Q1) From birth, parents can identify why babies are crying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frequent texting does not appear to harm an adolescent's ability to spell correctly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Learning a second language at a young age is makes it more likely that a child will
A) be better at learning a third language in high school.
B) not show a detectable accent.
C) be less likely to learn to read in their first language on time.
D) be better at performing on standardized tests.
Q4) The idea that a grammatical structure for language is hardwired in our brain comes from
A) social cognitive theory.
B) nativism.
C) operant conditioning.
D) information processing theory.
Q5) Describe the five basic aspects of language that researchers commonly study?
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Q1) A pattern of family interaction in which the child misbehaves, the parents tries to punish the child but is ineffective, and the child escalates the misbehavior until the parents give up is what Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have called a
A) reciprocating family environment.
B) dysfunctional family environment.
C) coercive family environment.
D) toxic family environment.
Q2) What is the difference between anxiety and an anxiety disorder?
A) Anxiety involves a component of fear whereas an anxiety disorder does not.
B) Typical anxiety will not respond to medication, anxiety associated with a disorder does.
C) Anxiety disorders involve levels of anxiety that interfere with daily living and cause distress.
D) Anxiety disorders are hereditary, typical anxiety is not.
Q3) Give advice to new parents to help them understand how to foster secure attachment and tell them why this is so important.
Q4) Describe three diagnoses from the DSM that describe behavior that are linked with poor self-control.
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Q1) List five words that describe you, then list five words a preschooler might use to describe herself. How do these differ and in what ways are they the same? What does this show about how self-concept develops?
Q2) If we look at how moral reasoning relates to moral behavior, we find that
A) morality is a personal trait, so a person's level of moral reasoning is reflected in their behavior across many situations.
B) people at lower levels of moral reasoning almost always reflect their level of reasoning in their behavior.
C) the level of reasoning and moral behavior is usually consistent for men, but there is more variability for women.
D) morality is more state-like than trait-like because many situational factors influence how likely it will be that we behave morally.
Q3) Compare Kohlberg's ideas about gender identity development to gender schema theory.
Q4) What is heteronomous morality and what is autonomous morality? Provide an example of each.
Q5) What role does social comparison play in self-concept in middle childhood?
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Q6) Compare Kohlberg's and Gilligan's ideas of what morality is and how it develops.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a family characteristic of a child who engages in bullying behavior?
A) Lack of parental supervision
B) Single-parent family
C) The use of punitive discipline
D) Insecure attachment to parents
Q2) What is play therapy? What has research shown about how effective it is in helping children resolve emotional problems?
Q3) In social interactions between preschoolers, children engage in mutual imitation when they reach
A) 12 to 15 months.
B) 15-18 months.
C) 20 to 24 months.
D) 24 to 30 months.
Q4) One of the characteristics of an activity that we would call "play" is that A) there are rules that everyone agrees to.
B) the activity is done for its own sake.
C) it must involve sharing.
D) there has to be a common goal.
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Q1) One of the reasons why parents rely on spanking is that
A) it has been shown to be the most effective way to get children to internalize the norms and expectations of their society.
B) it is effective at immediately stopping a behavior, even if it doesn't help children learn to control themselves in the long run.
C) it provokes a strong emotional response from their children and this helps them remember their parent's message about how they should behave.
D) it will help children to understand the reasons why they should do what they are being asked to do by their parents.
Q2) Parents who are highly stressed following a divorce may
A) become very restrictive and controlling of their children's behavior.
B) work particularly hard on their parenting skills in an effort to make the divorce as easy as possible on their children.
C) call upon extended family and friends to help them with parenting so their children won't suffer.
D) communicate less effectively and do less monitoring and controlling of the child's behavior.
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Q1) Discuss three reasons why children now take part in less unstructured, outdoor play than they have in the past.
Q2) Seventy percent of children drop out of organized sports by the age of 13.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is positive youth development and how does this approach differ from earlier programs designed to intervene to help children with problems.
Q4) Educational television appears to have
A) a positive effect on learning for children older than age 2.
B) a positive effect that is similar to the effect of entertainment television for children older than 4.
C) a negative effect on cognitive development in children under the age of 7.
D) a negative effect on pre-academic skills of preschool children.
Q5) Unstructured time spent with friends during adolescence has been associated with A) greater imagination and creativity.
B) better social skills and a stronger peer network.
C) greater amounts of time spent with nonparental adults.
D) an increased risk of criminal activity, sexual activity, and drug and alcohol use.
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Q1) Negative attitudes toward a particular racial group are
A) discriminatory actions.
B) racism.
C) prejudices.
D) stereotypes.
Q2) With regard to rates of smoking among teens
A) the rate is much higher among males than females.
B) Black adolescents have a highest rate of smoking.
C) the rate is similar for White and Black adolescents.
D) the rate is similar for males and females.
Q3) Ways to help prevent the spread of common illnesses once children start school include all of the following EXCEPT
A) getting all the required immunizations.
B) gargling with mouthwash.
C) frequent and thorough handwashing.
D) covering your mouth and nose when you sneeze.
Q4) The leading cause of death for children ages 19 years and younger is injuries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe behaviors associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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